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Inflammation

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient reports burning epigastric pain occurring 2–5 hours after meals. Which type of ulcer is most likely?

a)

Gastric

b)

Stress ulcer

c)

Duodenal

d)

Curling ulcer

2.

Which is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Alcohol use

b)

Smoking

c)

H. pylori infection

d)

Stress

3.

A patient receiving amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and a PPI is being treated for:

a)

NSAID-induced ulcer

b)

Crohn’s disease

c)

H. pylori infection

d)

Stress ulcer

4.

Which finding indicates possible perforation of a peptic ulcer?

a)

Heartburn

b)

Early satiety

c)

Sudden severe pain with rigid abdomen

d)

Bloating

5.

Pain relieved by food is characteristic of which condition?

a)

Gastric ulcer

b)

Reflux esophagitis

c)

Duodenal ulcer

d)

Hiatal hernia

6.

Which drug provides mucosal protection in PUD?

a)

Pantoprazole

b)

Famotidine

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Calcium carbonate

7.

A patient with a tense, rigid abdomen and coffee-ground emesis likely has which complication?

a)

Stricture

b)

Gastric outlet obstruction

c)

GI bleeding

d)

Mild flare

8.

NSAID use contributes to PUD primarily by:

a)

Decreasing blood flow

b)

Increasing gastric motility

c)

Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

d)

Increasing bicarbonate secretion

9.

Which test definitively diagnoses PUD?

a)

CBC

b)

Abdominal ultrasound

c)

Endoscopy with biopsy

d)

Stool culture

10.

Which finding is associated with gastric ulcers?

a)

Pain 4–6 hours after eating

b)

Pain relieved by food

c)

Pain 1–2 hours after eating

d)

Severe early morning pain

11.

Which is a priority nursing action for a patient with suspected perforation?

a)

Give antacids

b)

Increase oral fluids

c)

Keep NPO and prepare for surgery

d)

Administer famotidine

12.

Which lifestyle factor increases PUD risk?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

Daily exercise

c)

Coffee intake

d)

Low-fat diet

13.

13. A lab result that may indicate ulcer bleeding is:

a)

Low hemoglobin level

b)

High blood glucose level

c)

Elevated potassium level

d)

Increased white blood cell count

14.

Gastric outlet obstruction commonly presents with:

a)

Frequent diarrhea

b)

Dry cough

c)

Belching and vomiting

d)

Hematuria

15.

Which medication reduces acid by blocking histamine receptors?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Sucralfate

c)

Famotidine

d)

Clarithromycin

16.

A patient with chronic PUD should avoid:

a)

Apples

b)

Rice

c)

Alcohol

d)

Oatmeal

17.

Which H. pylori test confirms active infection?

a)

CBC

b)

CMP

c)

Urea breath test

d)

Stool culture

18.

Which statement indicates correct PPI teaching?

a)

I should take this drug only when I feel pain.

b)

This drug neutralizes stomach acid immediately.

c)

This drug reduces acid secretion to help healing.

d)

This drug coats my stomach lining permanently.

19.

Which condition increases risk for duodenal ulcers?

(a)  

20.

A patient with a duodenal ulcer would most likely report:

a)

Pain when fasting

b)

Pain relieved by vomiting

c)

Pain relieved by eating

d)

Pain that radiates to the jaw

21.

What does coffee-ground emesis most likely indicate?

a)

Liver failure

b)

Esophageal varices

c)

Slow upper GI bleed

d)

Lower GI bleed

22.

Which patient is MOST at risk for gastric ulcers?

a)

16-year-old male

b)

32-year-old female

c)

54-year-old woman on NSAIDs

d)

28-year-old on probiotics

23.

Sucralfate is best administered:

a)

With meals

b)

With milk at bedtime

c)

On an empty stomach

d)

After other medications

24.

A patient with PUD and hypotension is most likely experiencing:

a)

Perforation

b)

Gastric outlet obstruction

c)

GI bleeding

d)

Food intolerance

25.

What is the priority for a patient vomiting bright red blood?

a)

Give antacids

b)

Document the episode

c)

Assess airway and vital signs

26.

Which finding is most characteristic of ulcerative colitis?

a)

Skip lesions

b)

Cobblestone appearance

c)

Continuous inflammation from rectum upward

d)

Fistula formation

27.

Which symptom is more common in Crohn’s disease?

a)

Large amounts of bloody diarrhea

b)

Tenesmus

c)

Weight loss and malabsorption

d)

Rectal urgency

28.

28. The complication MOST associated with ulcerative colitis is:

a)

Toxic megacolon

b)

Intestinal obstruction

c)

Malabsorption syndrome

d)

Fistula formation

29.

A) Fistulas B) Malabsorption C) Toxic megacolon D) Small bowel cancer

a)

Fistulas

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Toxic megacolon

d)

Small bowel cancer

30.

A patient with IBD is prescribed infliximab. Which priority instruction should the nurse include?

a)

Avoid dairy

b)

Increase fluid intake

c)

Report signs of infection

d)

Avoid potassium-rich foods

31.

Which is a priority assessment for a patient receiving biologic therapy for IBD?

a)

Reflexes

b)

Urine output

c)

Temperature

d)

Blood pressure

32.

Which diagnostic test best visualizes mucosal changes in ulcerative colitis?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

MRI

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Chest x-ray

33.

A major difference between Crohn’s and UC is that Crohn’s disease:

a)

Involves only the mucosa

b)

Has continuous inflammation

c)

Is limited to the colon

d)

Can affect any part of the GI tract

34.

Which diet is appropriate during an IBD flare?

a)

High-fiber

b)

Low-protein

c)

Low-fiber

d)

High-fat

35.

Which symptom suggests a rectal fistula in Crohn’s disease?

a)

Projectile vomiting

b)

Frequent belching

c)

Stool leaking from the vagina

d)

Black tarry stool

36.

Which lab result is expected during an IBD exacerbation?

a)

Low CRP

b)

Elevated ESR

c)

High hemoglobin

d)

Low WBC

37.

A patient with UC has 20 bloody stools per day. The nurse expects:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Anemia

d)

Fluid overload

38.

Which medication decreases inflammation in the GI tract by blocking prostaglandins?

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Sulfasalazine

d)

Azithromycin

39.

Which of the following increases the risk of Crohn’s disease?

a)

Low-fat diet

b)

Daily exercise

c)

Cigarette smoking

d)

Low-sodium diet

40.

Which surgery permanently cures ulcerative colitis?

a)

Small bowel resection

b)

Billroth II

c)

Total proctocolectomy

d)

Partial gastrectomy

41.

Which complication is common in Crohn’s but not UC?

a)

Toxic megacolon

b)

Fistulas

c)

Significant rectal bleeding

d)

Tenesmus

42.

A patient with IBD is malnourished due to poor absorption. The nurse expects:

a)

High potassium

b)

Weight gain

c)

Vitamin deficiencies

d)

Bradycardia

43.

A patient taking prednisone for a Crohn’s flare should be monitored for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypotension

44.

Which is a major long-term complication of IBD?

a)

Kidney cancer

b)

Rheumatic fever

c)

Colorectal cancer

d)

Appendicitis

45.

Which finding requires urgent intervention in a UC patient?

a)

4 loose stools/day

b)

Cramping with meals

c)

Distended abdomen with fever

d)

Low appetite

46.

Which result supports a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease?

a)

Strictures on imaging

b)

Rectal-only involvement

c)

Surface-level mucosal inflammation

d)

No malabsorption

47.

A new ileostomy patient is at greatest risk for:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Anemia

48.

Healthy stoma appearance is:

4 lines
49.

Which statement from an ostomy patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

I will empty my pouch when it’s one-third full.

b)

I will check my skin for irritation.

c)

I will avoid all physical activity permanently.

d)

I will measure my stoma regularly.

50.

Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through:

a)

Blood transfusions

b)

Needles

c)

Fecal-oral route

d)

Sexual contact

51.

Which lab confirms acute Hepatitis A?

a)

Anti-HAV IgG

b)

HBsAg

c)

Anti-HAV IgM

d)

Anti-HBs

52.

Hepatitis B can be spread through all except:

a)

Sexual contact

b)

Needle sharing

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Blood exposure

53.

A patient with positive HBsAg has:

a)

Past infection

b)

Immunity from vaccine

c)

Active hepatitis B infection

d)

No infection

54.

Hepatitis C is most commonly associated with:

a)

Contaminated food

b)

Saliva exposure

c)

IV drug use

d)

Fecal contamination

55.

A patient with Hepatitis C asks about treatment. The correct response is:

a)

There is no treatment available.

b)

You must take steroids.

c)

Direct-acting antivirals can cure most cases.

d)

Antibiotics will cure it.

56.

Chronic hepatitis is most strongly associated with which complication?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Asthma

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

COPD

57.

Which finding indicates impaired liver function?

a)

Pale urine

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Clay-colored stool

d)

Low bilirubin

58.

RUQ pain, jaundice, and dark urine suggest:

a)

Crohn’s flare

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Viral hepatitis

d)

Gastritis

59.

A patient with Hepatitis B should avoid:

a)

Water intake

b)

Vaccines

c)

Alcohol

d)

Protein

60.

Hepatitis D requires:

a)

Hepatitis A infection

b)

Hepatitis C infection

c)

Hepatitis E coinfection

d)

Hepatitis B infection

61.

A patient with hepatitis reports pruritus. This is related to:

a)

Ketone buildup

b)

High protein levels

c)

Accumulated bile salts

d)

High calcium

62.

Pain from cholecystitis is commonly located in the:

a)

right upper quadrant

b)

left lower quadrant

c)

epigastric region

d)

left upper quadrant

63.

Which area is most commonly affected in cholecystitis?

a)

Left upper quadrant

b)

Suprapubic area

c)

Right upper quadrant

d)

Left lower quadrant

64.

