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Respiratory System Study Guide

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a function of the upper respiratory tract?

a)

Gas exchange

b)

Filter, warm, and humidify air

c)

Blood flow to alveoli

d)

Prevent alveolar collapse

2.

Which structures are included in the lower respiratory tract?

a)

Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx

b)

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

c)

Medulla oblongata and pons

d)

Carotid and aortic bodies

3.

The primary site of gas exchange in the respiratory system is the _______.

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

pleura

4.

What is the function of surfactant in the alveoli?

a)

Prevents alveolar collapse

b)

Filters air

c)

Controls breathing

d)

Senses CO₂ levels

5.

Ventilation (V) refers to:

a)

Blood flow to alveoli

b)

Movement of air in/out of lungs

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Preventing alveolar collapse

6.

Perfusion (Q) refers to _______.

a)

Blood flow to alveoli

b)

Oxygen exchange in tissues

c)

Carbon dioxide removal from blood

d)

Air movement in bronchioles

7.

V/Q mismatch is common in diseases like PE, atelectasis, or COPD.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Control of breathing is regulated by the _______ and _______.

a)

medulla oblongata and pons

b)

cerebellum and hypothalamus

c)

thalamus and cerebrum

d)

spinal cord and pituitary gland

9.

Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies sense which of the following?

a)

CO₂

b)

O₂

c)

pH

d)

All of the above

10.

In COPD, patients may rely on low O₂ levels (hypoxic drive) for stimulus to breathe.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following is a subjective symptom in the assessment of the respiratory system?

a)

Respiratory rate

b)

Cough (productive or dry)

c)

Use of accessory muscles

d)

Cyanosis or clubbing

12.

Which of the following is considered objective data in respiratory assessment?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Smoking history

c)

Respiratory rate (12–20 bpm)

d)

Chest pain

13.

Fill in the blank: The normal range for Pulse Oximetry (SpO2) is _________.

a)

95–100%

b)

80–90%

c)

70–85%

d)

90–94%

14.

A SpO2 value less than 90% indicates hypoxemia.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Identify the breath sound that is most commonly heard in patients with asthma or COPD:

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezing

c)

Stridor

d)

Rhonchi

e)

Bronchial breath sounds

16.

Which diagnostic test is used to detect infection, fluid, or tumors in the respiratory system?

a)

Sputum Culture

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

ABG (Arterial Blood Gas)

d)

Pulmonary Function

17.

What is the purpose of a Sputum Culture in respiratory assessment?

a)

Identify infection

b)

Measure lung capacity

c)

Assess oxygen saturation

d)

Detect allergies

18.

Which diagnostic test measures oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Sputum Culture

c)

ABG (Arterial Blood Gas)

d)

Pulmonary Function

19.

Fill in the blank: Pulmonary Function tests measure ________ and _________.

a)

lung volume, capacity

b)

blood pressure, heart rate

c)

oxygen saturation, glucose level

d)

body temperature, weight

20.

Bronchodilators should be avoided for 4–6 hours before a Pulmonary Function test.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What nursing consideration should be taken before a Chest X-ray?

a)

Remove metal; deep breath hold

b)

Administer pain medication

c)

Apply a warm compress

d)

Check blood sugar levels

e)

Encourage fluid intake

22.

What is the recommended nursing consideration for ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) testing?

a)

Hold pressure 5 min post-stick

b)

Apply ice pack immediately after

c)

Elevate the limb for 30 minutes

d)

No need to monitor for bleeding

23.

What is the purpose of a Bronchoscopy?

a)

Removes fluid from pleural space

b)

Visualize airway, biopsy

c)

Measures lung function

d)

Monitors for pneumothorax

24.

Thoracentesis is a procedure that _________

a)

Removes fluid from pleural space

b)

Removes air from the pericardial cavity

c)

Removes blood from the abdominal cavity

d)

Removes pus from the joint space

25.

Which test requires the patient to be NPO 6–8 hr and monitor for gag reflex post procedure?

a)

Test (PFT)

b)

Bronchoscopy

c)

Thoracentesis

d)

Chest X-ray

26.

After a thoracentesis, the patient should be monitored for _________

a)

pneumothorax

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

deep vein thrombosis

27.

Pneumonia is characterized by infection and inflammation leading to alveoli filling with _________.

a)

exudate

b)

mucus

c)

air

d)

blood

28.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pneumonia?

a)

A) Fever

b)

B) Productive cough

c)

C) Crackles

d)

D) Hypertension

29.

What diagnostic findings are associated with pneumonia?

a)

Chest X-ray (infiltrates), elevated WBC

b)

Low CO₂, high O₂

c)

Barrel chest

d)

Clubbing

30.

