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Senior Check Off

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the instructions for phone note documentation, what must every note start with?

a)

Patient's address

b)

Date, time, name, DOB

c)

Reason for call

d)

Final outcome

2.

Which of the following is NOT listed as relevant information to gather during phone note documentation?

a)

Name of who called

b)

Reason for call

c)

Patient's insurance provider

d)

Final outcome

3.

Fill in the blank: The phone note should end with the ______ and credentials.

a)

name

b)

date

c)

address

d)

phone number

4.

The reason for the call and all relevant information, including a call back number, should be documented in the phone note.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

In the example provided, what medication was requested for a 30-day refill?

a)

Metformin

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Atorvastatin

d)

Amoxicillin

6.

According to the instructions, what should be included if the caller is not the patient?

a)

The relation to the patient should be included if the caller is not the patient.

b)

The caller's occupation should be included if the caller is not the patient.

c)

The caller's favorite color should be included if the caller is not the patient.

d)

The caller's previous medical history should be included if the caller is not the patient.

7.

What does 'NKDA' stand for in medical abbreviations?

a)

No Known Drug Allergies

b)

Non-Ketotic Diabetic Acidosis

c)

No Known Dietary Allergies

d)

Neuro-Kinetic Diagnostic Assessment

8.

What is the difference between 'None' and 'N/A' when filling out the patient history form?

a)

'None' means the condition or item does not apply to the patient. 'N/A' means the question is not applicable to the patient.

b)

'None' means the patient has not answered the question. 'N/A' means the patient refused to answer.

c)

'None' means the patient has all conditions. 'N/A' means the patient has some conditions.

d)

'None' and 'N/A' can be used interchangeably with no difference.

9.

What should you do if you make an error while filling out the patient history form?

a)

Draw a line through the error and initial it.

b)

Erase the error completely and rewrite it.

c)

Use correction fluid to cover the error.

d)

Ignore the error and continue filling out the form.

10.

Each page of the patient history form must have the patient's name and ________.

a)

date of birth (DOB)

b)

address

c)

insurance number

d)

phone number

11.

What does 'Gravida' mean in the context of the patient history form?

a)

Total number of pregnancies

b)

Number of live births

c)

Number of miscarriages

d)

Number of twins

12.

What does 'Para' mean in the context of the patient history form?

a)

Total number of living births

b)

Number of pregnancies regardless of outcome

c)

Number of miscarriages

d)

Number of stillbirths

13.

What does 'Abs' mean in the context of the patient history form?

a)

Abortion, miscarriage, D&C

b)

Abscess, infection, swelling

c)

Absent, not present, missing

d)

Abstinence, no sexual activity

14.

When filling out the patient history form, should you leave any blanks?

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which of the following is NOT a proper medical abbreviation?

a)

NKDA

b)

DOB

c)

ABCD

d)

N/A

16.

If a patient has no known drug allergies, which abbreviation should be used on the form?

a)

N/A

b)

NKDA

c)

None

d)

DOB

17.

What does the 'A' in AIDET stand for?

a)

Acknowledge

b)

Announce

c)

Ask

d)

Arrange

18.

What does the 'I' in AIDET stand for?

a)

Inquire

b)

Introduce

c)

Inform

d)

Instruct

19.

What does the 'D' in AIDET stand for?

a)

Duration

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Discussion

d)

Decision

20.

What does the 'E' in AIDET stand for?

a)

Evaluate

b)

Explanation

c)

Example

d)

Examine

21.

What does the 'T' in AIDET stand for?

a)

Thank You

b)

Test

c)

Treat

d)

Tell

22.

What is the systolic blood pressure?

a)

The first sound/top number when the heart contracts

b)

The last sound/bottom number when the heart relaxes

c)

The normal adult range

d)

The reading is always an even number

23.

What is the diastolic blood pressure?

a)

The first sound/top number when the heart contracts

b)

The last sound/bottom number when the heart relaxes

c)

The normal adult range

d)

The reading is always an even number

24.

Fill in the blank: The blood pressure reading is always an ______ number.

a)

even

b)

odd

c)

prime

d)

negative

25.

What is the normal adult blood pressure range?

a)

120/80 below

b)

130/80 above

c)

140/90 above

d)

110/70 below

26.

High blood pressure is known as ________.

a)

Hypertension (HTN)

b)

Hypotension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Arrhythmia

27.

Low blood pressure is known as ________.

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Anemia

d)

Bradycardia

28.

HTN1 is defined as blood pressure of ______ mmHg above.

a)

130/80

b)

120/70

c)

140/90

d)

150/95

29.

HTN2 is defined as blood pressure of ______ mmHg above.

a)

140/90

b)

120/80

c)

160/100

d)

130/85

30.

The instructor will use a dual stethoscope to check BP, and the reading should not be more than 4 points off.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the normal pulse rate in beats per minute (BPM)?

a)

60-100 BPM

b)

30-50 BPM

c)

110-140 BPM

d)

150-180 BPM

32.

What is tachycardia?

a)

Slow heart rate below 60 BPM

b)

Fast heart rate 100 BPM or above

c)

Normal pulse 60-100 BPM

33.

What is bradycardia?

a)

Slow heart rate below 60 BPM

b)

Fast heart rate 100 BPM or above

c)

Normal pulse 60-100 BPM

34.

Pulse is recorded as ______ = beats per minute.

a)

BPM

b)

RPM

c)

KPH

d)

MPH

35.

If there is an abnormal pulse, you should count for how long?

a)

A whole minute

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

30 seconds

36.

What is the normal respiration rate for adults?

a)

12-20

b)

20-30

c)

8-14

d)

25-35

37.

What is dyspnea?

a)

Difficulty or painful breathing

b)

Excessive sweating

c)

Loss of appetite

d)

Frequent urination

38.

The best way to check respiration is by:

a)

Only listening to the patient

b)

Watching, listening, or feeling the movement at the patient’s chest, stomach, back, or shoulders

c)

Only feeling the patient’s pulse

39.

List the 5 sites to check temperature: i. Oral (sublingually in mouth) ii. Rectal (anus) iii. Temporal (forehead) iv. Tympanic (ear) v. Axillary (armpit)

a)

Oral, Rectal, Temporal, Tympanic, Axillary

b)

Oral, Nasal, Temporal, Tympanic, Axillary

c)

Oral, Rectal, Temporal, Tympanic, Inguinal

d)

Oral, Rectal, Buccal, Tympanic, Axillary

40.

Temperature can be measured in degrees ______ (°F) or degrees ______ (°C).

a)

Fahrenheit, Celsius

b)

Celsius, Fahrenheit

c)

Kelvin, Rankine

d)

Newton, Réaumur

41.

What is the normal adult temperature?

a)

98.6°F

b)

100.4°F

c)

97.0°F

d)

95.5°F

42.

Anything over ______ is considered a fever.

a)

100°F

b)

98°F

c)

97°F

d)

99°F

43.

Febrile means:

a)

with fever

b)

no fever

c)

exceptionally high fever

44.

Afebrile means:

a)

with fever

b)

no fever

c)

exceptionally high fever

45.

Hyperpyrexia means:

a)

with fever

b)

no fever

c)

exceptionally high fever

46.

What device is used to check O2 and document it with a percentage?

a)

Oximeter

b)

Thermometer

c)

Sphygmomanometer

d)

Stethoscope

47.

What is the normal O2 reading range according to the oximeter?

a)

80%-90%

b)

95%-100%

c)

70%-80%

d)

100%-110%

48.

The highest O2 reading on an oximeter is _______.

a)

100%

b)

80%

c)

95%

d)

60%

49.

An O2 reading of 95% or below is considered:

a)

Normal

b)

Concerning

c)

Highest

d)

Safe

50.

If a patient's O2 reading is concerning, what should you do?

a)

Notify doctor and have patient take deep breaths

b)

Ignore the reading and continue as normal

c)

Ask the patient to sleep it off

d)

Increase the room temperature

51.

What is hypoxemia?

a)

Low blood oxygen

b)

High blood sugar

c)

Excessive sweating

d)

Low blood pressure

52.

Cyanosis is the condition of turning blue due to _______.

a)

inadequate supply of oxygen

b)

excessive supply of carbon dioxide

c)

high blood sugar levels

d)

dehydration

53.

How many pounds (lb) are equivalent to 1 kilogram (kg)?

a)

2.2 lb

b)

1.0 lb

c)

0.5 lb

d)

5.0 lb

54.

To convert kilograms (kg) to pounds (lb), you should:

a)

Divide by 2.2

b)

Multiply by 2.2

c)

Add 2.2

d)

Subtract 2.2

55.

To convert pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg), you should:

a)

Divide by 2.2

b)

Multiply by 2.2

c)

Add 2.2

d)

Subtract 2.2

56.

What should you always do before checking the height or weight on a scale?

a)

Calibrate the scale. The scale must be balanced.

b)

Ask the patient to remove their shoes.

c)

Record the previous measurement.

d)

Turn off the scale and restart it.

57.

