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Worksheets

PHARM MT

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is preparing to administer a newly prescribed antihypertensive medication. What is the priority assessment before giving the medication?

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Pain score

2.

A patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which action reflects the "planning" step of the nursing process?

a)

Teaching the patient about signs of hypoglycemia

b)

Checking blood glucose before meals

c)

Establishing a goal of maintaining blood glucose between 80–130 mg/dL

d)

Holding the dose if the patient is NPO

3.

After giving a patient morphine IV, which action reflects the evaluation phase?

a)

Documenting the time the medication was administered

b)

Checking the patient’s respiratory rate 30 minutes later

c)

Asking another nurse to monitor the patient

d)

Telling the patient to call for help when getting out of bed

4.

A nurse is administering furosemide to a patient. Which assessment should be completed prior to administration?

a)

Apical pulse

b)

Pupillary response

c)

Blood pressure and potassium level

d)

Glasgow Coma Scale

5.

The nurse administers an antibiotic and the patient reports shortness of breath and a rash. What is the priority intervention?

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Stop the medication infusion

c)

Document the reaction

d)

Check the patient’s temperature

6.

You’re planning care for a patient receiving warfarin. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

a)

Risk for constipation

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Risk for bleeding

d)

Risk for fluid volume deficit

7.

A nurse is caring for a patient who refuses to take their prescribed medication. What is the best action?

a)

Insist they take the medication

b)

Document the refusal and notify the provider

c)

Mix the medication in food

d)

Discontinue the medication

8.

A nurse is educating a patient on a new antibiotic. What best reflects the intervention phase?

a)

“Do you understand why you’re taking this medication?”

b)

“You should take this antibiotic until it’s finished, even if you feel better.”

c)

Documenting the education

d)

Asking about medication allergies

9.

What is the best evaluation of a pain medication’s effectiveness?

a)

“The patient appears comfortable.”

b)

“The patient states pain is now 3/10.”

c)

“The patient’s heart rate decreased.”

d)

“The patient is resting quietly.”

10.

Before administering insulin, the nurse reviews the MAR and notes that the blood glucose is 75 mg/dL. What is the priority action?

a)

Administer insulin

b)

Give orange juice

c)

Notify the provider

d)

Hold the insulin and recheck glucose in 30 minutes

11.

The nurse sets a goal: “Patient will verbalize 3 side effects of metoprolol by end of teaching.” This is an example of which step in ADPIE?

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

12.

A nurse gives potassium chloride IV push. The patient goes into cardiac arrest. What is the most likely breach in the nursing process?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Evaluation

d)

Planning

13.

You check the patient’s MAR and see they have a documented allergy to penicillin. What should you do first?

a)

Administer with caution

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Document the allergy again

d)

Ask the pharmacy for an alternative

14.

Which nursing action best represents intervention when managing a medication side effect?

a)

Teaching about the side effect

b)

Reporting the side effect to the provider

c)

Monitoring for side effects

d)

Administering an antiemetic for nausea

15.

A drug that is highly protein-bound will:

a)

Reach peak levels more quickly

b)

Have increased free drug in the blood

c)

Have a longer duration of action

d)

Be eliminated more rapidly

16.

The first-pass effect primarily affects which route of medication administration?

a)

Sublingual

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Oral

d)

Intravenous

17.

A patient with liver failure is prescribed a standard dose of a medication. What should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Decreased drug effectiveness

b)

Increased drug toxicity

c)

Enhanced excretion

d)

Increased protein binding

18.

A drug has a short half-life. What does this mean for dosing?

a)

Less frequent dosing needed

b)

More frequent dosing needed

c)

The drug is long-acting

d)

No monitoring is required

19.

Which factor most affects drug distribution?

a)

Route of administration

b)

Protein-binding ability

c)

Taste of the medication

d)

Route of excretion

20.

A nurse is explaining why an older adult requires a lower dose of a benzodiazepine. Which is the best rationale?

a)

Increased metabolic rate

b)

Slower absorption

c)

Decreased renal and hepatic function

d)

Larger muscle mass

21.

A patient is receiving a drug via IV. Which pharmacokinetic phase is bypassed?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion

22.

A patient asks why antibiotics don’t work for viral infections. The best response is:

a)

“They do work, but slower.”

b)

“Your provider will decide what’s best.”

c)

“Antibiotics only target bacteria, not viruses.”

d)

“It depends on the strength of your immune system.”

23.

Which of the following is a bacteriostatic action?

a)

Kills bacteria

b)

Inhibits bacterial growth

c)

Removes bacteria from bloodstream

d)

Enhances phagocytosis

24.

Which condition most requires broad-spectrum antibiotics?

a)

A confirmed streptococcal infection

b)

An unknown infection with signs of sepsis

c)

A minor wound

d)

A known E. coli UTI

25.

Which lab value is most important before starting antibiotics?

a)

ALT/AST

b)

CBC

c)

Culture and sensitivity

d)

PT/INR

26.

A patient is prescribed an antibiotic and asks why they must take the full course. Best response?

a)

“You might feel sick again if you don’t.”

b)

“The bacteria could become resistant.”

c)

“It helps reduce side effects.”

d)

“Insurance requires it.”

27.

A patient develops watery diarrhea after antibiotics. What complication is suspected?

a)

Constipation

b)

GI upset

c)

C. difficile infection

d)

Dehydration

28.

Which is an example of empiric therapy?

a)

Treating with antibiotics after a positive culture

b)

Starting antibiotics based on likely organisms before results return

c)

Giving antivirals for influenza

d)

Delaying treatment until cultures return

29.

What is the primary goal of antimicrobial therapy?

a)

Kill all bacteria in the body

b)

Increase immune system function

c)

Eliminate the causative organism

d)

Prevent all infections

30.

Which factor contributes most to antibiotic resistance?

a)

Vaccinations

b)

Prolonged hospital stays

c)

Incomplete antibiotic courses

d)

Taking antibiotics with food

31.

Which of the following antibiotics is considered narrow-spectrum?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Doxycycline

32.

Which finding indicates a superinfection?

a)

Lower WBC count

b)

Rash after first dose of antibiotic

c)

New oral thrush during antibiotic therapy

d)

Decreased urine output

33.

A patient receiving clindamycin develops abdominal cramping and diarrhea. What is the priority concern?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Constipation

c)

C. difficile colitis

d)

IBS

34.

What teaching should be included to prevent vaginal yeast infections during antibiotic therapy?

a)

Avoid all carbohydrates

b)

Take antibiotics on an empty stomach

c)

Use probiotics or eat yogurt

d)

Double the dose if a dose is missed

35.

Which patient is most at risk for developing a superinfection?

a)

A patient receiving a 3-day antibiotic course

b)

A patient using a short-term corticosteroid

c)

A patient on prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotics

d)

A patient with a healthy immune system

36.

A nurse is reviewing a case of superinfection. Which organism is often responsible?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

E. coli

37.

Which nursing action best supports antibiotic stewardship?

a)

Starting antibiotics before blood cultures are drawn

b)

Encouraging use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

Ensuring antibiotics are discontinued when no longer needed

d)

Avoiding all antibiotics unless necessary

38.

(Vancomycin) A patient receiving vancomycin IV develops flushing of the face, neck, and upper chest. What is the nurse’s next action?

a)

Stop the infusion immediately

b)

Check blood cultures

c)

Slow the infusion rate

d)

Increase IV fluids

39.

(Clindamycin) The nurse knows to monitor which serious side effect of clindamycin?

a)

Liver toxicity

b)

Bone marrow suppression

c)

Pseudomembranous colitis

d)

Tinnitus

40.

(Aminoglycosides) Which assessment is most important when administering gentamicin?

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Deep tendon reflexes

c)

Urine output and hearing

d)

Blood pressure

41.

(Aminoglycosides) What is a key feature of aminoglycoside dosing?

a)

Once-daily dosing is avoided

b)

They require peak and trough level monitoring

c)

They’re administered orally for best effect

d)

They don’t interact with other drugs

42.

(Aminoglycosides) What is the primary toxicity associated with aminoglycosides?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

c)

Cardiomyopathy

d)

Respiratory depression

43.

(Fluoroquinolones) What patient teaching is most important for ciprofloxacin?

a)

Avoid dairy products

b)

Take with a full glass of milk

c)

May cause blurred vision

d)

Report tendon pain immediately

44.

(Tetracycline) What food/drink should be avoided with tetracycline?

a)

Citrus juice

b)

Dairy products

c)

High-fiber cereal

d)

Caffeinated beverages

45.

(Penicillin) A patient reports itchy throat and difficulty breathing after a penicillin injection. What is the first action?

a)

Administer diphenhydramine

b)

Notify provider

c)

Give epinephrine

d)

Document the reaction

46.

(Penicillin) Which electrolyte abnormality is a potential side effect of high-dose penicillin G potassium?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

47.

(Sulfonamides) What key adverse effect should patients report when taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

a)

Mild headache

b)

Orange-colored urine

c)

Rash or signs of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

d)

Nasal dryness

48.

Which statement about erythromycin is true?

a)

It’s often used for UTIs

b)

It is safe with most anticoagulants

c)

It can prolong the QT interval

d)

It is safe in pregnancy

49.

What is a major benefit of azithromycin compared to erythromycin?

a)

More GI side effects

b)

Longer half-life, shorter course

c)

Requires multiple daily doses

d)

Must be taken with food

50.

Which teaching is most important for linezolid (Zyvox)?

a)

Avoid aged cheeses and SSRIs

b)

Take with a full glass of water

c)

Avoid sun exposure

d)

Take on an empty stomach

51.

A patient receiving a diuretic complains of weakness. Which nursing action is most appropriate during the assessment phase?

a)

Assess mentation

b)

Assess potassium level

c)

Measure abdominal girth

d)

Administer potassium supplement

52.

A patient on opioids becomes lethargic with shallow breathing. The nurse identifies this as which nursing diagnosis?

a)

Impaired mobility

b)

Risk for injury

c)

Ineffective breathing pattern

d)

Risk for constipation

53.

A patient is newly prescribed digoxin. Which goal reflects the planning stage?

a)

Patient verbalizes understanding of side effects.

b)

Monitor apical pulse before administration.

c)

Maintain HR between 60–100 bpm within 48 hours.

d)

Hold if potassium is low.

54.

A nurse administers naloxone to a patient with respiratory depression. Which action is part of the evaluation step?

a)

Assess for return of consciousness and RR improvement

b)

Notify the healthcare provider

c)

Discontinue opioid therapy

d)

Call rapid response

55.

Before giving a beta-blocker, the nurse finds the patient’s HR is 54 bpm. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Hold the medication and notify provider

b)

Administer and reassess in 15 minutes

c)

Give half the dose

d)

Encourage fluids to raise HR

56.

A patient refuses a blood pressure medication. What action demonstrates therapeutic intervention?

a)

Document and skip dose

b)

Educate on risks of uncontrolled hypertension

c)

Mix medication in food

d)

Notify pharmacy to discontinue

57.

A nurse caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy identifies "risk for infection" as the nursing diagnosis. What is the best medication-related intervention?

a)

Teach the patient to avoid public spaces

b)

Administer prescribed filgrastim

c)

Discontinue chemotherapy

d)

Encourage handwashing

58.

Which statement represents the evaluation phase for a diuretic?

a)

Lung sounds are clear, and weight has decreased

b)

Patient verbalizes understanding of medication

c)

Patient states, “I’ll take this every morning.”

d)

Blood pressure is within normal range pre-dose

59.

A nurse is planning patient teaching about a new anticoagulant. What is an appropriate goal?

a)

Patient will avoid contact sports and report bleeding

b)

Patient states understanding of why they are taking it

c)

Nurse will document patient education

d)

Provider will review labs in 3 days

60.

After administering insulin, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

Monitor bowel sounds

b)

Assess injection site

c)

Recheck blood glucose

d)

Offer additional snacks

61.

A patient is prescribed prednisone. What assessment is most critical before administration?

a)

Urinary output

b)

White blood cell count

c)

Blood glucose

d)

INR

62.

A nurse plans to administer two medications together to maximize the patient’s response. This decision belongs to which phase?

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Intervention

d)

Evaluation

63.

A patient is experiencing nausea after an antibiotic dose. What is the best intervention?

a)

Stop the antibiotic immediately

b)

Administer ondansetron as prescribed

c)

Notify the provider

d)

Encourage fluid intake

64.

A nurse sets a goal: “Patient will maintain therapeutic INR while on warfarin.” What ADPIE stage is this?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Evaluation

65.

Which factor may reduce drug absorption in an elderly patient?

a)

Increased blood flow to the GI tract

b)

Increased stomach pH

c)

High-fat meal with medication

d)

Frequent fluid intake

66.

Why might a transdermal medication provide longer duration?

a)

It avoids distribution

b)

It avoids first-pass metabolism

c)

It’s absorbed more rapidly

d)

It bypasses excretion

67.

A patient with renal impairment is prescribed a nephrotoxic drug. What is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Increase fluid intake

b)

Give a higher loading dose

c)

Monitor creatinine and urine output

d)

Administer the drug at night

68.

Which factor most directly affects drug metabolism?

a)

Liver enzyme function

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Serum calcium

d)

GI motility

69.

What happens when two drugs compete for protein-binding sites?

a)

One becomes inactivated

b)

Both become toxic

c)

One has increased free drug available

d)

They form an inactive compound

70.

A drug’s half-life is 6 hours. How long until it’s considered eliminated?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24–30 hours

d)

48 hours

71.

A patient receives a loading dose of an antibiotic. What is the purpose?

a)

To ensure steady-state quickly

b)

To avoid side effects

c)

To increase excretion

d)

To bypass protein binding

72.

Which best describes bactericidal antibiotics?

a)

They inhibit cell wall synthesis

b)

They stop bacterial protein synthesis

c)

They enhance WBC production

d)

They kill viruses

73.

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient starting broad-spectrum antibiotics?

a)

Administer with antacids

b)

Review past vaccinations

c)

Obtain cultures before starting therapy

d)

Hold all other medications

74.

What does a narrow therapeutic index mean?

a)

Drug must be refrigerated

b)

Small dose changes can be dangerous

c)

It is only available IV

d)

Drug is less effective

75.

A patient asks why they’re prescribed both amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. Best response?

a)

“This combination is for viral infections.”

b)

“Clavulanic acid enhances absorption.”

c)

“It helps prevent resistance by inhibiting enzymes.”

d)

“It decreases GI side effects.”

76.

What is the purpose of a peak and trough level?

a)

To determine duration of action

b)

To identify when to give the next dose

c)

To monitor therapeutic and toxic levels

d)

To decide route of administration

77.

A patient starts antibiotics and develops mouth sores and new vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects:

a)

An allergic reaction

b)

Drug resistance

c)

A superinfection

d)

An overdose

78.

What is empiric antibiotic therapy?

a)

Chosen after culture sensitivity

b)

Used only in pediatrics

c)

Chosen before knowing the organism

d)

Always broad-spectrum

79.

Which antibiotics require liver function monitoring?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Macrolides

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Cephalosporins

80.

Which instruction helps prevent resistance?

a)

Take until symptoms stop

b)

Take only when needed

c)

Take full prescribed course

d)

Share unused antibiotics with family

81.

Which lab would you monitor for effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in pneumonia?

a)

INR

b)

WBC

c)

Sodium

d)

Hemoglobin

82.

A patient on ciprofloxacin develops white patches on their tongue. What’s the nurse’s best interpretation?

a)

Side effect of the antibiotic

b)

Oral herpes outbreak

c)

Superinfection with Candida albicans

d)

Nutritional deficiency

83.

Which patient is at greatest risk for superinfection?

a)

A healthy 20-year-old on 3-day antibiotics for UTI

b)

An immunocompromised patient on multiple antibiotics

c)

A child with a mild ear infection

d)

A patient taking probiotics

84.

A patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics develops foul-smelling, watery diarrhea. What is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Administer loperamide

b)

Continue the antibiotic

c)

Isolate the patient and notify provider

d)

Administer IV fluids immediately

85.

Which finding suggests a vaginal superinfection during antibiotic therapy?

a)

Yellow-green discharge

b)

Thick, white, odorless discharge with itching

c)

Blood in the urine

d)

Pelvic pain with fever

86.

What best prevents superinfections during prolonged antibiotic therapy?

a)

Using antibiotics with food

b)

Rotating antibiotics weekly

c)

Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics when possible

d)

Doubling the dose at signs of resistance

87.

A nurse receives a culture result showing that the prescribed antibiotic is ineffective. What’s the best action to support stewardship?

a)

Continue current therapy

b)

Wait 48 hours to reassess

c)

Notify the provider to switch to a targeted agent

d)

Ask pharmacy to reduce the dose

88.

(Vancomycin) A patient receiving vancomycin complains of ringing in the ears. What is the nurse’s next priority?

a)

Slow the infusion rate

b)

Discontinue the medication and notify provider

c)

Administer antihistamines

d)

Check peak and trough levels at next dose

89.

(Clindamycin) Which teaching point is essential for a patient taking clindamycin?

a)

“You may experience metallic taste.”

b)

“Take with dairy to avoid nausea.”

c)

“Report any persistent diarrhea to your provider.”

d)

“Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.”

90.

(Aminoglycosides) A patient on tobramycin shows rising BUN and creatinine. What’s the most likely cause?

a)

Liver failure

b)

Dehydration

c)

Nephrotoxicity from aminoglycosides

d)

Electrolyte imbalance

91.

(Aminoglycosides) What is the best way to avoid toxicity during gentamicin therapy?

a)

Monitor daily CBC

b)

Give the drug with food

c)

Monitor peak and trough levels

d)

Alternate with cephalosporins

92.

(Aminoglycosides) A patient with hearing loss is starting gentamicin. What is the priority?

a)

Hold medication and notify provider

b)

Educate that hearing loss is reversible

c)

Monitor sodium levels

d)

Give with loop diuretic for synergy

93.

(Fluoroquinolones) Which statement indicates the patient needs further teaching about levofloxacin?

a)

“I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this.”

b)

“If I feel pain in my Achilles tendon, I should call my provider.”

c)

“I can stop taking the medication once I feel better.”

d)

“I should avoid sun exposure.”

94.

(Tetracycline) What should the nurse include in discharge teaching for a patient taking doxycycline?

a)

“Take with calcium-rich foods to improve absorption.”

b)

“Do not lie down for 30 minutes after taking the dose.”

c)

“You may consume alcohol in moderation.”

d)

“You can take antacids at the same time.”

95.

(Penicillin) A patient develops shortness of breath and rash after IV penicillin. What is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Stop the infusion and administer epinephrine

c)

Apply a cold compress to the site

d)

Document the adverse reaction

96.

(Penicillin) A patient asks why they are receiving penicillin with probenecid. Best response?

a)

“Probenecid reduces kidney damage.”

b)

“It decreases nausea and vomiting.”

c)

“It prolongs the penicillin’s effect by slowing excretion.”

d)

“It helps the drug cross the blood-brain barrier.”

97.

(Sulfonamides) A patient taking TMP-SMX reports a widespread rash and facial swelling. What is the nurse’s next step?

a)

Advise the patient to use antihistamines

b)

Instruct the patient to stop the medication and seek emergency care

c)

Document and reassure the patient

d)

Continue therapy unless breathing difficulty occurs

98.

(Macrolides) What major side effect should the nurse monitor for in a patient taking erythromycin?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Hearing loss

c)

QT prolongation

d)

Nephrotoxicity

99.

(Macrolides) Why might azithromycin be preferred over erythromycin?

a)

It is more nephrotoxic

b)

It requires more frequent dosing

c)

It has fewer GI side effects and a longer half-life

d)

It interacts with more drugs

100.

(Oxazolidinones) A patient taking linezolid also uses sertraline. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?

a)

Urine color

b)

Neurological reflexes

c)

Blood pressure trends

d)

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome