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Worksheets

Pharm notes ati

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What should a patient do if they develop a rash while taking amoxicillin?

a)

Report the rash to the provider immediately due to possible allergic reaction.

b)

Continue taking the medication and ignore the rash.

c)

Apply a topical cream and wait for the rash to subside.

d)

Stop the medication only if the rash becomes painful.

2.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of amoxicillin?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Muscle pain

3.

Identify two manifestations of PEG complications that a nurse should watch for.

a)

A gastric pH greater than 7 and a gastric residual greater than 500 ml.

b)

Increased urine output and decreased heart rate.

c)

Elevated blood glucose and decreased respiratory rate.

d)

Low blood pressure and increased appetite.

4.

Metoprolol is used to treat which of the following conditions?

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Hypertension and angina

c)

Allergies

d)

Joint pain

5.

Which of the following is a side effect of metoprolol that a nurse should identify?

a)

Rash

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Muscle pain

d)

Allergic reaction

6.

Gentamicin IV is used to treat a wide range of ________.

a)

bacterial infections

b)

viral infections

c)

fungal infections

d)

parasitic infections

7.

Why is it important to monitor peak and trough levels for Gentamicin IV?

a)

To check the lowest concentration of meds in the blood stream, checked prior to next dose.

b)

To ensure the medication is administered at the same time every day.

c)

To monitor for allergic reactions only.

d)

To determine if the patient needs a higher dose immediately.

8.

Loratadine (Claritin and Alavert) is used to ________.

a)

relieve allergy symptoms

b)

treat bacterial infections

c)

reduce blood pressure

d)

cure diabetes

9.

Celecoxib is contraindicated for a client with a history of which condition?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Myocardial infarction or heart disease

c)

Allergies

d)

High cholesterol

10.

What should a patient taking simvastatin do if they develop muscle pain or tenderness?

a)

Notify the provider, as this can indicate rhabdomyolysis.

b)

Ignore the pain, as it is a common side effect.

c)

Increase the dose to see if the pain improves.

d)

Take an over-the-counter pain reliever and continue the medication.

11.

Enalapril (Vasotec) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat ________.

a)

high blood pressure and heart failure

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

asthma

d)

hypothyroidism

12.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of enalapril?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Persistent dry or nonproductive cough

c)

Rash

d)

Muscle pain

13.

Metoprolol is a beta blocker that slows the conduction through the ________.

a)

AV node

b)

sinoatrial node

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

bundle of His

14.

Isotretinoin is given for which condition?

a)

Severe acne

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Asthma

15.

After starting Isotretinoin, what needs to be monitored after 1 month?

a)

Liver enzymes

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Serum calcium

d)

Thyroid function tests

16.

Which of the following is a possible side effect of Isotretinoin?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Nose bleeds

c)

Weight gain

d)

Insomnia

17.

How many negative pregnancy tests are required prior to starting Isotretinoin?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

18.

Amphotericin B is used to treat what type of infections?

a)

Serious, life threatening systemic fungal infections

b)

Bacterial skin infections

c)

Viral respiratory infections

d)

Parasitic intestinal infections

19.

Which of the following is a serious adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Weight loss

20.

Phenelzine (Nardil) is classified as what type of medication?

a)

Antidepressant

b)

Antipsychotic

c)

Anticonvulsant

d)

Antihypertensive

21.

What should be avoided when taking Phenelzine (Nardil)?

a)

Tyramine

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Calcium

d)

Ibuprofen

22.

Morphine IV is given for what purpose?

a)

Pain

b)

Fever

c)

Cough

d)

Hypertension

23.

When should a provider be notified for a patient on Morphine IV?

a)

If respiratory rate is 20/min

b)

If respiratory rate is 11/min

c)

If blood pressure is 120/80

d)

If heart rate is 80/min

24.

Cefotetan is structurally similar to which class of antibiotics?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Aminoglycosides

25.

What allergy should be checked before administering Cefotetan?

a)

Penicillin allergy

b)

Sulfa allergy

c)

Aspirin allergy

d)

Latex allergy

26.

