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2121 exam 1 pt.6

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with allergic rhinitis takes diphenhydramine and drinks alcohol nightly. What is the priority teaching?

a)

Alcohol prevents nasal inflammation

b)

Combining them can cause dangerous sedation and impaired breathing/alertness

c)

Alcohol increases the antihistamine’s benefit safely

d)

Diphenhydramine prevents pneumonia

2.

A client with acute sinusitis reports severe facial pressure that worsens when leaning forward and thick purulent drainage. Which finding most supports bacterial sinusitis?

a)

Clear rhinorrhea and itchy eyes

b)

Symptoms improved within 24 hours

c)

Symptoms persist >10 days or “double-worsening” after initial improvement

d)

Fever absent and drainage watery only

3.

A client asks why a CT scan may be ordered for sinusitis complications. The best explanation is:

a)

It measures lung airflow (FEV1)

b)

It confirms influenza strain type

c)

It measures oxygen saturation continuously

d)

It can show sinus anatomy/abscess/extension when complications are suspected

4.

A child with tonsillitis is suspected of having Group A strep. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate?

a)

Rapid antigen detection test and/or throat culture

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

Peak flow meter

d)

Tympanometry

5.

A child with confirmed strep throat started antibiotics. When can they usually return to school/daycare if improving and afebrile?

a)

Immediately after first dose

b)

After 24 hours of antibiotics

c)

Only after finishing the full course

d)

Only after a repeat throat culture is negative

6.

A 6-hour post-tonsillectomy child has frequent swallowing and throat clearing. What is the priority concern?

a)

Normal scab formation

b)

Mild dehydration

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Expected referred ear pain only

7.

Post-tonsillectomy teaching: which drink should be avoided initially because it can hide bleeding?

a)

Cool water

b)

Ice chips

c)

Clear non-red popsicle

d)

Red-colored liquids

8.

A client with laryngitis says, “I’ve been whispering so I don’t strain my voice.” What is the best teaching?

a)

Avoid whispering; use complete voice rest/humidification and fluids as instructed

b)

Whispering is safest because it rests the cords

c)

Start antibiotics immediately

d)

Use decongestants every 2 hours

9.

Which teaching best helps prevent viral nasopharyngitis transmission?

a)

Share drinks to “build immunity”

b)

Hand hygiene + covering cough/sneeze + avoid close contact when symptomatic

c)

Antibiotics for everyone in the household

d)

Only wear gloves at home

10.

A client has influenza symptoms that started 18 hours ago and is high risk for complications. Which medication is most appropriate?

a)

Broad-spectrum antibiotic

b)

Diphenhydramine only

c)

Oseltamivir

d)

Montelukast

11.

Which statement about oseltamivir is correct?

a)

It cures influenza instantly

b)

It treats bacterial pneumonia

c)

It works best if started after fever resolves

d)

It is most effective when started within 24–48 hours of symptom onset

12.

A newborn is hospitalized with RSV bronchiolitis. Which nursing action is priority?

a)

Support oxygenation and hydration and monitor for increasing work of breathing

b)

Give aspirin for fever

c)

Encourage forceful coughing every hour

d)

Restrict fluids to reduce secretions

13.

A parent asks what nirsevimab is. Best answer:

a)

A live vaccine

b)

A monoclonal antibody used to help prevent severe RSV disease

c)

A broad-spectrum antibiotic

d)

A bronchodilator used daily for asthma

14.

A toddler with RSV has nasal flaring and retractions. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Clear runny nose only

b)

Mild cough only

c)

Poor feeding with worsening retractions and decreased oxygen saturation

d)

Sneezing without distress

15.

A high-risk infant is receiving RSV prevention education. Which statement is correct?

a)

“Antibiotics prevent RSV.”

b)

“Decongestants prevent RSV.”

c)

“CPAP prevents RSV.”

d)

“Monoclonal antibody prophylaxis may be recommended for some infants.”

16.

A client with chronic nasal obstruction, reduced smell, and “grape-like” tissue in nares likely has:

a)

Nasal polyps

b)

Strep pharyngitis

c)

Acute laryngitis

d)

COPD exacerbation

17.

A client with nasal polyps also has asthma and sensitivity to aspirin/NSAIDs. This combination most suggests:

a)

Ménière’s disease

b)

Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)

c)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

d)

Hemolytic transfusion reaction

18.

Which medication is most appropriate for short-term relief of nasal congestion in rhinitis (with safety screening)?

a)

Inhaled LABA

b)

Inhaled steroid once ever

c)

Decongestant (e.g., pseudoephedrine/phenylephrine) with precautions

d)

IV antiviral

19.

A client with uncontrolled hypertension asks about pseudoephedrine. The best response is:

a)

“It’s safe for everyone.”

b)

“It lowers blood pressure.”

c)

“It prevents pneumonia.”

d)

“Avoid it unless your provider approves; it can raise blood pressure and heart rate.”

20.

A trach client suddenly cannot breathe and the trach is dislodged. What is the priority action?

a)

Call dietary

b)

Apply oxygen and replace the trach immediately per emergency protocol while calling for help

c)

Give oral fluids

d)

Place the client flat and wait

21.

A nurse is suctioning a tracheostomy. Which practice is safest?

a)

Suction continuously for 60 seconds

b)

Instill large saline routinely before every pass

c)

Use sterile technique and limit each suction pass to reduce hypoxia

d)

Keep the client supine to prevent coughing

22.

A cuffed trach client is receiving tube feeding and coughing frequently. What is the priority concern?

a)

Increased IOP

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Viral rhinitis

d)

Aspiration risk; assess cuff, positioning, and swallow/feeding safety per orders

23.

A client with asthma says, “My chest feels tight, but I’m not wheezing now.” Which finding is most concerning for status asthmaticus?

a)

Diminished/absent breath sounds (“silent chest”) with fatigue

b)

Loud wheezing throughout both lungs

c)

RR 18/min and SpO2 98%

d)

Symptoms fully relieved after one SABA puff

24.

A client in severe asthma exacerbation has increasing CO2 and decreasing level of consciousness. What is the priority?

a)

Give a decongestant

b)

Prepare for airway support/ventilation and escalate care immediately

c)

Encourage pursed-lip breathing only

d)

Delay treatment until peak flow is measured

25.

A client with asthma asks which inhaler is the rescue medication.

a)

Inhaled corticosteroid

b)

LABA

c)

Short-acting beta2 agonist (albuterol)

d)

Montelukast

26.

Teaching for LABA (salmeterol) in asthma: which is correct?

a)

Use it PRN for sudden attacks

b)

Use it alone as asthma control

c)

Replace your rescue inhaler

d)

Use it with an inhaled corticosteroid for maintenance, not as rescue

27.

Which adverse effect is most expected with albuterol?

a)

Tremors and tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension

c)

Respiratory depression

d)

Severe constipation

28.

A client on inhaled corticosteroids reports mouth soreness and white patches. Best teaching?

a)

Stop the steroid forever

b)

Rinse mouth after use (and use spacer if prescribed) to reduce thrush

c)

Take the steroid only during attacks

d)

Switch to antibiotics for asthma control

29.

A client with allergic asthma asks how cromolyn helps. Best answer:

a)

It stabilizes mast cells to prevent mediator release (prevention, not rescue)

b)

It relaxes airway smooth muscle immediately

c)

It kills influenza virus

d)

It replaces inhaled steroids

30.

A COPD client is prescribed ipratropium. What is its main mechanism?

a)

Breaks down mucus

b)

Blocks acetylcholine to reduce bronchoconstriction and secretions

c)

Stimulates beta2 receptors strongly

d)

Shrinks nasal blood vessels only

31.

A COPD client asks why they need a “controller” even when they feel okay. Best response:

a)

Controllers prevent all infections permanently

b)

Controllers cure emphysema

c)

Controllers reduce baseline inflammation/bronchospasm and help prevent flare-ups

d)

Controllers are only for strep throat

32.

A COPD client has worsening SOB and thick secretions. Which intervention best supports secretion clearance (if not contraindicated)?

a)

Restrict fluids to 1 L/day

b)

Avoid humidification

c)

Give antitussives around the clock

d)

Hydration + humidification + expectorant as ordered to thin secretions

33.

A COPD client’s chest x-ray shows a flattened diaphragm. This most indicates:

a)

Hyperinflation typical of emphysema/COPD

b)

Acute bacterial tonsillitis

c)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

d)

Middle ear effusion

34.

A COPD client’s provider orders alpha-1 antitrypsin level. Why?

a)

To confirm influenza

b)

To evaluate for inherited alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency causing early emphysema

c)

To diagnose strep throat

d)

To measure kidney function

35.

A COPD client has dependent edema, JVD, and hepatomegaly. What complication is most likely?

a)

SIADH

b)

Left-sided heart failure from valve disease

c)

Cor pulmonale (right-sided HF from pulmonary hypertension)

d)

Acute otitis media

36.

Best teaching for cor pulmonale prevention in COPD is:

a)

Avoid oxygen forever

b)

Increase sodium intake

c)

Stop all inhalers

d)

Control hypoxia and COPD exacerbations to reduce pulmonary strain

37.

A client with suspected pneumonia is ordered sputum culture. When should it be obtained if possible?

a)

Before the first antibiotic dose

b)

After 72 hours of antibiotics

c)

Only if fever is gone

d)

After discharge

38.

A nurse is explaining why chest x-ray is ordered for pneumonia. Best explanation:

a)

It measures airflow obstruction (FEV1)

b)

It confirms RSV strain type

c)

It measures arterial pH

d)

It identifies lung infiltrates/extent of consolidation and complications

39.

A client with severe pneumonia has pleural fluid suspected. Which procedure both removes fluid and can obtain a specimen?

a)

Thoracentesis

b)

Audiometry

c)

Tympanometry

40.

A client has aspiration pneumonia risk. Which history finding is most important?

a)

High potassium diet

b)

Dysphagia after stroke with coughing during meals

c)

Seasonal allergies only

d)

Presbycusis

41.

A hospitalized client develops pneumonia after 48 hours of admission. This is classified as:

a)

CAP

b)

HCAP

c)

HAP

d)

VAP

42.

A client develops pneumonia after 48 hours of mechanical ventilation. This is:

a)

CAP

b)

HAP

c)

HCAP

d)

VAP

43.

Broad-spectrum antibiotics are most appropriate when:

a)

Cultures are pending and the organism is unknown in a seriously ill client

b)

Viral infection is suspected and mild

c)

The organism is known and sensitive to narrow therapy

d)

Symptoms are minimal and improving

44.

Before starting broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected bacterial pneumonia, what is the best nursing action when feasible?

a)

Delay antibiotics until fever resolves

b)

Obtain ordered blood/sputum cultures first

c)

Give antihistamines first

d)

Restrict fluids to reduce coughing

45.

A client with pneumonia suddenly has severe dyspnea and pleuritic pain. The provider suspects pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is most direct for PE evaluation?

a)

Peak flow

b)

Spirometry

c)

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) as ordered

d)

Throat culture

46.

A nurse is teaching spirometry results in obstructive disease. Which pattern is most expected in COPD?

a)

Increased FEV1/FVC ratio

b)

Normal FEV1 with high ratio

c)

Increased tidal volume only

d)

Decreased FEV1 and decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

47.

A client is taught peak flow "zones." Which is correct?

a)

Green zone is usually 80–100% of personal best

b)

Green zone is 50–80% of personal best

c)

Yellow zone means "no action needed"

d)

Red zone means "continue routine meds only"

48.

A client with asthma has peak flow in the red zone. What is the priority action?

a)

Schedule a routine follow-up next month

b)

Follow the action plan: use rescue meds and seek urgent/emergency care as directed

c)

Stop all meds to "reset" lungs

d)

Drink fluids only

49.

A client has suspected lung cancer. Which risk factor is most important to assess?

a)

Pack-year smoking history

b)

Daily water intake

c)

Red meat intake

d)

Nail polish exposure

50.

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to evaluate metabolic activity and staging in lung cancer?

a)

Tympanometry

b)

PET scan

c)

Rinne test

d)

Peak flow

51.

A provider suspects mediastinal lymph node involvement in lung cancer. Which procedure is most associated with sampling mediastinal nodes?

a)

Thoracentesis

b)

Spirometry

c)

Mediastinoscopy

d)

Throat culture

52.

A client has a pleural effusion and suspected malignancy. Which procedure can obtain pleural fluid and allow biopsy depending on findings?

a)

Audiometry

b)

Chest percussion only

c)

Pulse oximetry

d)

Thoracoscopy (VATS) as ordered

53.

A post-lobectomy client has sudden dyspnea and copious serosanguinous drainage from chest tube with air leak. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Bronchopleural fistula

b)

Otitis externa

c)

Allergic rhinitis

d)

Presbycusis

54.

A client with pneumonia deteriorates and imaging shows pus in the pleural space. This complication is called:

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Empyema

c)

Cor pulmonale

d)

Sinusitis

55.

A client’s lung cancer is suspected to have spread to the brain due to new neuro symptoms. Which imaging is most appropriate?

a)

Peak flow

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

MRI brain as ordered

d)

Tympanometry

56.

A client asks why bronchoscopy is used in lung cancer workup. Best answer:

a)

It measures oxygen saturation

b)

It treats influenza

c)

It confirms rhinitis

d)

It visualizes airways and can obtain tissue/brushings for diagnosis

57.

A client is ordered a CT chest for a new mass. Why CT instead of chest x-ray alone?

a)

CT provides more detailed anatomy and can better characterize masses/lymph nodes

b)

CT measures ABG pH

c)

CT cures pneumonia

d)

CT prevents RSV

58.

A client has suspected community-acquired pneumonia and is stable. Which treatment principle is most appropriate?

a)

Withhold antibiotics until day 10

b)

Use narrowest effective antibiotic once organism is known; start empiric therapy as ordered

c)

Always use broadest antibiotics for all pneumonia

d)

Use only antihistamines

59.

A client with severe allergic rhinitis takes an antihistamine and reports urinary retention. Which class is most associated with anticholinergic effects?

a)

First-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine)

b)

LABAs

c)

Antivirals

d)

Monoclonal antibodies

60.

A client uses oxymetazoline nasal spray daily for 2 weeks and now has worse congestion. What is happening?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa)

c)

Cor pulmonale

d)

Pneumonia complication

61.

Which medication class is best described as "short-acting bronchodilator for rapid relief"?

a)

Inhaled corticosteroid

b)

LABA

c)

SABA

d)

Mast cell stabilizer

62.

A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about inhaler order when using both albuterol and an inhaled corticosteroid. Which is best?

a)

Steroid first always

b)

Use them at the exact same time

c)

Steroid replaces albuterol

d)

Use albuterol first to open airways, then steroid as prescribed

63.

A client with COPD asks why PFTs are ordered. Best explanation:

a)

They measure airflow limitation and severity (e.g., FEV1) and response to bronchodilators

b)

They diagnose strep throat

c)

They measure inner ear pressure

d)

They confirm glaucoma

64.

A COPD client has an ABG showing chronic CO2 retention with near-normal pH and elevated HCO3−. This most indicates:

a)

Acute respiratory alkalosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

d)

Mixed acidosis only

65.

A client with suspected bacterial pneumonia is started on broad-spectrum antibiotics while cultures are pending. Which nursing action is priority to reduce resistance once results return?

a)

Stop antibiotics immediately regardless

b)

Switch to antiviral therapy

c)

De-escalate to narrow-spectrum therapy based on culture/sensitivity

d)

Continue broad-spectrum for 30 days always

66.

A client with severe influenza develops sudden worsening respiratory distress and bilateral infiltrates. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Acute otitis media

b)

Sinus headache

c)

Laryngitis

d)

ARDS/respiratory failure

67.

A client with suspected lung cancer has pleural effusion. What finding most suggests malignant pleural involvement?

a)

Recurrent unilateral pleural effusions with weight loss and persistent cough

b)

Seasonal itching and sneezing only

c)

Improvement within 24 hours of antihistamine

d)

Only sore throat and strawberry tongue

68.

A client asks what a "biopsy" is. Best explanation:

a)

It measures oxygen in blood

b)

It removes a tissue sample so it can be examined for cancer/diagnosis

c)

It measures FEV1

d)

It measures ear conduction

69.

A trach client has thick secretions. Which intervention is most helpful to prevent mucus plugging?

a)

Adequate humidification and hydration as ordered + suctioning as needed

b)

Restrict fluids strictly

c)

Avoid suctioning entirely

d)

Use antihistamines to dry everything out

70.

A nurse is assessing for trach cuff complications. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Mild sore throat

b)

Tracheal mucosal damage risk from high cuff pressure

c)

Improved voice volume

d)

Increased appetite

71.

A client with suspected pneumonia has crackles and O2 sat 88%. What is the priority first action?

a)

Get peak flow reading

b)

Obtain throat culture

c)

Apply oxygen per order and reassess respiratory status

d)

Give decongestant

72.

A client with asthma says, "I’m using my LABA inhaler when I’m tight." Best response:

a)

Correct—LABA is fastest rescue

b)

LABA replaces albuterol

c)

LABA is best for sudden attacks

d)

LABA is maintenance; use SABA for acute symptoms and follow the plan

73.

A client with influenza is asking if antibiotics will cure it. Best response:

a)

Antibiotics treat bacteria, not viruses; antivirals may be used early for influenza

b)

Antibiotics cure all viruses

c)

Antibiotics prevent all complications

d)

Antibiotics replace vaccines

74.

A client with asthma is on inhaled steroids and reports hoarseness. Which teaching is best?

a)

Take steroids only PRN

b)

Use a spacer and rinse/gargle after inhalation to reduce local effects

c)

Stop all controller meds

d)

Switch to decongestants

75.

A client with severe asthma exacerbation is receiving continuous nebulized bronchodilators and IV steroids. Which sign suggests improvement?

a)

Increasing PaCO2 with drowsiness

b)

“Silent chest”

c)

Peak flow increases toward personal best and work of breathing decreases

d)

Cyanosis worsens

76.

A client with pneumonia has pleuritic pain and decreased breath sounds on one side; ultrasound shows a large pleural effusion. What is the best next step?

a)

Start decongestants only

b)

Give antihistamines only

c)

Encourage vigorous coughing only

d)

Prepare for thoracentesis per order and monitor respiratory status

77.

A client with suspected lung cancer has new clubbing of fingers and unexplained weight loss. Which priority screening question is most important?

a)

Smoking history and occupational exposures (asbestos/radon)

b)

Favorite fruit intake

c)

Daily water flavorings

d)

Shoe size

78.

A client asks why "sputum cytology" might be ordered in lung cancer evaluation. Best answer:

a)

It measures nasal swelling

b)

It can detect abnormal/cancer cells shed into sputum in some cases

c)

It measures FEV1 only

d)

It treats infection

79.

A client with conductive vs sensorineural hearing questions is mistakenly scheduled for bronchoscopy. Which test actually measures hearing thresholds?

a)

Audiometry

b)

Chest x-ray

80.

A client with suspected bacterial pneumonia asks why CT chest may be ordered if x-ray is unclear. Best answer:

a)

CT is the same as x-ray

b)

CT provides more detailed imaging to evaluate complications/masses when needed

c)

CT measures oxygen saturation

d)

CT measures potassium

81.

A client with COPD has early-onset emphysema and minimal smoking history. Which lab supports a genetic cause?

a)

BNP

b)

Troponin

c)

Low alpha-1 antitrypsin level

d)

Elevated bilirubin

82.

A client with lung cancer has a chest tube post-surgery. Sudden large, foul-smelling pleural drainage and fever suggests:

a)

TRALI

b)

Sinusitis

c)

Allergic rhinitis

d)

Empyema/infected pleural space complication

83.

A client with allergic rhinitis asks about "second-generation" antihistamines. What benefit is most typical?

a)

Less sedation compared with first-generation agents

b)

Stronger sedation

c)

Higher risk of respiratory depression with alcohol

d)

Immediate cure of asthma

84.

A client with asthma takes albuterol and reports palpitations. What is the best nursing response?

a)

This means the medication is poisoning you

b)

Tremor/tachycardia can occur; report severe symptoms and follow dosing instructions

c)

Stop all rescue meds immediately

d)

This proves pneumonia

85.

A provider orders broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected sepsis from pneumonia. Which nursing priority supports best practice?

a)

Delay antibiotics for 24 hours

b)

Give only antihistamines first

c)

Obtain ordered cultures first when feasible, then administer antibiotics promptly

d)

Give potassium before antibiotics

86.

A client with severe OSA asks why weight loss is recommended. Best answer:

a)

Weight loss reduces soft tissue around the airway and can reduce airway collapse

b)

Weight loss cures influenza

c)

Weight loss replaces CPAP immediately for everyone

d)

Weight loss increases mucus for better clearance

87.

A trach client is on room air but has thick secretions and frequent plugging. Which order is most helpful?

a)

Humidified oxygen/air delivery as prescribed (humidification is key with trachs)

b)

Restrict fluids to 500 mL/day

c)

Avoid suctioning

d)

Use decongestants as the main fix

88.

A client with COPD asks why they need vaccines. Best answer:

a)

Vaccines cure COPD

b)

Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines reduce infection risk that can trigger exacerbations

c)

Vaccines are avoided in COPD

d)

Vaccines replace inhalers

89.

A client with pneumonia has been on antibiotics for 48 hours and is worsening. Which is the priority nursing action?

a)

Notify provider; reassess oxygenation, consider complications/resistance, and ensure cultures/results reviewed

b)

Stop oxygen immediately

c)

Encourage exercise only

d)

Discharge immediately

90.

A client with lung cancer is scheduled for PET and MRI. What is the main reason for advanced imaging?

a)

To measure FEV1 directly

b)

To stage cancer and evaluate spread/metastasis and treatment planning

c)

To cure infection

d)

To treat RSV

91.

A client with COPD has chronic hypercapnia. Which oxygen approach is most appropriate?

a)

No oxygen ever

b)

15 L NRB continuously for all COPD clients

c)

Titrate oxygen as prescribed (often low-flow/controlled) to target saturation while monitoring

d)

Room air only regardless of saturation

92.

A client with suspected aspiration pneumonia is most likely to have infiltrates in which lung area?

a)

Left upper lobe always

b)

Bilateral apices only

c)

Right middle lobe only

d)

Dependent lung segments (often right lower lobe), depending on position during aspiration

93.

A client with rhinitis asks which symptom best suggests allergic rhinitis rather than viral rhinitis.

a)

Itchy eyes/sneezing + clear watery drainage and seasonal pattern

b)

Thick green drainage on day 1

c)

High fever and severe body aches always

d)

Strawberry tongue

94.

A client with asthma is prescribed a mast cell stabilizer. When should it be used for best effect?

a)

Only during acute attacks

b)

Regularly before exposure/exercise as prevention, not for rescue

c)

Only at bedtime for sleep

d)

Only with antibiotics

95.

A nurse is reviewing why sputum studies matter. Which is the best purpose of sputum culture?

a)

Identify the organism and guide antibiotic choice

b)

Measure PaO2

c)

Diagnose glaucoma

d)

Measure hearing thresholds

96.

A client with status asthmaticus is receiving continuous bronchodilators and IV steroids. Which finding shows the greatest immediate danger?

a)

RR 20 and wheezing present

b)

SpO2 95% on room air

c)

Mild cough with good air movement

d)

Rising PaCO2 with decreasing mental status

97.

A client post-lung surgery suddenly has subcutaneous emphysema, increased air leak, and respiratory distress. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Bronchopleural fistula or significant air leak complication

b)

Allergic rhinitis

c)

Tonsillitis

d)

Presbycusis

98.

A client asks why "thoracentesis with biopsy" might be done in lung cancer workup. Best response:

a)

It treats influenza

b)

It removes nasal polyps

c)

To sample pleural fluid/tissue to diagnose cancer spread or effusion cause

d)

It cures COPD

99.

A client asks why “thoracentesis with biopsy” might be done in lung cancer workup. Best response:

a)

It removes nasal polyps

b)

It can remove pleural fluid and obtain tissue/cells to help diagnose malignancy

c)

It confirms asthma severity

d)

It treats influenza

100.
  1. A client with seasonal allergic rhinitis asks which medication is best for daily prevention of sneezing/itching during pollen season.

a)

  1. Intranasal corticosteroid (e.g., fluticasone) used consistently

b)

  1. Albuterol inhaler used every morning

c)

  1. IV methylprednisolone once monthly

d)

  1. Broad-spectrum antibiotic for 10 days