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Elective Admission and Identification

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During elective surgical admission, which task is primarily the ward clerk’s responsibility?

a)

Introduce self and do assessment

b)

Formulate the Nursing Care Plan

c)

Check for drug allergy on admission

d)

Allocate room and bed for patient

2.

Which action should the assistant nurse perform immediately after introducing themselves to an elective surgical patient?

a)

Allocate the patient to an available room

b)

Bring patient to the assigned bed location

c)

Provide financial counselling to relatives

d)

Proceed with nursing assessment on the form

3.

A patient reports a penicillin allergy during admission. What is the correct identification step?

a)

Apply a white tag for identification

b)

Apply a red tag indicating allergy

c)

Apply a blue tag for fall risk

d)

Apply a yellow tag for isolation

4.

Which orientation item best promotes patient safety on the ward?

a)

Times for general ward lights-out

b)

Menu choices for the cafeteria

c)

Beware of confidence tricksters

d)

Location of visitor lounge areas

5.

Who should be informed about the completed nursing assessment for an elective admission?

a)

The ward clerk managing beds

b)

The staff nurse coordinating care

c)

The anesthetist on call duty

d)

The hospital finance counsellor

6.

Which step comes before putting a wrist tag on the patient during assistant nurse tasks?

a)

Carry out doctor’s ordered treatments

b)

Formulate the Nursing Care Plan

c)

Inform staff nurse about assessment

d)

Introduce self and check allergies

7.

What should patient orientation include to support daily needs in the ward?

a)

Hospital routine and toiletries

b)

Financial counselling sessions

c)

Drug chart and allergy codes

d)

Staff rotation and shift times

8.

A new elective patient arrives at the ward. Which sequence best reflects initial ward clerk activities?

a)

Enter particulars, allocate bed, inform nurse

b)

Check allergies, put wrist tag, assess patient

c)

Formulate care plan, carry out doctor orders

d)

Provide orientation, warn about tricksters

9.

In emergency admission, which action should occur first when the patient arrives at the ward?

a)

Receive and greet the patient immediately

b)

Assist changing into hospital pajamas

c)

Order diet unless contraindicated

d)

Advise on safekeeping of valuables

10.

A patient is critically ill during admission. What is the immediate nursing priority?

a)

Formulate a nursing care plan later

b)

Inform the staff nurse and get assistance

c)

Complete orientation to ward layout

d)

Note any non-urgent information first

11.

Which documentation timeline is correct for baseline assessment during emergency admission?

a)

Immediately after physician rounds

b)

By end of the first shift

c)

Within 2 hours of stabilization

d)

Within 1 hour after admission

12.

During orientation for patient and relatives, which content is appropriate to include?

a)

Detailed pathophysiology of illness

b)

Medication pharmacokinetics

c)

Introduction to other patients

d)

Billing codes for procedures

13.

Which sequence best reflects safe, efficient admitting procedures after greeting the patient?

a)

General assessment, note information, assist to pajamas

b)

Advise valuables, general assessment, change clothes

c)

Order diet, formulate care plan, perform assessment

d)

Carry out treatments, orient relatives, note information

14.

Which statement best defines Motivational Interviewing (MI) in clinical practice?

a)

A standardized script for behavior change sessions

b)

A confrontational approach to increase compliance

c)

A collaborative, goal-oriented communication style

d)

A directive method focused on advice giving

15.

In MI, which core element emphasizes drawing out a person’s own priorities and reasons for change?

a)

Acceptance

b)

Compassion

c)

Evocation

d)

Partnership

16.

During nursing admission, which behavior most exemplifies the MI element of Acceptance?

a)

Highlighting risks to pressure change

b)

Setting goals without patient input

c)

Taking a nonjudgmental stance with empathy

d)

Using persuasion to secure treatment agreement

17.

A patient says, “I know I should quit, but I’m not ready.” Which MI-consistent response focuses on the language of change?

a)

“Why haven’t you tried quitting before?”

b)

“You must quit immediately for your health.”

c)

“What benefits might you notice if you did quit?”

d)

“Let’s schedule nicotine tests every week.”

18.

Which action demonstrates Partnership in MI during assessment?

a)

Correcting patient beliefs decisively

b)

Assigning tasks without discussion

c)

Presenting the nurse as the sole expert

d)

Collaboratively exploring patient goals

19.

In MI, Compassion involves which primary focus by the practitioner?

a)

Maintaining clinical neutrality at all times

b)

Ensuring rapid adherence to treatment

c)

Prioritizing the client’s welfare selflessly

d)

Applying standardized motivational scripts

20.

Which sign most directly indicates a hospitalized patient is experiencing stress?

a)

Calm mood with stable affect

b)

Improved concentration during interviews

c)

Enhanced recall of staff instructions

d)

Difficulty understanding given information

21.

Which hospital stressor is commonly reported by newly admitted patients?

a)

Having unlimited mobility on the ward

b)

Fear of separation from family members

c)

Seeing only familiar caregivers daily

d)

Gaining unexpected independence quickly

22.

A patient appears anxious and forgets discharge instructions. What is the priority nursing action to reduce anxiety?

a)

Use simple and clear explanations of procedures

b)

Increase technical detail in explanations

c)

Avoid repeating information after teaching

d)

Switch to a language unfamiliar to the patient

23.

During admission, which communication approach best supports a stressed patient?

a)

Use the patient’s preferred language

b)

Provide only nonverbal reassurance

c)

Limit information to avoid questions

d)

Speak rapidly to save clinical time

24.

Which scenario best illustrates a realistic hospital-related stressor?

a)

Restriction of movement due to clinical devices

b)

Continuous presence of close family at bedside

c)

Predictable home routine remains unchanged

d)

Immediate return to full independence

25.

A nurse notices poor concentration and fearfulness. Which combined interventions are most appropriate?

a)

Provide reassurance and written materials

b)

Increase physical restrictions immediately

c)

Delay explanations until discharge day

d)

Use complex medical jargon consistently

26.

To ensure retention of critical information in a stressed patient, the nurse should primarily:

a)

Assume verbal instructions are sufficient

b)

Avoid giving written materials

c)

Repeat key points when necessary

d)

Provide lengthy explanations once

27.

Which action should occur on the day of admission to support effective discharge planning?

a)

Schedule post-operative follow-up visit date

b)

Finalize rehabilitation facility placement

c)

Complete insurance authorization for medications

d)

Assess patient needs and family education needs

28.

What is the primary purpose of identifying a caregiver early when planning for discharge?

a)

To ensure continuous support after discharge

b)

To avoid arranging community nursing

c)

To reduce length of inpatient stay

d)

To expedite diagnostic testing timelines

29.

How is a standardized care plan typically used?

a)

For rare, highly individualized conditions only

b)

For patients with similar diagnoses and nursing issues

c)

Exclusively to replace clinical pathways in hospitals

d)

Only for surgical cases requiring strict timing

30.

Which benefit is most associated with using clinical pathways and standardized care plans during admission?

a)

Delays discharge to verify pathway adherence

b)

Limits interprofessional communication and planning

c)

Increases variability and personal preferences in care

d)

Promotes consistency and reduces treatment variation

31.

When should discharge planning ideally begin to minimize unplanned readmissions?

a)

At the day of scheduled discharge

b)

At the first outpatient follow-up visit

c)

At the time of admission to the hospital

d)

At the point of confirmed diagnosis

32.

A patient with heart failure is admitted. Which tool best coordinates evidence-based timing of interventions across disciplines?

a)

Insurance pre-authorization template

b)

Generic discharge checklist for all patients

c)

Clinical pathway for heart failure management

d)

Unit-specific flow chart for supplies

33.

Which planning step helps determine inpatient resource needs and duration appropriately?

a)

Completing pharmacy counseling before any orders

b)

Estimating expected length of stay and necessary treatment

c)

Assigning a primary caregiver after discharge only

d)

Selecting a preferred ward based on patient request

34.

Why does standardization through pathways improve patient outcomes post-discharge?

a)

It guarantees identical recovery times for all patients

b)

It allows nurses to skip patient education steps

c)

It minimizes delays and reduces practice variation

d)

It eliminates the need for follow-up appointments

35.