Propylthiouracil is used to treat which condition?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

27.

What are early indications of agranulocytosis in a patient taking Propylthiouracil?

a)

Sore throat and fever

b)

Weight gain and hair loss

c)

Increased appetite and sweating

d)

Bradycardia and dry skin

28.

Pioglitazone works by increasing the body's sensitivity to what?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Cortisol

29.

Chlorpromazine is used as a medication for which condition?

a)

Psychosis

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

30.

What precaution should be taken when using Chlorpromazine due to increased skin sensitivity?

a)

Use sunblock

b)

Increase caffeine intake

c)

Wear dark colored clothes only

d)

Avoid drinking water

31.

Epoetin is given for which condition?

a)

Kidney failure

b)

Hypertension

c)

Asthma

d)

Diabetes

32.

What is the desired effect of Epoetin administration?

a)

Increase of the Hgb (hemoglobin)

b)

Decrease of the Hgb (hemoglobin)

c)

Increase of blood glucose

d)

Decrease of white blood cells

33.

Omeprazole is a ________ (proton pump inhibitor) that blocks the secretion of gastric acid and patients should be instructed to swallow the pill whole.

a)

ppi

b)

antacid

c)

antibiotic

d)

antihistamine

34.

Methotrexate is used for ________ treatment and patients should increase fluid intake.

a)

rheumatoid arthritis

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

hyperthyroidism

35.

Valproic Acid is given for ________ and patients should tell the provider if abdominal pain is present, as it is a risk for hepatoxicity and pancreatitis.

a)

seizures

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes

d)

asthma

36.

Etonogestrel is an implantable progestin used for ________ control and may cause weight gain, irregular vaginal bleeding, and depression as adverse effects.

a)

birth

b)

pain

c)

blood pressure

d)

cholesterol

37.

Esomeprazole is an ________ med and a proton pump inhibitor (ppi).

a)

anti reflux

b)

antibiotic

c)

antiviral

d)

antifungal

38.

Estradiol is a type of ________ used for hormone replacement.

a)

estrogen

b)

androgen

c)

progestin

d)

corticosteroid

39.

Ciprofloxacin is a ________ (fluoroquinolone).

a)

antibiotic

b)

analgesic

c)

antiviral

d)

antifungal

40.

Diphenoxylate-atropine is an opioid used to treat ________.

a)

diarrhea

b)

hypertension

c)

cough

d)

insomnia

41.

Aspirin (salicylates) can lead to ________.

a)

ototoxicity

b)

nephrotoxicity

c)

hepatotoxicity

d)

cardiotoxicity

42.

Magnesium sulfate IV toxicity is treated with ________ gluconate.

a)

calcium

b)

potassium

c)

magnesium

d)

sodium

43.

Lactated Ringers (LR) is an isotonic crystalloid fluid commonly used to manage ________ shock, replaces fluids and electrolytes, and is more like blood plasma than saline.

a)

hypovolemic

b)

cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic

d)

anaphylactic

44.

Rho-gam is administered to RH- mothers with a ________ fetus/infant.

a)

RH+

b)

RH-

c)

O+

d)

AB-

45.

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate (DMPA) can cause weight gain, increase calcium intake after injection, and can cause irregular vaginal ________.

a)

spotting

b)

itching

c)

discharge

d)

dryness

46.

Pancrelipase (creon) is used for ________ pancreatic insufficiency.

a)

exocrine

b)

endocrine

c)

autoimmune

d)

chronic

47.

What should oral potassium supplements be diluted with to avoid unpleasant taste and prevent gastric upset?

a)

4 oz of juice or other liquids

b)

1 cup of hot coffee

c)

2 tablespoons of honey

d)

A glass of carbonated soda

48.

For which condition is Celecoxib commonly given?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Asthma

d)

Epilepsy

49.

Celecoxib should be administered with caution to clients with cardiac diseases and gastrointestinal diseases such as GI bleeding and ulcer.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Methylergonovine (Methergine): What is Methergine used to treat?

a)

Postpartum hemorrhaging

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Asthma

51.

What vital sign should be checked when administering Methergine?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Temperature

d)

Pulse oximetry

52.

What is the main purpose of Metoclopramide?

a)

To prevent nausea and vomiting that may occur as a side effect of other medications

b)

To treat high blood pressure

c)

To relieve joint pain

d)

To cure bacterial infections

53.

What type of diuretic is Furosemide?

a)

Potassium depleting diuretic

b)

Potassium sparing diuretic

c)

Osmotic diuretic

d)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

54.

What is the recommended serum potassium level to check when taking Furosemide?

a)

3.5-5

b)

2.0-3.0

c)

5.5-6.5

d)

1.0-2.5

55.

Furosemide (Lasix): Which food is recommended to intake due to its high potassium content when taking Furosemide?

a)

Baked potatoes

b)

White rice

c)

Apple juice

d)

Chicken breast

56.

What class of medication is Doxepin?

a)

Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

b)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

c)

Beta blocker

d)

Benzodiazepine

57.

What color urine should be expected when taking Phenazopyridine hydrochloride?

a)

Orange

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Red

58.

What can excessive sweating cause in patients taking lithium?

a)

Increase in serum lithium level, possibly leading to toxicity

b)

Decrease in serum lithium level, reducing effectiveness

c)

No effect on serum lithium level

d)

Improvement in mood symptoms

59.

What should be checked before each dose of Propranolol?

a)

Pulse

b)

Temperature

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Blood sugar

60.

What is Lugol solution used for?

a)

Potassium iodide

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Calcium carbonate

d)

Magnesium sulfate

61.

Lugol solution: What can be done to reduce the bitter taste of Lugol solution?

a)

Take with juice

b)

Add salt

c)

Heat the solution

d)

Mix with vinegar

62.

Which of the following is NOT a finding that indicates a client is getting too much thyroid replacement?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tremors

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotension

63.

Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic and is given for _________.

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes

d)

insomnia

64.

Baclofen is used to treat muscle spasms for which condition?

a)

cerebral palsy

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

hypertension

d)

asthma

65.

Meperidine is an opioid analgesic used for ________ to ________ pain.

a)

moderate to severe

b)

mild to moderate

c)

severe to mild

d)

chronic to acute

66.

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, muscle spasms, and ________.

a)

seizure

b)

headache

c)

hypertension

d)

diabetes

67.

Naloxone is used to reverse opioid induced ________ depression.

a)

respiratory

b)

cardiac

c)

renal

d)

hepatic

68.

Promethazine is commonly used for motion sickness, post-surgical nausea, and ________ illnesses.

a)

gastrointestinal

b)

respiratory

c)

dermatological

d)

cardiac

69.

Arthralgia means ________ pain.

a)

joint

b)

muscle

c)

nerve

d)

bone

70.

Sulfasalazine is used to treat which condition?

a)

ulcerative colitis

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

asthma

71.

Rifampin is given for which disease?

a)

tuberculosis (tb)

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

asthma

72.

Which immunization is contraindicated in patients with a baker's yeast allergy?

a)

Hepatitis B immunization

b)

Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine

c)

Tetanus toxoid vaccine

d)

Influenza vaccine

73.

Diphenhydramine reduces ________ induced inflammation which can help resolve airway symptoms.

a)

histamine

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

acetylcholine

74.

Nitrofurantoin is used to treat ________.

a)

urinary tract infections (UTIs)

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

asthma

75.

What is Stevens Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and why is it considered life threatening?

a)

SJS is a rare but serious hypersensitivity reaction that can occur with nitrofurantoin use, presenting with flu-like symptoms followed by a painful rash, blistering, and skin peeling. Immediate discontinuation and medical intervention are required if symptoms develop, as it can be life threatening.

b)

SJS is a mild allergic reaction that causes only mild itching and redness, and usually resolves without treatment.

c)

SJS is a common side effect of antibiotics that only affects the digestive system, causing nausea and vomiting.

d)

SJS is a chronic skin condition characterized by dry, scaly patches and is not considered a medical emergency.

76.

What is the primary use of Sumatriptan?

a)

To treat hypertension

b)

To relieve migraine symptoms

c)

To treat osteoporosis

d)

To stimulate WBC production

77.

Which of the following is a possible side effect of Sumatriptan?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Musculoskeletal pain

c)

Gingival hyperplasia

d)

Bone pain

78.

Erythromycin is commonly prescribed as an alternative for clients with an allergy to which antibiotic?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Vancomycin

79.

Diazepam is commonly used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures, reducing agitation, and alleviating autonomic hyperactivity.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Nitroglycerin (sublingual) should be taken at what interval and maximum dose within 15 minutes?

a)

Should be taken at 5 minute intervals, maxing at 3 doses within 15 minutes.

b)

Should be taken at 10 minute intervals, maxing at 2 doses within 15 minutes.

c)

Should be taken at 2 minute intervals, maxing at 4 doses within 15 minutes.

d)

Should be taken at 15 minute intervals, maxing at 1 dose within 15 minutes.

81.

Which of the following is NOT a correct instruction for taking sublingual nitroglycerin?

a)

A) Take at 5 minute intervals

b)

B) Dissolve under the tongue

c)

C) Store in heat and light

d)

D) Take a small sip of water if mouth is dry before taking

82.

Propylthiouracil is given for which disease?

a)

Graves disease (which causes hyperthyroidism)

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Addison's disease

d)

Cushing's syndrome

83.

What is a known side effect of Alendronate?

a)

Musculoskeletal pain, including bone, joint, and muscle discomfort.

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Hair growth

d)

Improved vision

84.

Phenytoin is a medication used to treat which condition?

a)

Seizures

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

85.

Bleeding gums known as gingival hyperplasia is a well known side effect of which medication?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Metformin

d)

Amoxicillin

86.

Prednisone can cause which of the following?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Bone pain

d)

Muscle discomfort

87.

Filgrastim is used to stimulate the production of which blood cells?

a)

White blood cells (WBCs)

b)

Red blood cells (RBCs)

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma cells

88.

What is the most common adverse effect of Filgrastim?

a)

Bone pain

b)

Nausea

c)

Rash

d)

Headache

89.

Tobramycin is ototoxic and can cause which of the following symptoms?

a)

Tinnitus, hearing loss, or balance disturbances

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Skin rash

d)

Insomnia

90.

What is the first line treatment for anaphylaxis during the administration of an intermittent IV bolus of nafcillin?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Salbutamol

91.

When administering Heparin, what size needle should be used to ensure the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue rather than deeper layers?

a)

25 gauge, ½ inch needle

b)

18 gauge, 1½ inch needle

c)

21 gauge, 1 inch needle

d)

22 gauge, 1½ inch needle

92.

Rifampin should be taken on an empty stomach (1-2 hrs after meals) to improve absorption and effectiveness.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What is a common symptom of allergic reaction when trying a new medication, known as urticaria?

a)

Hives (raised, red, itchy welts on the skin)

b)

Headache

c)

Nausea

d)

Dizziness

94.

Lithium is a mental health drug used for which conditions?

a)

Bipolar disorder, depression

b)

Schizophrenia, anxiety

c)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder, PTSD

d)

ADHD, autism

95.

What should be done after applying nitroglycerin ointment?

a)

Cover the admin area with plastic wrap

b)

Massage the ointment into the skin

c)

Expose the area to sunlight

d)

Remove the ointment immediately

96.

Alendronate is used to treat which condition?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

97.

What is a rare adverse effect of alendronate?

a)

Jaw pain

b)

Headache

c)

Nausea

d)

Rash

98.

Epoetin alfa is given for renal failure and which blood levels are to be checked?

a)

Hemoglobin (red blood cell production) levels

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Serum calcium levels

d)

Liver enzyme levels

99.

Who should press the PCA button to self-administer medication?

a)

Only the client

b)

The nurse

c)

The family member

d)

The physician

100.

Glipizide lowers blood sugar glucose levels. What should be offered to the client as a snack?

a)

A carbohydrate snack

b)

A high-protein snack

c)

A fatty snack

d)

A sugar-free snack