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2205 Exam 2 pt.5

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Best action to prevent newborn heat loss in first 2 hours is:

a)

Dry thoroughly and skin-to-skin with warm blankets

b)

Place under a fan

c)

Bathe immediately

d)

Keep uncovered for observation

2.

Which tracing is Category I?

a)

Absent variability with recurrent lates

b)

Baseline 110–160 with moderate variability and no late/variable decelerations (early/accelerations may be present)

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Persistent bradycardia

3.

A sinusoidal pattern most strongly implies:

a)

Benign sleep cycle

b)

Serious fetal compromise such as anemia/hemorrhage—urgent evaluation

c)

Normal in second stage

d)

Maternal dehydration only

4.

A Category III tracing with fully dilated client and crowning: best plan?

a)

Expedite delivery with neonatal team ready

b)

Stop monitoring

c)

Expectant management for 1 hour

d)

Start dinoprostone

5.

A client is being considered for internal monitoring. Which statement is correct?

a)

FSE measures contractions best

b)

IUPC requires intact membranes

c)

Internal monitors reduce infection risk

d)

FSE provides more accurate FHR than external when tracing is poor

6.

A client with recurrent variables and minimal variability is complete and +2 station. Best expectation?

a)

Continue labor unchanged for 6 hours

b)

Operative vaginal delivery may be considered if conditions met (provider decision)

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Stop monitoring

7.

Vacuum extraction is correct when it:

a)

Requires full dilation and appropriate station/position criteria

b)

Can be used at 4 cm to speed labor

c)

Replaces maternal pushing effort

d)

Is always safer than cesarean

8.

After forceps delivery, urgent newborn finding is:

a)

Mild molding

b)

Lanugo

c)

Vernix

d)

Facial asymmetry/weak suck suggesting facial nerve injury

9.

A fetal baseline of 105 with moderate variability and accelerations is best classified as:

a)

Slightly low baseline but reassuring features present; evaluate context

b)

Category III by definition

c)

Sinusoidal

d)

Immediate cesarean always

10.

“Baseline change” is defined as a change lasting:

a)

Any heart rate change lasting 30 seconds

b)

Change lasting ≥10 minutes

c)

Change lasting 2–9 minutes

d)

Change lasting <15 seconds

11.

Newborn meds typically given in first hours include:

a)

Vitamin K (and erythromycin per policy)

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Methylergonovine

12.

A client hyperventilates from anxiety in labor. Best immediate nursing action?

a)

Leave alone to “calm down”

b)

Increase oxytocin

c)

Coach slow breathing/grounding and reassess

d)

Place supine in Trendelenburg

13.

Best initial way to confirm rupture of membranes while limiting infection risk is:

a)

Sterile speculum exam with pooling/visualization ± nitrazine/fern

b)

Digital exam first

c)

Bimanual exam with gel

d)

Rectal exam only

14.

A client with PPROM asks why you check for cord compression. Best response:

a)

Cord compression only occurs with intact membranes

b)

Less fluid can increase cord compression risk leading to variable decelerations

c)

Cord compression causes late decelerations

d)

Cord compression prevents infection

15.

Which client requires continuous electronic fetal monitoring rather than intermittent auscultation?

a)

Low-risk spontaneous labor with reassuring status

b)

Normal nonstress test yesterday

c)

Refuses IV access

d)

VBAC attempt

16.

Nonreassuring fetal status with persistent bradycardia despite resuscitation: priority preparation is to:

a)

Remove internal monitors

b)

Encourage oral intake

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Prepare for urgent operative delivery; notify neonatal team

17.

Ongoing PPROM surveillance priorities focus on:

a)

Infection signs and fetal status/cord compression

b)

Fundus height only

c)

Daily Pap smear

d)

Blood glucose only

18.

PPROM complication most likely to increase neonatal respiratory problems is:

a)

Prematurity and possible infection leading to respiratory distress

b)

Maternal seasonal allergies

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Excess vernix

19.

COAT documentation refers to:

a)

Color, odor, amount, time (amniotic fluid assessment)

b)

Contractions, oxygen, analgesia, temperature

c)

Cervix, oxygen, amnioinfusion, tachysystole

d)

Cord, odor, accelerations, tone

20.

A key risk factor for chorioamnionitis is:

a)

Prolonged ROM and frequent vaginal exams

b)

Rubella immunity

c)

Normal UA

d)

Normal NST

21.

A client with suspected infection says “I caused this.” Best response is to:

a)

Validate feelings, educate, assess supports, connect to resources

b)

Say “Stop worrying.”

c)

Change subject

d)

Say “You shouldn’t feel that way.”

22.

Therapeutic response after fetal loss is:

a)

“Everything happens for a reason.”

b)

“Tell me what you’re feeling right now—I’m here with you.”

c)

“At least you can get pregnant.”

d)

“You need to move on quickly.”

23.

Best intervention after fetal demise confirmation is to:

a)

Offer choices (hold baby, photos/prints, spiritual/cultural support) per preference

b)

Prevent family visits

c)

Use false reassurance only

d)

Avoid discussing grief resources

24.

A client with a firm fundus but ongoing heavy bleeding postpartum—best next step:

a)

Continue fundal massage only

b)

Delay assessment

c)

Suspect laceration/retained products; notify provider

d)

Stop all meds

25.

A labor client is 6 cm with regular strong contractions. Best nursing focus?

a)

Active labor support: pain control, position changes, monitor FHR/uterine activity, hydration

b)

Begin pushing coaching

c)

Stop fetal monitoring

d)

Prepare placenta container

26.

Client requests nitrous oxide. Key safety requirement?

a)

Nurse holds mask continuously

b)

Client self-administers via demand valve; maintains protective reflexes

c)

Must be supine only

d)

Requires intubation readiness always

27.

A pudendal block is mainly used for:

a)

Perineal anesthesia late second stage and laceration repair

b)

First stage cervical ripening

c)

Preventing postpartum hemorrhage

d)

Treating tachysystole

28.

A client has strong contractions but no descent; fetus suspected large; pelvis small. This is most consistent with:

a)

Precipitous labor

b)

Normal latent phase

c)

Shoulder dystocia

d)

Cephalopelvic disproportion

29.

A labor client with OP fetus stalls. Best nursing intervention is to:

a)

Encourage position changes (hands-and-knees/side-lying) as tolerated

b)

Keep supine

c)

Start pushing early

d)

Reduce hydration

30.

A nurse preparing for amniotomy. Safest station finding is:

a)

−3

b)

Ballotable/high presenting part

c)

Unstable lie

d)

0 or + station (engaged)

31.

After ROM, sudden FHR drop occurs. Priority assessment is:

a)

Check for cord prolapse and assess FHR immediately

b)

Assess rubella immunity

c)

Obtain HbA1c

d)

Teach breastfeeding

32.

A client has suspected cord prolapse. Which position is commonly used to reduce compression?

a)

Flat supine

b)

Left lateral only

c)

Knee-chest or Trendelenburg per protocol

d)

High Fowler’s

33.

A client with suspected uterine rupture—appropriate oxytocin action is:

a)

Stop oxytocin immediately

b)

Give oxytocin IV push bolus

c)

Increase oxytocin

d)

Switch to dinoprostone and continue stimulation

34.

Best prep when uterine rupture is suspected includes:

a)

Large-bore IV, type & cross, rapid OR readiness, continuous fetal assessment

b)

Encourage oral intake for energy

c)

Delay labs until delivery

d)

Start dinoprostone

35.

A nurse suspects abruptio placentae. Common worsening tracing change is:

a)

Increasing late decels/bradycardia due to compromised perfusion

b)

Early decels only

c)

Frequent accelerations only

d)

Sinusoidal always due to fever

36.

A client with suspected abruption: uterine description most consistent is:

a)

Soft and painless

b)

Boggy postpartum fundus

c)

Uterus absent

d)

Firm/boardlike, tender uterus possible

37.

Fetal sleep cycles can contribute to decreased variability for about:

a)

3–4 hours

b)

2–5 minutes only

c)

24 hours

d)

20–60 minutes

38.

Which finding is most concerning for impending fetal acidemia?

a)

Moderate variability with accelerations

b)

Marked variability with accelerations

c)

Absent variability with recurrent decelerations

d)

Early decels only

39.

A tracing shows recurrent lates with minimal variability. Least appropriate intervention is:

a)

Reposition + fluids + stop oxytocin + evaluate cause

b)

Notify provider

c)

Prepare for delivery if unresolved

d)

Continue oxytocin unchanged

40.

Best indicator of adequate fetal oxygenation in the moment is:

a)

Moderate variability

b)

Persistent bradycardia

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Absent variability

41.

A client with recurrent lates is only 2 cm dilated and unresolved quickly. Likely disposition?

a)

Encourage walking for 2 hours first

b)

Prepare for cesarean delivery (vaginal not imminent)

c)

Stop fetal monitoring

d)

Continue labor unchanged

42.

Uterine dehiscence is best defined as:

a)

Incomplete separation/thinning of uterine scar without full rupture

b)

Cord compression with visible loop

c)

Full thickness tear with fetal parts in abdomen

d)

Placental separation from uterine wall

43.

A client at 39 weeks becomes pale/diaphoretic supine and shows late decels. What is happening physiologically?

a)

Aortocaval compression reducing uteroplacental perfusion

b)

Fetal anemia causing sinusoidal pattern

c)

Cord prolapse due to supine position

d)

Placenta accreta

44.

Which statement shows correct understanding about oxytocin?

a)

“It is titrated and monitored to avoid tachysystole and fetal compromise.”

b)

“More is always safer.”

c)

“Once started, it can never be stopped.”

d)

“It replaces fetal monitoring.”

45.

Which is a classic risk factor for shoulder dystocia?

a)

Small for gestational age

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Preterm 28 weeks

d)

Macrosomia/prolonged second stage/history of operative delivery

46.

Which action is contraindicated in shoulder dystocia?

a)

Call for help/neonatal team

b)

McRoberts

c)

Suprapubic pressure

d)

Fundal pressure

47.

A tracing shows baseline 140, moderate variability, accelerations, occasional early decels. Interpretation?

a)

Category III

b)

Cord prolapse likely

c)

Immediate cesarean

d)

Reassuring pattern—continue monitoring/supportive care

48.

Which nursing care best prepares a client for uncomplicated second stage?

a)

Coach effective pushing only when fully dilated, support positions, continuous assessment

b)

Begin directed pushing at 8 cm

c)

Keep client supine at all times

d)

Stop monitoring to reduce anxiety

49.

Cesarean post-anesthesia recovery: priority assessments include:

a)

Airway/respirations, BP, bleeding/fundus, incision, pain, urine output

b)

Rubella immunity, GBS culture

c)

Fetal station and effacement

d)

Leopold maneuvers

50.

Which finding most supports bacterial sinusitis?

a)

Symptoms persist >10 days or double-worsening

b)

Clear watery drainage and itchy eyes

c)

Improved within 24 hours

d)

Fever absent always

51.

Viability/periviability concepts most directly guide decisions about:

a)

Neonatal resuscitation intensity and counseling at extreme prematurity

b)

Cervical ripening choice

c)

Epidural dosing

d)

Vacuum extraction cup size

52.

A client with preterm labor asks the purpose of tocolytics. Best answer:

a)

Delay birth briefly to allow steroids/transfer and stabilize, not “stop forever”

b)

Cure infection definitively

c)

Ripen cervix rapidly

d)

Prevent postpartum hemorrhage

53.

A client with suspected intraamniotic infection asks why repeated vaginal exams are avoided. Best response:

a)

They prevent fetal descent

b)

They increase risk of ascending infection

c)

They stop contractions

d)

They cause false-negative ferning

54.

A client has recurrent late decels and hypotension after epidural. Most targeted correction is:

a)

Increase IV fluid bolus and administer vasopressor (e.g., ephedrine or phenylephrine)

b)

Continue oxytocin unchanged

c)

Encourage pushing to improve perfusion

d)

Apply fetal scalp electrode

55.

A labor client has uterine tachysystole: which fetus is at greatest risk?

a)

Category I tracing with moderate variability

b)

Fetus with recurrent late decels

c)

Fetus with accelerations only

d)

Fetus with early decels only

56.

The most accurate reason amnioinfusion helps recurrent variables is:

a)

Restores a fluid cushion to reduce cord compression

b)

Decreases uteroplacental insufficiency

c)

Treats fetal anemia

d)

Reverses opioid effects

57.

A client with PPROM: which finding must be reported immediately?

a)

Mild heartburn

b)

Fever/uterine tenderness/foul fluid

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Clear urine

58.

Best nursing action when prolapsed cord is identified is to:

a)

Maintain manual elevation of presenting part while preparing rapid delivery

b)

Attempt to push cord back in

c)

Clamp the cord

d)

Leave client to call provider

59.

After an operative vaginal delivery, most urgent newborn assessment is:

a)

Hair pattern

b)

Neuro status/scalp injury signs and respiratory status

c)

Fontanel closure timeline

d)

Tooth eruption schedule

60.

A fetal scalp blood sample shows low pH (acidemia). Next expectation?

a)

Escalate toward expedited delivery if unable to correct cause promptly

b)

Stop monitoring

c)

Continue labor unchanged

d)

Start dinoprostone

61.

A meconium-stained delivery: which team readiness is most appropriate?

a)

Neonatal resuscitation team available at delivery

b)

Dermatology consult

c)

Lactation consult before delivery

d)

Social work only

62.

A client’s fundus is deviated right postpartum. Priority action is to:

a)

Assess bladder distention and assist void/catheterize per policy

b)

Begin CST

c)

Give terbutaline

d)

Place Trendelenburg

63.

A client has heavy bleeding and hypotension postpartum. Most urgent lab prep?

a)

Lipid panel

b)

UA culture

c)

HbA1c

d)

Type & crossmatch for possible transfusion

64.

Best indicator of concealed abruption severity is often:

a)

Uterine rigidity/tenderness plus fetal distress with minimal bleeding

b)

Amount of visible bleeding only

c)

Positive nitrazine test

d)

Ferning pattern intensity

65.

A labor client has dysfunctional labor due to hypotonic contractions. Best intervention (if no contraindications)?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Oxytocin titration with close monitoring

c)

Methylergonovine during labor

d)

Stop all fluids

66.

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction (painful, frequent, uncoordinated, poor progress): best nursing focus is:

a)

Promote rest, hydration, pain control; monitor fetal status; collaborate on cause/treatment

b)

Increase oxytocin rapidly

c)

Begin pushing early

d)

Breath-hold 30 seconds each contraction

67.

Which finding best reflects adequate uterine activity assessment even with IUPC?

a)

Stop documenting contractions

b)

Remove external monitors immediately

c)

Palpate as needed and assess maternal response per policy

d)

Discontinue fetal assessment

68.

In cord prolapse, which action is contraindicated because it worsens vasospasm?

a)

Manipulating/pinching the cord

b)

Calling for help

c)

Positioning knee-chest

d)

Maintaining elevation of presenting part

69.

In shoulder dystocia, why is fundal pressure dangerous?

a)

It can worsen impaction and increase risk of uterine rupture/fetal injury

b)

It improves shoulder release reliably

c)

It decreases brachial plexus injury

d)

It prevents hypoxia

70.

A client has recurrent lates; which maternal condition is a classic contributor?

a)

Hypertension increasing placental insufficiency risk

b)

Seasonal allergies

c)

Mild reflux

d)

Rh negative status

71.

A client has recurrent variable decels; first position change is usually:

a)

Prone flat

b)

Side-to-side or lateral repositioning

c)

Flat supine

d)

Trendelenburg for all cases

72.

A client with PPROM and positive nitrazine: which statement is correct?

a)

Blood/semen can cause false positives

b)

Nitrazine confirms ROM with 100% accuracy

73.

A newborn separation due to NICU transfer: which maternal concern should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Delayed bonding/anxiety/grief—support coping and facilitate contact/updates

b)

No psychosocial impact expected

c)

Only physical pain

d)

Increased appetite

74.

A client with suspected chorioamnionitis: which plan is best?

a)

Minimize exams, monitor maternal temp/FHR, anticipate antibiotics

b)

Stop maternal vitals to reduce stress

c)

Place supine continuously

d)

Increase digital exams

75.

Best interpretation of moderate variability + accelerations is:

a)

Reassuring—continue monitoring/support

b)

Category III

c)

Requires immediate scalp pH

d)

Confirms uterine rupture

76.

A client becomes somnolent with opioid RR 8: besides naloxone, priority is to monitor:

a)

Airway/respirations and fetal status continuously

b)

Fundal height

c)

Urine ketones

d)

GBS status

77.

A labor client develops tachysystole and Category II tracing. Which is the best nursing action sequence?

a)

Increase oxytocin then oxygen

b)

Reduce/stop oxytocin → reposition → IV bolus → evaluate cause/notify provider

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Begin pushing to speed delivery

78.

Most appropriate explanation of “pooling” with ROM assessment is:

a)

Visible pooling in posterior fornix supports ROM diagnosis

b)

It confirms abruption

c)

It confirms chorioamnionitis

d)

It identifies fetal position

79.

Which antibiotic is commonly used for GBS prophylaxis in labor (no allergy)?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Nitrofurantoin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Penicillin G/ampicillin per protocol

80.

A client with epidural cannot void. Best nursing action?

a)

Anticipate urinary retention—bladder assessment/catheter per policy

b)

Encourage unassisted ambulation to bathroom

c)

Restrict all IV fluids immediately

d)

Ignore until postpartum

81.

A newborn has poor tone and weak respirations after delivery. Priority action?

a)

Feed immediately

b)

Begin neonatal resuscitation steps per NRP and notify team

c)

Delay stimulation

d)

Routine care only

82.

Head compression is typically associated with:

a)

Early decelerations (usually benign)

b)

Late decelerations

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Prolonged decelerations always

83.

A client is 8 cm with no descent and persistent Category III tracing. Best expectation?

a)

Continue labor and reassess in 2 hours

b)

Begin dinoprostone

c)

Stop monitoring for comfort

d)

Urgent operative delivery likely if not quickly correctable

84.

A client has minimal variability and no decels; accelerations appear after vibroacoustic stimulation. Best interpretation?

a)

Likely fetal sleep/temporary effect; continue monitoring as ordered

b)

Confirmed cord prolapse

c)

Immediate uterine rupture

d)

Confirmed placental abruption

85.

After ROM, which breech type has highest cord prolapse risk?

a)

Footling

b)

Frank

c)

Complete

d)

Kneeling

86.

Which “power” is being assessed when evaluating pelvic dimensions/soft tissue resistance?

a)

Passageway

b)

Passenger

c)

Psyche

d)

Powers

87.

Which medication reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Ceftriaxone

88.

Correct statement about molding is:

a)

Overlap of fetal skull bones to fit birth canal; usually temporary

b)

Always indicates intracranial hemorrhage

c)

Prevents delivery

d)

Congenital skull fusion

89.

Best nonpharmacologic pain control in latent labor is:

a)

Ambulation, position changes, breathing, hydrotherapy (if appropriate)

b)

Directed pushing

c)

Supine bedrest only

d)

Immediate general anesthesia

90.

A client has vaginal delivery then persistent heavy bleeding with firm uterus. Most likely cause?

a)

Genital tract laceration

b)

Uterine atony

91.

Which finding requires immediate provider notification in suspected uterine rupture?

a)

Mild pain relieved by rest

b)

Gradual spotting only

c)

Thinning scar with no fetal compromise

d)

Fetal bradycardia with loss of station and sudden pain

92.

A client receiving oxytocin develops recurrent late decels. First nursing intervention is:

a)

Lateral repositioning

b)

Start dinoprostone

c)

Begin pushing

d)

Perform amniotomy

93.

Which maternal assessment is priority with fetal tachycardia?

a)

Maternal temperature (fever/infection)

b)

Maternal freckles

c)

Maternal shoe size

d)

Maternal hair texture

94.

Which labor finding best indicates transition?

a)

8–10 cm with intense contractions/pressure

b)

2–3 cm mild irregular contractions

c)

4–6 cm moderate contractions

d)

10 cm with delivery

95.

Station +2 means:

a)

At ischial spines

b)

Above ischial spines

c)

Crowning

d)

Below ischial spines and descending toward delivery

96.

Fetal presentation most compatible with uncomplicated vaginal delivery is:

a)

Vertex/cephalic

b)

Shoulder

c)

Face mentum posterior

d)

Transverse lie

97.

External cephalic version complication requiring immediate stop/evaluation is:

a)

Persistent fetal bradycardia/nonreassuring tracing

b)

Temporary discomfort

c)

Mild nausea

d)

Mild uterine irritability that resolves

98.

Which finding best supports "passenger" issues?

a)

Fetal size, attitude, presentation, position

b)

Maternal coping skills

c)

Uterine contraction frequency

d)

Pelvic outlet diameter

99.

A client's fetus has recurrent lates; the team is most urgently preventing:

a)

Neonatal acne

b)

Neonatal jaundice at day 3

c)

Late breastfeeding latch issues

d)

Progressive hypoxia/acidemia leading to neonatal depression