A nurse must choose a communication tool for the team. Which choice aligns with the material’s guidance?

a)

Use either clinical pathways or standardized care plans

b)

Create an informal memo based on personal experience

c)

Rely on verbal updates during shift handover only

d)

Prefer ad-hoc notes tailored to each staff member

36.

Which primary benefit of standardized care plans supports teamwork during discharge?

a)

Restricts communication to physician-only updates

b)

Eliminates the need for handoff reporting entirely

c)

Provides individualized improvisation for each case

d)

Aligns all professionals on discharge steps

37.

What aspect of patient education is emphasized when following a standardized care plan after discharge?

a)

Medication adherence and symptom management

b)

Scheduling follow-up without teaching self-care

c)

Exclusive focus on surgical wound care only

d)

Avoiding family involvement in education

38.

A unit adopts multidisciplinary standardized plans. Which outcome best indicates effective implementation?

a)

Reduced documentation of patient teaching

b)

More variability in instructions at discharge

c)

Longer average length of stay for patients

d)

Lower readmission rates across diagnoses

39.

During admission planning, how do standardized care plans most directly improve communication?

a)

Replace bedside assessments with electronic templates

b)

Limit updates to weekly interdisciplinary rounds

c)

Increase independent decision-making without consultation

d)

Ensure all team members share coordinated requirements

40.

Which technique primarily uses the sense of sight during a physical assessment?

a)

Auscultation with stethoscope

b)

Palpation using fingertips

c)

Percussion with finger taps

d)

Inspection and observation

41.

Which assessment sense is most associated with auscultation?

a)

Sight during inspection

b)

Hearing with stethoscope

c)

Touch during palpation

d)

Smell during olfaction

42.

Which procedures rely mainly on the sense of touch?

a)

Olfaction of clinical odors

b)

Palpation and percussion

c)

Auscultation of heart sounds

d)

Inspection and observation

43.

During inspection, which need would you most likely evaluate by observing activity level and rest patterns?

a)

Psychosocial coping behaviors

b)

Elimination habits and continence

c)

Oxygenation and circulation signs

d)

Rest and activity requirements

44.

While inspecting a patient’s hygiene and grooming, what visual cue best indicates a potential nursing concern?

a)

Clean clothing and linens

b)

Neatly trimmed fingernails

c)

Matt hair with scalp debris

d)

Appropriate seasonal attire

45.

Which finding best fits oxygenation and circulation needs assessed by sight?

a)

Pale, cool extremities

b)

Fruit-like breath odor

c)

Firm tender abdomen

d)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

46.

Which item would you visually check to ensure functionality of equipment at the bedside?

a)

Infusion pump display status

b)

Stethoscope tubing integrity

c)

Pulse quality on palpation

d)

Patient’s respiratory effort

47.

A nurse hears wheezing during auscultation. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

Normal breath sounds present

b)

Valve closure variation

c)

Abnormal airway narrowing

d)

Excess abdominal gas

48.

Which sound change could signal patient distress detectable by hearing?

a)

Increased coughing episodes

b)

Cool clammy skin

c)

Foul-smelling wound

d)

Edema in lower legs

49.

Which assessment is appropriately performed by hearing to detect cardiovascular issues?

a)

Smelling for ketone odor

b)

Palpating peripheral pulses

c)

Auscultating heart sounds

d)

Inspecting for cyanosis

50.

When monitoring equipment, which auditory cue suggests a problem with suction?

a)

Soft consistent whoosh

b)

Rhythmic continuous hum

c)

Irregular intermittent sputter

d)

Silent steady airflow

51.

Which sensory modality is used to identify clinical odors such as infection or ketosis?

a)

Touch during palpation

b)

Smell during olfaction

c)

Sight during inspection

d)

Hearing during auscultation

52.

During a respiratory assessment, percussion over a lung field produces a dull sound. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

Improper finger technique causing artifact

b)

Hyperinflated lung with increased tympany

c)

Presence of a mass or consolidation in tissue

d)

Normal aerated lung tissue with resonance

53.

Which action correctly describes clinical percussion during a physical exam?

a)

Observing chest rise to estimate tidal volume

b)

Using a stethoscope to amplify internal sounds

c)

Applying firm pressure to detect tissue resistance

d)

Striking the body surface with fingers to create vibrations

54.