Which symptom suggests cholelithiasis?

a)

Tingling in extremities

b)

Severe RUQ pain after eating fatty foods

c)

Absent bowel sounds

d)

Hematochezia

65.

Which diagnostic test is most commonly used for gallbladder disease?

a)

CT of the head

b)

Endoscopy

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Colonoscopy

66.

Which lab finding may rise during cholecystitis?

a)

Low bilirubin

b)

Low AST

c)

Elevated bilirubin

d)

Low lipase

67.

A major complication of cholecystitis is:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Gallbladder rupture

d)

Cystocele

68.

66. Which symptom should the nurse report immediately in a cholecystitis patient?

a)

Severe abdominal pain with fever

b)

Mild nausea after eating

c)

Intermittent headache

d)

Slight fatigue in the morning

69.

Initial management of acute cholecystitis includes:

a)

High-fat meals

b)

High dairy intake

c)

NPO status

d)

Laxatives

70.

Which diet is recommended in cholecystitis?

a)

High saturated fats

b)

High-fat, low-protein

c)

High-fiber, low-fat

d)

High-sodium

71.

Pancreatitis pain is typically described as:

a)

Intermittent and mild

b)

Sharp and RUQ

c)

Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back

d)

Cramping relieved by food

72.

Which lab value is most indicative of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Low bilirubin

b)

Low creatinine

c)

Elevated amylase

d)

Low potassium

73.

Which is a major cause of pancreatitis?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Constipation

c)

Gallstones

d)

Low triglycerides

74.

A patient with pancreatitis reports pain worsens after eating. Why?

a)

Food decreases enzyme secretion

b)

Eating reduces bile flow

c)

Eating stimulates pancreatic enzymes

d)

Eating increases gastric pH

75.

Which complication is associated with pancreatitis?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Liver rupture

c)

Pseudocyst

d)

Toxic megacolon

76.

Which assessment finding indicates shock in pancreatitis?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Warm skin

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

77.

Which intervention reduces pancreatic stimulation?

a)

High-carb diet

b)

Q2h ambulation

78.

Elevated lipase and low WBC are laboratory findings. Which is correct for pancreatitis?

a)

Elevated lipase

b)

Low WBC

79.

Which electrolyte imbalance is common in severe pancreatitis?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

80.

A patient with pancreatitis has diminished breath sounds. The nurse suspects:

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Asthma

d)

Atelectasis only

81.

Which position may relieve pancreatitis pain?

a)

Supine

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

Leaning forward

d)

Prone

82.

Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Mild nausea

b)

Absent bowel sounds

c)

Low-grade fever

d)

Anorexia

83.

80. The recommended diet after pancreatitis resolves is:

a)

Low-fat diet

b)

High-fat diet

c)

Ketogenic diet

d)

Liquid-only diet

84.

Clay-colored stools may indicate:

a)

Renal failure

b)

PUD

c)

Obstruction of bile flow

d)

Crohn’s disease

85.

Coffee-ground emesis is associated with:

a)

Lower GI bleeding

b)

Hepatic failure

c)

Upper GI bleed

d)

Constipation

86.

Which disorder commonly presents with bloody diarrhea?

a)

IBS

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

Hepatitis A

87.

Elevated amylase and lipase are consistent with:

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

88.

Which of the following is most likely to present with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back?

a)

Cholelithiasis

b)

Crohn’s flare

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Hepatitis A

89.

Jaundice can be seen in all except:

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Duodenal ulcer

90.

A rigid abdomen is a hallmark of:

a)

IBS

b)

GERD

c)

Peritonitis

d)

UC

91.

Which condition is directly linked to H. pylori?

a)

Crohn's

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Gastric ulcers

d)

Pancreatitis

92.

Which condition is most associated with malabsorption?

a)

Peptic ulcer disease

b)

Ulcerative colitis

c)

Crohn’s disease

d)

Hepatitis A

93.

89. Which sign indicates biliary obstruction?

a)

Courvoisier's sign

b)

Murphy's sign

c)

Grey Turner's sign

d)

McBurney's sign

94.

A) Clear urine B) Pink sputum C) Dark urine D) Polyuria

a)

Clear urine

b)

Pink sputum

c)

Dark urine

d)

Polyuria

95.

A patient with toxic megacolon is at risk for:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Lung collapse

c)

Perforation

d)

Hypoglycemia

96.

Which condition may require TPN?

a)

Gastritis

b)

Mild UC

c)

Severe Crohn’s with malabsorption

d)

Hepatitis A

97.

Which intervention is appropriate after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

a)

Encourage high-fat meals

b)

Supine bedrest only

c)

Early ambulation

d)

Avoid fluids

98.

Grey-Turner or Cullen’s signs may be seen in:

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

GERD

c)

Severe pancreatitis

d)

Cholelithiasis

99.

A) Gingivitis C) Hematemesis D) Viral hepatitis

a)

Gingivitis

b)

Fistula or abscess

c)

Hematemesis

d)

Viral hepatitis

100.

Which is expected in acute hepatitis?

a)

Low ALT

b)

Low AST

c)

Elevated ALT and AST

d)

Low bilirubin

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