Height can be recorded in which units?

a)

Feet, inches, or centimeters

b)

Liters, grams, or seconds

c)

Watts, volts, or ohms

d)

Miles, gallons, or pounds

58.

To convert feet to inches, you should multiply by what number?

a)

12

b)

10

c)

6

d)

3

59.

If a person's height is 5 feet 2 inches, what is their height in inches?

a)

62 inches

b)

52 inches

c)

60 inches

d)

64 inches

60.

What is an intradermal injection?

a)

An intradermal injection is an injection administered into the dermis, just below the epidermis of the skin.

b)

An intradermal injection is an injection administered into the muscle tissue, deep below the skin.

c)

An intradermal injection is an injection administered into the subcutaneous fat layer beneath the skin.

d)

An intradermal injection is an injection administered directly into the bloodstream.

61.

What is a subcutaneous injection?

a)

A subcutaneous injection is an injection administered into the tissue layer between the skin and the muscle.

b)

A subcutaneous injection is an injection administered directly into the bloodstream.

c)

A subcutaneous injection is an injection administered into the bone marrow.

d)

A subcutaneous injection is an injection administered into the joint cavity.

62.

What is an intramuscular deltoid injection?

a)

An intramuscular deltoid injection is an injection administered into the deltoid muscle of the upper arm.

b)

An intramuscular deltoid injection is an injection given into the thigh muscle.

c)

An intramuscular deltoid injection is an injection administered into the abdominal region.

d)

An intramuscular deltoid injection is an injection given into the gluteal muscle.

63.

What is an intramuscular ventrogluteal injection?

a)

An intramuscular ventrogluteal injection is an injection administered into the ventrogluteal muscle of the hip.

b)

An intramuscular ventrogluteal injection is an injection administered into the deltoid muscle of the upper arm.

c)

An intramuscular ventrogluteal injection is an injection administered into the vastus lateralis muscle of the thigh.

d)

An intramuscular ventrogluteal injection is an injection administered into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen.

64.

What is an intramuscular dorsogluteal injection?

a)

An intramuscular dorsogluteal injection is an injection administered into the dorsogluteal muscle of the buttocks.

b)

An intramuscular dorsogluteal injection is an injection administered into the deltoid muscle of the upper arm.

c)

An intramuscular dorsogluteal injection is an injection administered into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen.

d)

An intramuscular dorsogluteal injection is an injection administered into the vastus lateralis muscle of the thigh.

65.

What is documentation on injection?

a)

Documentation on injection refers to the process of recording details about the injection administered, such as type, site, dosage, and time.

b)

Documentation on injection refers to the process of sterilizing injection equipment before use.

c)

Documentation on injection refers to the method of preparing medication for injection.

d)

Documentation on injection refers to the process of monitoring patient reactions after injection.

66.

What is dosage calculation in the context of injections?

a)

Dosage calculation is the process of determining the correct amount of medication to administer via injection based on patient-specific factors.

b)

Dosage calculation is the process of selecting the injection site based on patient preference.

c)

Dosage calculation is the process of preparing the injection equipment for use.

d)

Dosage calculation is the process of recording the time of injection in the patient's chart.

67.

What is one of the 6 basic rights of medication for proper administration and documentation? Fill in the blank: Right ________.

a)

patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation

b)

temperature, color, size, shape, smell, taste

c)

location, equipment, lighting, sound, air, water

d)

speed, direction, pressure, volume, frequency, density

68.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 basic rights of medication?

a)

Right patient

b)

Right drug

c)

Right location

d)

Right documentation

69.

Fill in the blank: The right to refuse medication is considered an ________ right of medication.

a)

additional

b)

absolute

c)

conditional

d)

temporary

70.

Which of the following is a safety technique to follow when performing injections?

a)

Recap used needle

b)

Disinfect in 3 circular motion

c)

Switch hands when holding needle

d)

Insert needle halfway

71.

You must draw the correct dose with no bubbles when preparing an injection.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Fill in the blank: You must know the correct syringe, needle size, gauge, correct location of injection, angle of injection, and ________ of injection.

a)

purpose

b)

color

c)

brand

d)

expiration date

73.

Which of the following is an additional right of medication?

a)

Right time

b)

Right documentation

c)

Right reason

d)

Right route

74.

You should have a sharps container nearby when performing injections.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Fill in the blank: Safety lock with ________ and dispense needle immediately.

a)

thumb

b)

elbow

c)

knee

d)

chin

76.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice safety technique for injections?

a)

Do not recap used needle

b)

Needle must be inserted all the way

c)

Switch hands when holding needle

d)

Always disinfect in 3 circular motion

77.

Dr has ordered 300mg of Zantac to be taken daily. The medication we have available is Zantac 150mg. How many tablets should be given?

a)

2 tablets

b)

1 tablet

c)

3 tablets

d)

4 tablets

78.

Order: 7,000 units IM of a medicine. The vial is labeled as 10,000 units in 2 mL. Desired = 7,000 units. Have = 10,000 units. Quantity = 2 mL. How many mL should be given?

a)

1.4 mL

b)

0.7 mL

c)

2 mL

d)

0.2 mL

79.

What is the abbreviation for Intramuscular injection?

a)

IM

b)

IV

c)

SC

d)

ID

80.

At what degree and location is an Intramuscular (IM) injection given?

a)

90 degree given in deltoid or muscle

b)

45 degree given in subcutaneous tissue

c)

15 degree given in epidermis

d)

30 degree given in vein

81.

What is the correct syringe size and aspiration method for an Intramuscular (IM) injection?

a)

3CC, Aspirate

b)

1CC, No Aspiration

c)

5CC, No Aspiration

d)

10CC, Aspirate

82.

What is the correct needle length and gauge for an Intramuscular (IM) injection?

a)

25 gauge, 1-1 ½ inch

b)

18 gauge, ½ inch

c)

30 gauge, ⅝ inch

d)

22 gauge, 3 inch

83.

What is the purpose of an Intramuscular (IM) injection?

a)

Rapid absorption

b)

Slow absorption

c)

To deliver medication to the skin surface

d)

To avoid absorption

84.

What is the abbreviation for Subcutaneous injection?

a)

SQ

b)

IM

c)

IV

d)

ID

85.

At what degree and location is a Subcutaneous (SQ) injection given?

a)

45 degree given in back of arm the fatty area

b)

90 degree given in the deltoid muscle

c)

15 degree given in the forearm

d)

10 degree given in the gluteal muscle

86.

What is the correct syringe size and aspiration method for a Subcutaneous (SQ) injection?

a)

3CC, Aspirate

b)

1CC, Do not aspirate

c)

5CC, Aspirate

d)

10CC, Do not aspirate

87.

What is the correct needle length and gauge for a Subcutaneous (SQ) injection?

a)

25 gauge, 5/8 inch

b)

18 gauge, 1 1/2 inch

c)

22 gauge, 1 inch

d)

27 gauge, 1/2 inch

88.

What is the purpose of a Subcutaneous (SQ) injection?

a)

Slow absorption

b)

Immediate effect

c)

Intravenous delivery

d)

Topical application

89.

What is the abbreviation for Intradermal injection?

a)

ID

b)

IM

c)

IV

d)

SC

90.

At what degree and location is an Intradermal (ID) injection given?

a)

10-15 degree given in forearm

b)

45 degree given in gluteal region

c)

90 degree given in deltoid muscle

d)

25 degree given in abdomen

91.

What is the correct syringe size and aspiration method for an Intradermal (ID) injection?

a)

1CC, No Aspiration

b)

3CC, With Aspiration

c)

5CC, No Aspiration

d)

10CC, With Aspiration

92.

What is the correct needle length and gauge for an Intradermal (ID) injection?

a)

27 gauge, ½ inch

b)

22 gauge, 1 inch

c)

25 gauge, 1½ inch

d)

21 gauge, 2 inch

93.

What is the purpose of an Intradermal (ID) injection?

a)

To check reaction of allergy and TB test. Advise patient not to scratch, rub or touch it. Return to clinic in 48-72 hours for results to be read.

b)

To administer large volumes of medication quickly into the bloodstream.

c)

To provide long-term medication through slow absorption in the muscle.

d)

To deliver vaccines directly into the subcutaneous tissue.

94.

What is the abbreviation for Ventrogluteal injection?

a)

VG

b)

IM

c)

IV

d)

SC

95.

At what degree and location is a Ventrogluteal (VG) injection given?

a)

90 degree given in lateral thigh area

b)

45 degree given in deltoid muscle

c)

30 degree given in upper arm

d)

15 degree given in abdomen

96.

What is the correct syringe size and aspiration method for a Ventrogluteal (VG) injection?

a)

3CC, Aspirate

b)

1CC, No aspiration

c)

5CC, No aspiration

d)

10CC, Aspirate

97.

What is the correct needle length and gauge for a Ventrogluteal (VG) injection?

a)

25 gauge, 1 ½ inch

b)

22 gauge, 1 inch

c)

18 gauge, 2 inch

d)

27 gauge, ½ inch

98.

What is the purpose of a Ventrogluteal (VG) injection?

a)

Rapid absorption

b)

To administer oral medication

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To check blood sugar levels