List two treatments for pneumonia.

a)

Antibiotics, oxygen, hydration

b)

Antibiotics, insulin, hydration

c)

Antibiotics, chemotherapy, hydration

d)

Antibiotics, radiation, hydration

31.

In nursing care for pneumonia, the patient should be positioned in _________.

a)

high Fowler’s

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

Trendelenburg

32.

COPD includes which two conditions?

a)

A) Asthma & Bronchitis

b)

B) Emphysema & Chronic bronchitis

c)

C) Pneumonia & Emphysema

d)

D) Tuberculosis & Bronchitis

33.

The pathophysiology of COPD involves chronic airflow limitation due to ________ or ________.

a)

alveolar damage or mucus

b)

bronchial dilation or surfactant excess

c)

pulmonary embolism or pleural effusion

d)

tracheal stenosis or vascular hypertrophy

34.

Which of the following is a symptom of COPD?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Barrel chest

c)

Fever

d)

Pleuritic chest pain

35.

In COPD, ABG findings typically show ________ CO₂ and ________ O₂ (respiratory acidosis).

a)

increased CO₂ and decreased O₂

b)

decreased CO₂ and increased O₂

c)

decreased CO₂ and decreased O₂

d)

increased CO₂ and increased O₂

36.

Name one bronchodilator used in the treatment of COPD.

a)

Albuterol or Ipratropium

b)

Aspirin

c)

Metformin

d)

Lisinopril

37.

What is a key nursing care instruction for COPD patients regarding meals?

a)

Teach small, frequent meals

b)

Encourage large, infrequent meals

c)

Advise skipping breakfast

d)

Promote high-fat, heavy dinners

38.

What is the pathophysiology (Patho) of asthma?

a)

Airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction

b)

Decreased surfactant production

c)

Alveolar destruction

d)

Pulmonary embolism

39.

Asthma: Which of the following are common triggers for asthma?

a)

Allergens

b)

Cold air

c)

Stress

d)

Exercise

e)

All of the above

40.

What are the common signs and symptoms (S/S) of asthma?

a)

Wheezing, SOB, cough, chest tightness

b)

Fever, rash, joint pain

c)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

d)

Blurred vision, hearing loss, dizziness

41.

What is the rescue inhaler used for asthma?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Fluticasone

c)

Montelukast

d)

Prednisone

42.

Asthma: What is the maintenance medication for asthma?

a)

Inhaled corticosteroids (Fluticasone)

b)

Salbutamol (Albuterol)

c)

Montelukast

d)

Theophylline

43.

What should patients be taught after using steroids for asthma?

a)

Rinse mouth after steroids, avoid triggers

b)

Take steroids with food only

c)

Increase steroid dose if symptoms improve

d)

Skip doses if feeling better

44.

What is the causative organism of tuberculosis?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

45.

How is tuberculosis transmitted?

a)

Airborne (N95 required)

b)

Waterborne (boiling required)

c)

Vector-borne (mosquitoes)

d)

Foodborne (cooking required)

46.

Tuberculosis (TB): Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tuberculosis?

a)

Cough >3 weeks

b)

Night sweats

c)

Fever

d)

Weight gain

e)

Hemoptysis

47.

Tuberculosis (TB): Which test is used to diagnose TB?

a)

Positive Mantoux (PPD) test

b)

Blood glucose test

c)

ECG (Electrocardiogram)

d)

Urine pregnancy test

48.

What does a chest X-ray confirm in TB?

a)

Lesions

b)

Fever

c)

Weight gain

d)

Joint pain

49.

What is the purpose of sputum for AFB in TB diagnosis?

a)

To confirm the presence of acid-fast bacilli

b)

To check for viral infection

c)

To measure blood sugar levels

d)

To detect fungal spores

50.

Tuberculosis (TB): Which drug in the RIPE regimen causes red/orange body fluids?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

Ethambutol

51.

Which drug in the RIPE regimen is hepatotoxic and should be avoided with alcohol?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Amoxicillin

52.

Tuberculosis (TB): Which drug in the RIPE regimen causes vision changes?

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Rifampin

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Pyrazinamide

53.

Tuberculosis (TB): How long does TB therapy last?

a)

6–12 months

b)

2–4 weeks

c)

1–2 years

d)

3–5 days

e)

4–6 weeks

54.

What is the pathophysiology (Patho) of pulmonary embolism?

a)

Blood clot lodges in pulmonary artery

b)

Fluid accumulation in alveoli

c)

Bacterial infection of bronchi

d)

Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle

55.

What are the common signs and symptoms (S/S) of pulmonary embolism?

a)

Sudden SOB, chest pain, anxiety, tachycardia

b)

Gradual onset of fever, productive cough, night sweats

c)

Bradycardia, hypotension, confusion, jaundice

d)

Persistent headache, blurred vision, photophobia

56.

Which diagnostic tests are used for pulmonary embolism?

a)

CT scan, D-dimer

b)

ECG, Liver function test

c)

Urinalysis, Chest X-ray

d)

Thyroid function test, MRI

57.

Which medications are used for the treatment (Tx) of pulmonary embolism?

a)

Anticoagulants (Heparin → Warfarin bridge), thrombolytics

b)

Antibiotics (Amoxicillin, Azithromycin)

c)

Bronchodilators (Albuterol, Salmeterol)

d)

Antihypertensives (Lisinopril, Metoprolol)

58.

What nursing care should be provided for a patient with pulmonary embolism?

a)

Elevate HOB, administer O₂

b)

Lower HOB, restrict fluids

c)

Encourage vigorous exercise, withhold O₂

d)

Administer sedatives, keep patient supine

59.

Pneumothorax: What is the main cause of lung collapse in pneumothorax?

a)

Air in pleural space

b)

Fluid in pleural space

c)

Blood in pleural space

d)

Infection

60.

Pneumothorax: What is the recommended treatment (Tx) for pneumothorax?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Chest tube insertion

c)

Oxygen therapy

d)

Bronchodilators

61.

Nursing Interventions for Respiratory Patients: What position should be used to maximize lung expansion? Fill in the blank: Position: ________ to maximize lung expansion.

a)

High Fowler’s

b)

Supine

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

62.

Nursing Interventions for Respiratory Patients: What are the priorities to assess in respiratory patients? Fill in the blank: Assess ________, ________, ________ (ABC priority).

a)

airway, breathing, circulation

b)

alertness, blood pressure, consciousness

c)

activity, balance, coordination

d)

appetite, bowel movement, comfort

63.

Which of the following is an example of a bronchodilator used in respiratory therapy?

a)

Prednisolone

b)

Salbutamol

c)

Rifampicin

d)

Amoxicillin

e)

Dextromethorphan

64.

Which respiratory medication smells like rotten eggs and is given via nebulizer?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Albuterol

d)

Prednisone

65.

Which nursing note is associated with corticosteroids?

a)

Rescue inhaler; watch for tremors, tachycardia

b)

Rinse mouth; monitor glucose

c)

Finish full course; monitor for diarrhea

d)

Avoid alcohol; hepatotoxic

66.

Which medication class should be avoided with alcohol due to hepatotoxicity?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antituberculars

c)

Antitussives

d)

Expectorants

67.

A nurse is caring for a client with COPD. The most appropriate oxygen delivery device is:

a)

Non-rebreather mask

b)

Nasal cannula

c)

Simple face mask

d)

Venturi mask

68.

A client with pneumonia reports fatigue and SOB. Which nursing intervention is priority?

a)

Monitor oxygen saturation and administer supplemental oxygen as needed.

b)

Encourage increased physical activity to reduce fatigue.

c)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent pulmonary edema.

d)

Delay medication administration until symptoms improve.

69.

After bronchoscopy, the nurse should report which finding immediately?

a)

Stridor

b)

Sore throat

c)

Mild cough

d)

Hoarseness

70.

The nurse is administering Rifampin to a client with TB. Which teaching is correct?

a)

Your urine and tears may turn orange.

b)

You may experience blue discoloration of your skin.

c)

Rifampin will cause your hair to fall out.

d)

You should avoid all dairy products while taking Rifampin.

71.

A client with asthma has audible wheezing and accessory muscle use. Which medication is given first?

a)

Albuterol (short-acting beta-agonist)

b)

Montelukast (leukotriene receptor antagonist)

c)

Fluticasone (inhaled corticosteroid)

d)

Ipratropium (anticholinergic)

72.

A client develops sudden SOB and chest pain after surgery. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Asthma exacerbation

73.

During chest tube care, the nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?

a)

Air leak in the system

b)

Normal functioning of the chest tube

c)

Fluid overload in the chamber

d)

Blockage in the chest tube

74.

Which finding in a client with emphysema requires immediate intervention?

a)

O₂ saturation 84% on room air

b)

Barrel-shaped chest

c)

Diminished breath sounds

d)

Use of accessory muscles for breathing

75.

The nurse prepares to administer Isoniazid (INH). What lab value should be monitored?

a)

Liver function tests

b)

Serum potassium

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Serum calcium

76.

A client using an inhaled corticosteroid should be taught which instruction?

a)

Rinse the mouth after each use.

b)

Take the medication with food.

c)

Use the inhaler only when symptoms occur.

d)

Increase the dose if breathing worsens.

77.

What type of acid-base disturbance is commonly seen in an asthma attack (early may be alkalosis, late acidosis)?

a)

Respiratory Acidosis

b)

Respiratory Alkalosis

c)

Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Metabolic Alkalosis

78.

Fill in the blank: In pneumonia, the acid-base disturbance is characterized by _____ pH and _____ CO2.

a)

decreased pH and increased CO2

b)

increased pH and decreased CO2

c)

increased pH and increased CO2

d)

decreased pH and decreased CO2

79.

What is the primary acid-base disturbance in pulmonary embolism (initially)?

a)

Respiratory Acidosis

b)

Respiratory Alkalosis

c)

Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Metabolic Alkalosis

80.

Fill in the blank: Hyperventilation or panic attack leads to _____ pH and _____ CO2.

a)

increased pH and decreased CO2

b)

decreased pH and increased CO2

c)

increased pH and increased CO2

d)

decreased pH and decreased CO2

81.

What acid-base disturbance is seen in a large pneumothorax?

a)

Respiratory Acidosis

b)

Respiratory Alkalosis

c)

Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Metabolic Alkalosis

82.

Fill in the blank: ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) starts with _____ and progresses to _____ as fatigue sets in.

a)

starts with respiratory alkalosis and progresses to respiratory acidosis

b)

starts with respiratory acidosis and progresses to respiratory alkalosis

c)

starts with metabolic alkalosis and progresses to metabolic acidosis

d)

starts with metabolic acidosis and progresses to metabolic alkalosis

83.

What acid-base disturbance is associated with severe diarrhea?

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

84.

Fill in the blank: Vomiting or NG suction leads to _____ pH and _____ HCO3.

a)

increased pH and increased HCO3

b)

decreased pH and increased HCO3

c)

increased pH and decreased HCO3

d)

decreased pH and decreased HCO3

85.

What is the acid-base disturbance in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

86.

What does the mnemonic 'Alkalosis Blows, Acidosis Retains' mean?

a)

Alkalosis is caused by hypoventilation, acidosis by hyperventilation

b)

Alkalosis is caused by blowing off CO₂ (hyperventilation), acidosis by retaining CO₂ (hypoventilation)

c)

Both alkalosis and acidosis are caused by retaining CO₂

d)

Both alkalosis and acidosis are caused by blowing off CO₂

87.

Fill in the blank: In respiratory acidosis, the pH is _____ and PaCO₂ is _____.

a)

pH is decreased (<7.35) and PaCO₂ is increased (>45)

b)

pH is increased (>7.45) and PaCO₂ is decreased (<35)

c)

pH is normal and PaCO₂ is increased (>45)

d)

pH is decreased (<7.35) and PaCO₂ is decreased (<35)

88.

Which of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Anxiety

d)

Asthma

89.

In metabolic alkalosis, the HCO₃⁻ level is increased (>26).

a)

True

b)

False

90.

What is the typical respiratory pattern seen in pulmonary edema or CHF?

a)

Hypoventilation and fluid-filled alveoli

b)

Hyperventilation and clear alveoli

c)

Shallow, slow respirations

d)

No change in respirations

91.

Fill in the blank: Fluid blocks gas exchange in pulmonary edema or CHF, leading to _____ retention.

a)

CO₂ retention

b)

O₂ retention

c)

Nitrogen retention

d)

Water retention

92.

Which abnormal lung sound is described as short, intermittent clicking/popping/bubbling sounds, often during inspiration?

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Crackles

c)

Wheezing

d)

Stridor

93.

Crackles are commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Asthma

b)

Pneumonia, CHF, Pulmonary Edema, Atelectasis

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Brain injury

94.

What does the presence of crackles in the lungs indicate according to nursing notes?

a)

Fluid in alveoli

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Mucus plug

d)

Bronchospasm

95.

Which abnormal lung sound is described as a low-pitched, snoring or gurgling sound, often heard during expiration?

a)

Crackles

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Wheezing

d)

Stridor

96.

Rhonchi is commonly associated with which conditions?

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic Bronchitis, COPD, Cystic Fibrosis, Pneumonia, Croup, Epiglottitis, Laryngospasm, Foreign body obstruction

c)

End-of-life, increased ICP, brain injury

d)

Allergic reaction

97.

According to nursing notes, what does a snoring sound (rhonchi) suggest?

a)

Fluid in alveoli

b)

Air through mucus

c)

Severe airway narrowing

d)

Comfort care

98.

Which abnormal lung sound is described as a harsh, high-pitched sound on inspiration, indicating upper airway obstruction?

a)

Crackles

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Stridor

d)

Wheezing

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