You percuss the right lower quadrant and hear a full, flat note. Which interpretation is most consistent with this finding?

a)

Air-filled bowel producing resonance

b)

Subcutaneous emphysema causing crepitus

c)

Underlying fluid accumulation in a cavity

d)

Normal liver edge at the costal margin

55.

A patient’s urine has a distinctly fishy odor. Which clinical concern should be prioritized?

a)

Uncontrolled diabetes with ketone production

b)

Alcohol intoxication affecting breath smell

c)

Urinary tract infection causing bacterial odor

d)

Gastrointestinal bleeding with melena stool

56.

Which odor on the breath is commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?

a)

Ammonia-like smell from renal failure

b)

Ketone or acetone smell from fat metabolism

c)

Putrid smell from anaerobic wound infection

d)

Alcohol smell from recent ethanol intake

57.

A wound emits a musty, offensive smell. What does this most likely signify?

a)

Infected wound with bacterial colonization

b)

Ischemic tissue without bacterial growth

c)

Sterile wound with healthy granulation

d)

Allergic contact dermatitis reaction

58.

Which clinical finding best matches steatorrhoea noted in stool assessment?

a)

Black, tarry stool with blood digestion

b)

Excess fat in feces due to malabsorption

c)

Clay-colored stool from bile obstruction

d)

Watery diarrhea from viral infection

59.

A patient presents with halitosis and gum inflammation. Which implication aligns with bedside olfactory assessment?

a)

Physiologic fasting causing acetone breath

b)

Kidney failure producing uremic breath

c)

Upper GI bleed causing melena odor

d)

Likely mouth infection contributing to odor

60.

Which task best describes the nurse’s role in reviewing patient information during admission?

a)

Confirm current medications and past surgeries

b)

Estimate prognosis using lab trends only

c)

Defer history review to the attending physician

d)

Focus solely on allergies noted by pharmacy

61.

During the initial observation at admission, what should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Immediate calculation of BMI and waist ratio

b)

Overall appearance, skin color, and hygiene

c)

Pulse oximetry trending over 24 hours

d)

Detailed cranial nerve testing with tools

62.

What is the most appropriate approach for a head-to-toe assessment?

a)

Check vital signs once and proceed to discharge

b)

Focus only on painful areas reported by patient

c)

Perform a quick scan without documentation notes

d)

Systematically assess each body system for changes

63.

A nurse is determining functional status on admission. Which focus is most appropriate?

a)

Future goals for outpatient rehabilitation

b)

Preferred leisure activities on weekends

c)

Sleep architecture and REM percentage

d)

Mobility and activities of daily living

64.

Which statement reflects accurate documentation during admission assessment?

a)

Delay charting until physician validates findings

b)

Enter only abnormal results to save charting time

c)

Summarize verbally to the next nurse during handoff

d)

Record findings comprehensively in the medical record

65.

Which hospital unit is responsible for receiving patient valuables for safekeeping?

a)

Ward nursing station staff

b)

Finance section department

c)

Admissions counter clerks

d)

Security office personnel

66.

How should gold ornaments be described when itemizing them for safekeeping?

a)

By brand and purchase date

b)

By weight and market value

c)

By colour and type of article

d)

By owner’s verbal description only

67.

What general principle applies to a patient’s belongings regarding value?

a)

Cash above $100 is valuable

b)

All patient property is considered valuable

c)

Only jewelry is considered valuable

d)

Electronics are not considered valuable

68.

During hospitalization, what amount of cash is permitted for incidental expenses?

a)

No cash is permitted

b)

Any amount if kept hidden

c)

$10 nominal amount is permitted

d)

$50 is recommended

69.

If a patient insists on keeping valuables, what must they be advised?

a)

Finance will insure items automatically

b)

Hospital will not be held liable for any loss

c)

Nurses are personally liable for loss

d)

Security will guard items at bedside

70.

What documentation should occur when valuables are handled at admission?

a)

Verbal note to team lead

b)

Informal text message is acceptable

c)

Acknowledge receipt should be recorded

d)

Photo of items is sufficient

71.

For an unconscious or unaccompanied patient, how must valuables be received?

a)

Left with patient until relatives arrive

b)

Received and witnessed by another nursing staff

c)

Held by security without documentation

d)

Received by any available staff

72.

What is the purpose of the ‘Safekeeping of Patient’s Property’ form?

a)

To request insurance for items

b)

To list items kept in ward and finance

c)

To authorize bedside storage of valuables

d)

To estimate resale value of property

73.

Where should the ‘Safekeeping of Patient’s Property’ form be filed?

a)

Finance archive only

b)

Ward incident log

c)

Security office records

d)

Patient’s case notes

74.

Within what timeframe should items listed for safekeeping in the ward be returned to a relative when possible?

a)

Within 6 to 12 hours

b)

Within 3 to 5 days

c)

Upon discharge only

d)

Within 24 to 48 hours

75.

What should patients be informed about items left unclaimed after six months from discharge?

a)

Items will be donated immediately

b)

Items may be disposed of by hospital authorities

c)

Items will be stored indefinitely at no cost

d)

Items will be mailed to their home

76.

Which action best protects a patient’s valuables during hospitalization?

a)

Hand valuables to any staff-looking person

b)

Keep all valuables inside the patient’s locker

c)

Store valuables under the patient’s pillow

d)

Leave valuables with trusted relatives

77.

A person claims to be a nurse and asks for the patient’s wallet. What is the most appropriate immediate response?

a)

Ignore and let the patient decide

b)

Call security without informing staff

c)

Allow them if they seem confident

d)

Request and check their hospital ID

78.

Relatives notice someone lingering near lockers and touching items. What should they do first?

a)

Record video for social media evidence

b)

Confront the person aggressively in public

c)

Inform the staff nurse or officer-in-charge

d)

Wait to see if theft actually occurs

79.

Which statement reflects the hospital’s cash collection policy during admission?

a)

Cash collection is allowed by any ward staff

b)

No cash will be collected in the ward for treatment

c)

Cash must be paid to nurses before procedures

d)

Cash may be collected only at night shifts

80.

Relatives are told to be vigilant of suspicious characters in the ward. Which behavior is the clearest warning sign of an impostor?

a)

Speaking softly while near the bedside

b)

Pretending to be nursing or medical personnel

c)

Wearing casual clothes on weekends

d)

Using medical terms when chatting

81.

Someone opens a patient’s locker without consent. What right should the patient or relatives exercise?

a)

Question or check the person’s ID

b)

Call the cashier to verify payment

c)

Relocate the patient to another ward

d)

File a complaint only after discharge

82.

Which purpose best explains why height and weight are recorded at first contact with a client?

a)

To provide baseline data for future comparisons

b)

To schedule follow‑up visits with the clinic

c)

To ensure insurance claims are processed quickly

d)

To determine the client’s preferred meal choices

83.

A nurse needs to adjust a medication dose for a pediatric client. Which physical measurement is essential to calculate an accurate dose?

a)

Respiratory rate for ventilation

b)

Temperature measurement for fever control

c)

Weight measurement for dosing calculations

d)

Pulse measurement for cardiac rhythm

84.

Which action supports accurate weight measurement before a client steps on the scale?

a)

Record from a different scale each time

b)

Calibrate the scale to zero before use

c)

Allow the client to lean on the railings

d)

Ask the client to wear heavy outer clothing

85.

When measuring height, which positioning instruction is correct to ensure accuracy?

a)

Turn sideways, bend knees slightly, exhale

b)

Sit upright, lean slightly forward, relax

c)

Stand erect, look straight ahead, remain still

d)

Stand relaxed, look downwards, move feet

86.

Why is taking weight at the same time of day on the same scale recommended?

a)

To shorten the documentation process

b)

To make clients feel more comfortable routinely

c)

To meet facility scheduling preferences only

d)

To reduce variability and improve trend accuracy

87.

A client has a full bladder before weighing. What instruction should the nurse give to improve measurement accuracy?

a)

Ask the client to void before stepping on the scale

b)

Delay weighing until the next scheduled visit

c)

Provide a large meal before measurement

d)

Have the client wear shoes for safety

88.

Height and weight help assess nutritional status primarily in which population highlighted in the material?

a)

Elder adults needing nutritional assessment

b)

Young athletes training for competition

c)

Pregnant clients in second trimester

d)

Post‑operative clients recovering from surgery

89.

You are monitoring a child’s response to long‑term therapy. Which measurement practice best supports evaluating treatment effectiveness over time?

a)

Switch scales frequently to check device error

b)

Weigh at random times to avoid routine bias

c)

Measure only height and ignore weight trends

d)

Use consistent calibrated equipment at each visit

90.

Which formula correctly calculates Body Mass Index (BMI) as used in clinical practice?

a)

weight in pounds divided by height squared in inches

b)

height in meters divided by weight in kilograms

c)

weight in kilograms divided by height squared in meters

d)

weight in kilograms divided by height in meters

91.

A patient’s BMI is 18.2. Which risk category best fits this value?

a)

Low risk healthy range

b)

Moderate risk range

c)

Risk of nutritional deficiency

d)

High risk range

92.

Which BMI range represents the low-risk (healthy) category?

a)

17.0 and below

b)

27.5 and above

c)

23.0 to 27.4

d)

18.5 to 22.9

93.

At what BMI value does the high-risk category begin?

a)

18.5 and above

b)

23.0 and above

c)

22.9 and above

d)

27.5 and above

94.

Which action best ensures accurate weight measurement using a scale?

a)

Place scale on soft carpeted surface

b)

Allow the scale to stabilize before recording

c)

Ask patient to lean forward slightly

d)

Record weight immediately after stepping on

95.

During height measurement, how should the patient be positioned to improve accuracy?

a)

Feet together, chin elevated forward

b)

Heels, buttocks, and upper back against the stadiometer

c)

Back arched, heels off the ground

d)

Hands on hips, knees slightly bent

96.

Which equipment choice reduces measurement error for BMI assessment?

a)

Calibrated and standardized height and weight tools

b)

Uncalibrated home scale and tape

c)

Smartphone app for height estimation

d)

Visual estimation of patient’s stature

97.

A nurse measures a patient at 1.70 m and 68 kg. What is the BMI?

a)

21.1 kg/m²

b)

23.7 kg/m²

c)

24.9 kg/m²

d)

22.8 kg/m²

98.

A patient’s BMI is 26.5. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

a)

Low risk healthy range

b)

Moderate risk range

c)

Risk of nutritional deficiency

d)

High risk range

99.

Which combined steps most directly improve accuracy when assessing BMI in clinic?

a)

Use calibrated tools and correct formula

b)

Weigh patient once and round up

c)

Estimate height from age and sex

d)

Measure after meals and hydration

100.

Which patient education point best supports maintaining a healthy BMI?

a)

Emphasize regular physical activity most days

b)

Increase meal frequency without portion control

c)

Rely solely on supplements for weight control

d)

Avoid nutrient-dense foods to reduce calories

101.

When counseling on diet to support BMI, what should be prioritized?

a)

Focus on portion control and nutrient-dense foods

b)

Follow a single-food diet for rapid loss

c)

Eliminate all carbohydrates from meals

d)

Use meal replacements for every dinner

102.

Which tool helps patients self-monitor lifestyle behaviors related to BMI?

a)

Advance care planning templates

b)

Blood transfusion consent forms

c)

Food diaries or activity logs

d)

Radiology referral paperwork

103.

What is the primary purpose of regular follow-up visits in BMI teaching plans?

a)

Provide punishment for missed exercises

b)

Assess progress and give feedback

c)

Replace daily self-monitoring entirely

d)

Determine eligibility for surgical procedures

104.

A patient with low or high BMI should be educated first to understand what?

a)

Insurance premium adjustments

b)

Health risks associated with BMI extremes

c)

Latest fitness fashion trends

d)

Cooking shows featuring low-calorie meals

105.

Which resource would best assist ongoing tracking and healthy lifestyle maintenance?

a)

Generic social media advertisements

b)

Unsupervised fasting retreats

c)

Annual holiday diet challenges

d)

Educational materials, websites, or apps