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Exam 3 - Chapter 10: Pathologic Conditions and Laboratory Tests

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the brain'?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Meningitis

c)

Encephalitis

d)

Cerebral palsy

2.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Congenital defects in the lumbar spinal column caused by imperfect union of vertebral parts'?

a)

Spina bifida

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Herniated disc

3.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Brain disorder marked by gradual and progressive mental deterioration, personality changes and impairment of daily functioning'?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Epilepsy

4.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Degenerative disorder of motor neurons in the spinal cord and brainstem'?

a)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Myasthenia gravis

5.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent seizure activity'?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Meningitis

c)

Alzheimer's disease

d)

Parkinson's disease

6.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Hereditary disorder marked by degenerative changes in the cerebrum, leading to abrupt involuntary movements and mental deterioration'?

a)

Huntington disease

b)

Parkinson disease

c)

Alzheimer disease

d)

Multiple sclerosis

7.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Destruction of the myelin sheath on neurons in the CNS and its replacement by plaques of sclerotic tissue'?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Alzheimer's disease

8.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by weakness of voluntary muscles'?

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

d)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

9.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Partial or complete loss of motor function'?

a)

Palsy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Spasm

d)

Tremor

10.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, occurring in later life and leading to tremors, weakness of muscles, and slowness of movement'?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Myasthenia gravis

11.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Involuntary spasmodic, twitching movements; uncontrollable vocal sounds and inappropriate words'?

a)

Tourette syndrome

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Multiple sclerosis

12.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Viral infection affecting peripheral nerves'?

a)

Herpes zoster

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

13.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Inflammation of the meninges; leptomeningitis'?

a)

Meningitis

b)

Encephalitis

c)

Myelitis

d)

Neuritis

14.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Brain disease and dementia occurring with AIDS'?

a)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) encephalopathy

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Alzheimer's disease

d)

Parkinson's disease

15.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Abnormal growth of brain tissue and meninges'?

a)

Brain tumor

b)

Meningitis

c)

Cerebral palsy

d)

Hydrocephalus

16.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Type of traumatic brain injury caused by a blow to the head'?

a)

Cerebral concussion

b)

Meningitis

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Hydrocephalus

17.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Bruising of brain tissue resulting from direct trauma to head'?

a)

Cerebral contusion

b)

Cerebral infarction

c)

Subdural hematoma

d)

Meningitis

18.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Disruption in the normal blood supply to the brain; stroke'?

a)

Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Meningitis

19.

Which pathologic condition is described as 'Severe, recurring, unilateral, vascular headache'?

a)

Migraine

b)

Tension headache

c)

Cluster headache

d)

Sinusitis

20.

Which laboratory test involves 'Samples of CSF are examined'?

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Liver function test

d)

Complete blood count

21.

Which laboratory test involves 'X-ray imaging of arterial blood vessels in brain after injection of contrast material'?

a)

Cerebral angiography

b)

Electroencephalography

c)

Lumbar puncture

d)

Magnetic resonance imaging

22.

Which laboratory test is described as 'Computerized x-ray technique that generates multiple images of brain and spinal cord'?

a)

Computed tomography (CT) of the brain

b)

Electroencephalography (EEG)

c)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

d)

Positron emission tomography (PET)

23.

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses which of the following to create images of the brain and spinal cord?

a)

X-rays

b)

Magnetic field and pulses of radiowave energy

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Radioactive glucose

24.

Positron emission tomography (PET) scan involves the injection of what substance to image metabolic activity of cells?

a)

Radioactive glucose

b)

Magnetic dye

c)

Sound waves

d)

Electrical impulses

25.

Doppler ultrasound studies use sound waves to detect blood flow in which arteries?

a)

Carotid and intracranial arteries

b)

Coronary arteries

c)

Femoral arteries

d)

Pulmonary arteries

26.

Electroencephalography (EEG) is used for recording the electrical activity of which organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Brain

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

27.

Lumbar puncture (LP) involves withdrawing CSF from between which vertebrae?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

28.

Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) uses a specialized instrument to locate and treat targets in which organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Brain

c)

Liver

d)

Lung

29.

Arrhythmias are defined as ________ heart rhythms.

a)

Abnormal

b)

Normal

c)

Regular

d)

Slow

30.

Bradycardia and heart block are caused by failure of proper conduction of impulses from SA node through AV node to ________ bundle.

a)

atrioventricular

b)

Purkinje

c)

His

d)

bundle of Kent

31.

Flutter is characterized by ________ but regular contractions, usually of the atria.

a)

rapid

b)

slow

c)

irregular

d)

weak

32.

Fibrillation is defined as very rapid, random, inefficient and irregular contractions of the heart, usually more than ________ beats per minute.

a)

350

b)

200

c)

100

d)

500

33.

Congenital heart disease refers to abnormalities in the heart present at ________.

a)

birth

b)

adulthood

c)

old age

d)

puberty

34.

Contraction of the aorta is a narrowing contraction of the ________.

a)

aorta

b)

trachea

c)

esophagus

d)

vena cava

35.

Patent ductus arteriosus is a passageway between the aorta and ________ artery that remains open after birth.

a)

pulmonary

b)

carotid

c)

renal

d)

coronary

36.

Septal defects are small holes in the wall between the ________ or the ventricles.

a)

atria

b)

arteries

c)

veins

d)

capillaries

37.

Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital malformation involving how many distinct heart defects?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

38.

Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump the required amount of ________.

a)

blood

b)

oxygen

c)

glucose

d)

hormones

39.

Coronary artery disease is a disease of the arteries surrounding the ________.

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

lung

40.

Endocarditis is the inflammation of the inner lining of the ________.

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

lung

d)

kidney

41.

Hypertensive heart disease is caused by high ________ pressure affecting the heart.

a)

blood

b)

air

c)

bone

d)

nerve

42.

Mitral valve prolapse is the improper closure of the ________ valve.

a)

mitral

b)

aortic

c)

pulmonary

d)

tricuspid

43.

A murmur is an extra heart sound heard between ________ beats.

a)

normal

b)

irregular

c)

rapid

d)

slow

44.

Pericarditis is the inflammation of the membrane surrounding the ________.

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

lung

d)

kidney

45.

Rheumatic heart disease is caused by ________ fever.

a)

rheumatic

b)

typhoid

c)

dengue

d)

malaria

46.

Aneurysm is the local widening of an ________ wall.

a)

arterial

b)

venous

c)

muscular

d)

cartilaginous

47.

Deep vein thrombosis is a blood clot that forms in a large vein, usually in a ________ limb.

a)

lower

b)

upper

c)

middle

d)

short

48.

Hypertension is defined as high ________ pressure.

a)

blood

b)

nerve

c)

bone

d)

muscle

49.

Peripheral arterial disease is the blockage of arteries carrying blood to the legs, arms, kidneys and other ________.

a)

organs

b)

muscles

c)

bones

d)

nerves

50.

Raynaud disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of pallor and cyanosis primarily in which body parts?

a)

fingers and toes

b)

ears and nose

c)

knees and elbows

d)

scalp and neck

51.

Varicose veins are abnormally swollen and twisted veins, usually occurring in which part of the body?

a)

legs

b)

arms

c)

face

d)

abdomen

52.

What does the BNP test measure in the blood?

a)

BNP

b)

Glucose

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Cholesterol

53.

Cardiac biomarkers are chemicals measured in blood as evidence of what medical condition?

a)

heart attack

b)

diabetes

c)

asthma

d)

kidney failure

54.

Lipid tests measure the amount of which substances in a blood sample?

a)

cholesterol and triglycerides

b)

glucose and insulin

c)

sodium and potassium

d)

hemoglobin and platelets

55.

Lipoprotein electrophoresis physically separates and measures what in a blood sample?

a)

lipoproteins

b)

red blood cells

c)

glucose

d)

platelets

56.

Angiography is an X-ray imaging of blood vessels after injection of what material?

a)

contrast material

b)

saline solution

c)

glucose solution

d)

anesthetic agent

e)

radioactive iodine

57.

Computed tomography angiography produces three-dimensional X-ray images of heart and coronary arteries using what technique?

a)

computed tomography

b)

magnetic resonance imaging

c)

ultrasound

d)

positron emission tomography

58.

Digital subtraction angiography uses video equipment and a computer to produce X-ray images of what?

a)

blood vessels

b)

bones

c)

muscles

d)

nerves

59.

Electron beam computed tomography identifies calcium deposits in and around coronary arteries to diagnose what condition?

a)

early CAD (coronary artery disease)

b)

pulmonary embolism

c)

aortic aneurysm

d)

mitral valve prolapse

60.

Doppler ultrasound studies use sound waves to measure what within blood vessels?

a)

blood flow

b)

blood pressure

c)

oxygen saturation

d)

cholesterol level

61.

Echocardiography uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images of what organ?

a)

the heart

b)

the liver

c)

the kidney

d)

the lung

62.

Position emission tomography scan shows blood flow and myocardial function following uptake of what substance?

a)

radioactive glucose

b)

iodine-131

c)

barium sulfate

d)

technetium-99m

63.

Technetium Tc 99m sestamibi scan involves injection of Technetium Tc 99m sestamibi, which is taken up in what tissue?

a)

cardiac tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

bone tissue

d)

lung tissue

64.

Thallium 201 scan measures the concentration of radioactive thallium to give information about blood supply to what muscle?

a)

heart muscle

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

smooth muscle

d)

diaphragm muscle

65.

Cardiac MRI produces images of the heart using what type of energy in a magnetic field?

a)

radiowave energy

b)

ultrasound energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

light energy

66.

Cardiac catheterization involves guiding a thin, flexible tube into the heart via what?

a)

vein or artery

b)

esophagus

c)

trachea

d)

urethra

e)

lymphatic vessel

67.

Electrocardiography records the flow of what through the heart?

a)

electricity

b)

blood

c)

oxygen

d)

enzymes

68.

Holter monitoring uses an ECG device worn over a prolonged period to detect what?

a)

cardiac arrhythmias

b)

lung infections

c)

bone fractures

d)

kidney stones

69.

Stress test determines the heart’s response to what?

a)

physical exertion

b)

medication

c)

sleep

d)

fasting

70.

Catheter ablation delivers radiofrequency energy to ablate areas of heart tissue that may be causing what condition?

a)

arrhythmias (such as atrial fibrillation)

b)

hypertension

c)

coronary artery disease

d)

heart valve stenosis

71.

Coronary artery bypass grafting involves anastomosing arteries and veins to coronary arteries to detour around what?

a)

blockages

b)

valves

c)

muscles

d)

nerves

72.

Defibrillation involves brief discharge of electricity applied across the chest to stop what?

a)

dysrhythmias

b)

hypertension

c)

asthma attacks

d)

diabetes

73.

Endarterectomy is the surgical removal of plaque from which layer of artery?

a)

inner layer

b)

middle layer

c)

outer layer

d)

adventitia

74.

What is the procedure called where a heart-lung machine diverts blood from heart and lungs while the heart is repaired?

a)

Extracorporeal circulation

b)

Cardiac ablation

c)

Angioplasty

d)

Pacemaker implantation

75.

What is the procedure called when a donor heart is transferred to a recipient?

a)

Heart transplantation

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Pacemaker implantation

d)

Coronary artery bypass

76.

What is the name of the procedure where a balloon-tipped catheter is inserted into a coronary artery to open the artery and stents are put in place?

a)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

b)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

c)

Electrocardiogram

d)

Cardiac ablation

77.

What therapy involves drugs to dissolve clots injected into the bloodstream of patients with coronary thrombosis?

a)

Thrombolytic therapy

b)

Anticoagulant therapy

c)

Beta-blocker therapy

d)

Angioplasty

78.

What is the procedure called where a balloon-expandable or self-expanding aortic heart valve is placed into the body via a catheter?

a)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

b)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

c)

Mitral valve repair

d)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

79.

What is the medical term for listening to sounds within the body?

a)

Auscultation

b)

Palpation

c)

Percussion

d)

Inspection

80.

What is the medical term for tapping on a surface to determine the difference in density of underlying structure?

a)

Percussion

b)

Auscultation

c)

Palpation

d)

Inspection

81.

What is the scratchy sound produced by pleural surfaces rubbing against each other called?

a)

Pleural rub

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheeze

82.

What are fine crackling sounds heard on auscultation when there is fluid in the alveoli called?

a)

Rales

b)

Wheezes

c)

Stridor

d)

Rhonchi

83.

What are loud rumbling sounds heard on auscultation of bronchi obstructed by sputum called?

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Crepitations

c)

Wheezes

d)

Stridor

84.

What is the material expelled from bronchi, lungs, or upper respiratory tract by spitting called?

a)

Sputum

b)

Plasma

c)

Saliva

d)

Mucus

85.

What is the strained, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration caused by obstruction in pharynx or larynx called?

a)

Stridor

b)

Wheeze

c)

Rhonchi

d)

Crackles

86.

What are continuous high-pitched whistling sounds produced during breathing called?

a)

Wheezes

b)

Rales

c)

Stridor

d)

Crackles

87.

What is the acute infection of infants and children with obstruction of larynx, accompanied by barking cough and stridor called?

a)

Croup

b)

Bronchiolitis

c)

Epiglottitis

d)

Asthma

88.

What is the acute infection of the throat and upper respiratory tract caused by diphtheria bacterium called?

a)

Diphtheria

b)

Tonsillitis

c)

Pharyngitis

d)

Laryngitis

e)

Bronchitis

89.

What is the medical term for nosebleed?

a)

Epistaxis

b)

Rhinorrhea

c)

Sinusitis

d)

Rhinitis

90.

What is the highly contagious bacterial infection of pharynx, larynx and trachea caused by bordetella pertussis called?

a)

Pertussis (Whooping cough)

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Scarlet fever

91.

What is the chronic inflammatory disorder with airway obstruction due to bronchial and bronchiolar edema and constriction called?

a)

Asthma

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Pneumonia

92.

What is the chronic dilation of a bronchus, usually secondary to infection called?

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Asthma

c)

Emphysema

d)

Pneumonia

93.

What is the inflammation of bronchi persisting over a long time called?

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Asthma

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Emphysema

94.

What is the inherited disorder of exocrine glands resulting in thick mucinous secretions in the respiratory tract that do not drain normally called?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Emphysema

95.

What is the collapsed lung; incomplete expansion of alveoli called?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Emphysema

d)

Bronchitis

96.

What is the hyperinflation of air sacs with destruction of alveolar walls called?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis

97.

What is the malignant tumor arising from the lungs and bronchi called?

a)

Lung cancer

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Tuberculosis

98.

What is the abnormal lung condition caused by exposure to certain dusts; with chronic inflammation, infection, and bronchitis called?

a)

Pneumoconiosis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Asthma

d)

Tuberculosis

99.

(Acute inflammation and infection of alveoli, which fills with pus or products of the inflammatory reaction) ________

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Emphysema

100.

(Large collection of pus in the lungs) ________

a)

Pulmonary abscess

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis