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raul exam 3- practice 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A postpartum client with a history of DVT should avoid which contraceptive method?

a)

Copper IUD

b)

Hormonal birth control

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Condoms

2.

Which of the following are signs of pulmonary embolism?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Low O₂ saturation

c)

Chest pain

d)

Productive cough

e)

Bradycardia

3.

What is the best intervention to prevent DVT/PE postpartum?

a)

Leg massage

b)

Early and frequent ambulation

c)

Compression bandages only

d)

Strict bedrest

4.

What is used after a C-section until the client is ambulatory?

a)

TED hose

b)

Sequential Compression Devices (SCDs)

c)

Ice packs

d)

Pneumatic boots

5.

DIC stands for:

a)

Disseminated Ischemic Collapse

b)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

c)

Disseminated Intracardiac Coagulation

d)

Diffuse Internal Collapse

6.

Which are findings of DIC?

a)

Oozing from IV/laceration/uterus

b)

Lab value changes

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Increased urine output

e)

Petechiae only

7.

What is a priority intervention for DIC?

a)

Administer antihypertensives

b)

Prepare for ICU care and blood products

c)

Give diuretics

d)

Restrict fluids

8.

Early sign of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH):

a)

Soaking a pad in 15 minutes

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Dizziness

9.

Late sign of PPH:

a)

Uterine firmness

b)

Hypotension and tachycardia

c)

Nausea

d)

Headache

10.

Causes of postpartum hemorrhage include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Tone (uterine atony)

b)

Trauma

c)

Tissue retention

d)

Thrombin disorders

e)

Hypoglycemia

11.

If the uterus is boggy, what is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Call provider

b)

Massage uterus until firm

c)

Administer oxytocin

d)

Apply ice

12.

If the uterus is firm but bleeding persists, the nurse suspects:

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Cervical or vaginal laceration

c)

Retained placenta

d)

DIC

13.

Which medications treat postpartum hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Methylergonovine

c)

Carboprost

d)

Misoprostol

e)

Tranexamic acid (TXA)

14.

Carboprost is contraindicated in clients with:

a)

Diabetes

b)

Asthma

c)

Renal failure

d)

Anemia

15.

Misoprostol is contraindicated in:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Asthma

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypocalcemia

16.

What is uterine atony?

a)

Firm, contracted uterus

b)

Soft, boggy, poorly contracted uterus

c)

Excessively painful uterus

d)

Rigid uterus

17.

What can cause uterine distension and atony?

a)

Macrosomia

b)

Multifetal gestation

c)

Short labor

d)

Hypovolemia

18.

Subinvolution of the uterus results in:

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Prolonged enlargement and lochia discharge

c)

No lochia

d)

Painful contractions

19.

Normal postpartum uterine descent is approximately:

a)

2 fingerbreadths per day

b)

1 fingerbreadth per day

c)

3 cm per hour

d)

None

20.

A nurse assessing a firm uterus but ongoing bleeding should suspect:

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Laceration or hematoma

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Endometritis

21.

Which interventions are appropriate for perineal laceration care? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Use peri bottle

b)

Blot instead of wipe

c)

Frequent pad changes

d)

Use scented soaps

e)

Avoid stool softeners

22.

Signs of perineal hematoma include:

a)

Bulging perineum

b)

Tenderness

c)

Ecchymosis

d)

Firm uterus

e)

Hematuria

23.

Which antibiotics are expected for endometritis?

a)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Diuretics

c)

Steroids

d)

Anticoagulants

24.

Signs of mastitis include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

A. Unilateral breast pain

b)

B. Red streaks

c)

C. Fever

d)

D. Malaise

e)

E. Bilateral swelling

25.

Teaching for mastitis should include:

a)

Stop breastfeeding immediately

b)

Continue emptying breasts by nursing or pumping

c)

Apply cold compress only

d)

Use tight bras continuously

26.

What two medications are typically prescribed for mastitis?

a)

Diuretics and NSAIDs

b)

Antibiotics and Ibuprofen/Tylenol

c)

Estrogen and progesterone

d)

Antifungals and steroids

27.

Which client is most at risk for pulmonary edema?

a)

A. A client with anemia

b)

B. A client on prolonged bed rest

c)

C. A client with dehydration

d)

D. A client with episiotomy

28.

For a mother with prolonged rupture of membranes, what is the nursing priority?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Assess vital signs every 15 min × 1 hr, then every 30 min × 1 hr

c)

Ambulate hourly

d)

Delay antibiotic therapy

29.

Nursing interventions for a postpartum UTI include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Perineal care

b)

Frequent pad changes

c)

Remove Foley ASAP

d)

Apply ice packs to abdomen

e)

Restrict fluids

30.

When educating a breastfeeding mother, the nurse should emphasize:

a)

Avoid alcohol, substance use, unsafe medications

b)

Restrict calories to lose weight

c)

Avoid water intake

d)

Limit feedings to 3 times daily

31.

Engorgement is described as:

a)

Firm and unilateral breast

b)

Bilateral, hard, tender breasts

c)

Mild discomfort with nursing

d)

One red streak

32.

Nursing interventions for engorgement include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Warm compress

b)

Well-fitted support bra

c)

Frequent nursing

d)

Ice packs only

e)

Stop feeding on painful side

33.

Mothers who breastfeed should increase:

a)

Iron intake only

b)

Fluids and ~500 extra calories per day

c)

Sodium intake

d)

Protein restriction

34.

The key difference between postpartum blues and depression is:

a)

A. Blues involve psychosis

b)

B. Blues are short-term mood swings; depression involves persistent symptoms and possible harm thoughts

c)

C. Depression resolves within a week

d)

D. Blues occur months after delivery

35.

Risk factors for postpartum depression include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

A. History of mental illness

b)

B. Lack of support system

c)

C. Multiparity

d)

D. Adequate rest

36.

What should the nurse ask a client with suspected postpartum depression?

a)

Do you feel tired?

b)

Have you had thoughts of harming yourself or your baby?

c)

Do you have visitors?

d)

Are you eating enough?

37.

Nursing intervention for postpartum psychosis:

a)

Do not leave the mother alone

b)

Supervise infant care

c)

Encourage sleep deprivation

d)

Avoid all visitors

38.

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is contraindicated in clients with:

a)

Asthma

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Anemia

39.

Carboprost is contraindicated in clients with:

a)

Asthma and Hypertension

b)

Seizure disorder

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

GERD

40.

The therapeutic intent of terbutaline is to:

a)

Increase uterine contractions

b)

Relax the uterus before replacement/repositioning

c)

Promote lactation

d)

Increase uterine tone

41.

Streptokinase is classified as a:

a)

Anticoagulant

b)

Clot buster (thrombolytic)

c)

Clot promoter

d)

Vasodilator

42.

Oxytocin’s therapeutic intent is to:

a)

Relax the uterus

b)

Promote uterine contraction and expel placental fragments

c)

Decrease uterine tone

d)

Promote lactation

43.

Misoprostol’s therapeutic intent is to:

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Control postpartum hemorrhage

c)

Relieve pain

d)

Induce relaxation

44.

Tranexamic acid (TXA) is used to:

a)

Dissolve clots

b)

Promote clotting and reduce bleeding

c)

Lower blood pressure

d)

Relax smooth muscle

45.

Expected findings after PPH medications include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Decreased bleeding

b)

Firm uterus

c)

Hypertension

d)

Fever

46.

The purpose of RhoGAM is to:

a)

Prevent Rh-negative mother from forming antibodies to Rh-positive blood

b)

Treat anemia

c)

Promote uterine involution

d)

Reduce milk production

47.

What should the client do before a uterine assessment?

a)

Void to empty bladder

b)

Take pain medication

c)

Eat a meal

d)

Perform Kegels

48.

Diastasis recti refers to:

a)

Separation of rectus abdominis muscles along midline

b)

Perineal tearing

c)

Uterine prolapse

d)

Pelvic fracture

49.

When the uterus is displaced laterally, the nurse should:

a)

Massage the fundus vigorously

b)

Have the client void and reassess

c)

Call the provider immediately

d)

Administer oxytocin

50.

A postpartum client feels lightheaded upon standing. The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Encourage the client to rise slowly and sit if feeling dizzy.

b)

Instruct the client to ignore the symptoms and continue standing.

c)

Advise the client to increase fluid intake only when feeling lightheaded.

d)

Tell the client to avoid moving for several hours after delivery.

51.

Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for a postpartum client?

a)

Monitor vital signs and bleeding

b)

Assist client to bathroom for first voids

c)

Allow client to ambulate alone

d)

Restrict fluids

52.

Which clients are at risk for respiratory complications postpartum?

a)

Clients receiving oxytocin

b)

Clients with multiple births

c)

Clients on bedrest

d)

Clients with preeclampsia

e)

Clients with anemia only

53.

The “Taking-in” phase occurs when?

a)

During pregnancy

b)

First 24–48 hours postpartum

c)

One week after birth

d)

After milk production starts

54.

The “Taking-hold” phase is characterized by:

a)

Transition between dependent and independent behaviors

b)

Total dependence on nurses

c)

Detachment from baby

d)

Lack of confidence

55.

The “Letting-go” phase represents:

a)

Grieving process

b)

Acceptance of the new maternal role

c)

Rejection of infant

d)

Emotional withdrawal

56.

Research shows lesbian parents report:

a)

More parental stress

b)

Less parental stress than heterosexual couples

c)

Equal stress levels

d)

Higher anxiety

57.

Involving fathers in prenatal care increases:

a)

Anxiety levels

b)

Postpartum involvement and bonding

c)

Maternal stress

d)

Paternal jealousy

58.

Which nursing action promotes sibling adjustment to a new baby?

a)

Ignore siblings to avoid jealousy

b)

Include siblings in prenatal and hospital experiences

c)

Have siblings stay with grandparents

d)

Avoid discussing the baby

59.

Siblings can adjust better if parents: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Encourage them to feel baby move

b)

Give a small gift from the baby

c)

Read or play with them individually

d)

Avoid talking about the infant

e)

Keep them away from the hospital

60.

Dysfunctional family adjustment may include:

a)

Disinterest in learning

b)

Feelings of inadequacy

c)

Anxiety about infant care

d)

Overconfidence

e)

Calm acceptance

61.

If a parent expresses feeling inadequate, the nurse should respond:

a)

“Don’t worry, you’ll be fine.”

b)

“Tell me more about what makes you feel that way.”

c)

“You’re just tired.”

d)

“Ignore those thoughts.”

62.

Nursing considerations for NICU parents include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Encourage pumping

b)

Support bonding

c)

Include parents in infant care

d)

Restrict visits

e)

Avoid emotional discussion

63.

The nurse should call the provider if postpartum bleeding is described as:

a)

Small clots

b)

Soaking a pad in 1 hour or less with clots larger than an egg

c)

Spotting only

d)

Rubra changing to serosa

64.

Normal lochia progression is:

a)

Rubra → Serosa → Alba

b)

Serosa → Rubra → Alba

c)

Alba → Serosa → Rubra

65.

The nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider if:

a)

Fever >100.4°F

b)

Increasing pelvic/perineal pain

c)

Foul-smelling lochia

d)

Red, painful breast area

e)

Lochia turns pink

66.

Interventions for engorgement include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Warm compress

b)

Supportive bra

c)

Frequent feeding

d)

Avoid pumping

e)

Limit fluid intake

67.

Signs of preeclampsia include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Vision changes

b)

Persistent headache

c)

Right upper quadrant pain

d)

Low blood pressure

e)

Tachycardia only

68.

Postpartum mothers should be encouraged to sleep:

a)

When the baby sleeps

b)

Only at night

c)

Whenever possible after chores

d)

After 6 hours of wakefulness

69.

Intercourse can safely resume when:

a)

Bleeding stops

b)

Perineum healed

c)

Mother feels ready physically and emotionally

d)

After 1 week

e)

Lochia rubra is still present

70.

When can light exercise resume postpartum?

a)

After 6 months

b)

Walking by 2 weeks, gradually increasing activity

c)

Immediately after discharge

d)

Not until 12 weeks

71.

Regarding postpartum infection prevention, the nurse should instruct:

4 lines
72.

Complete the full course of medications

a)

Complete the full course of medications

b)

Stop meds once symptoms improve

c)

Use tampons

73.

“NFP” and “BBT” stand for:

a)

Natural Family Planning; Basal Body Temperature

b)

Normal Fetal Pressure; Body Balance Therapy

c)

Natural Fertility Practice; Bacterial Blood Test

d)

None

74.

When using BBT, the temperature should be taken:

a)

Before getting out of bed in the morning

b)

Before going to bed

c)

Randomly throughout the day

d)

After exercise

75.

Male condoms provide: (Select all that apply.)

a)

STI protection

b)

Pregnancy prevention

c)

No hormonal effects

d)

Single-use only

e)

Compatibility with oil-based lubricants

76.

The diaphragm requires:

a)

Prescription and fitting

b)

Daily use without removal

c)

Over-the-counter access

d)

No refitting after childbirth

77.

IUDs are characterized by:

a)

Can be placed before discharge

b)

Can contain copper or progestin

c)

Last 3–10 years depending on type

d)

No STI protection

e)

Causes infertility permanently

78.

Which sterilization methods are considered permanent?

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Tubal ligation

c)

Sterilization implant

d)

Diaphragm

e)

Cervical cap

79.

What should the nurse do if the uterus is firm but there is continued trickling of blood?

4 lines
80.

A postpartum client's uterus remains boggy and deviated to the right. The nurse should:

a)

Have the client void

b)

Apply ice

c)

Give an analgesic

d)

Notify the provider immediately

81.

What is the main cause of early postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Cervical lacerations

b)

Retained placenta

c)

Uterine atony

d)

Uterine rupture

82.

What finding suggests retained placental fragments?

a)

Bleeding with clots

b)

Subinvolution

c)

Poor milk supply

d)

High blood pressure

e)

Tachycardia only

83.

When examining expelled clots, the nurse should:

a)

Inspect for tissue fragments

b)

Discard immediately

c)

Freeze for pathology

d)

Flush

84.

What is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Subinvolution

c)

DIC

d)

Preeclampsia

85.

For bowel management after perineal laceration repair, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Administer stool softeners

b)

Teach perineal support (splinting)

c)

Encourage straining

d)

Avoid fluids

e)

Restrict fiber

86.

Which non-pharmacologic measures help with perineal discomfort? (Select all that apply.)

(a)  

87.

When a postpartum client is bleeding despite a firm uterus, the nurse should:

a)

Inspect for cervical or vaginal laceration

b)

Give oxytocin

c)

Check for retained placenta

88.

Which of the following is recommended for postpartum perineal care?

a)

Ice packs

b)

Witch hazel pads

c)

Tight clothing

d)

Heat lamps

89.

For topical relief of perineal pain, which medication is typical?

a)

Topical anesthetic spray or cream

b)

Antibiotic ointment

c)

Steroid cream

d)

Aloe gel

90.

Which of the following is not a cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

A. Infection

b)

B. Tone

c)

C. Trauma

d)

D. Thrombin disorder

91.

The “4 Ts” of postpartum hemorrhage are:

a)

Tone, Tissue, Trauma, Thrombin

b)

Tone, Tears, Toxins, Temperature

c)

Time, Trauma, Thrombosis, Tissue

d)

Thrombus, Tone, Tear, Toxemia

92.

A client with endometritis reports foul-smelling lochia. The nurse should:

a)

Apply cold compress

b)

Notify provider and anticipate antibiotics

c)

Continue perineal care only

d)

Massage uterus

93.

The nurse should ensure mothers with endometritis:

a)

Stop breastfeeding

b)

Continue pumping or nursing to prevent mastitis

c)

Avoid fluid intake

d)

Use constrictive bras

94.

Which of the following signs indicate mastitis rather than engorgement?

a)

A. Unilateral pain, fever, red streaks

b)

B. Bilateral fullness

c)

C. Symmetrical firmness

d)

D. Leaking only

95.

For clients with mastitis, education should include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Continue breastfeeding or pumping

b)

Take antibiotics as prescribed

c)

Avoid sudden weaning

96.

What are appropriate medications for mastitis?

a)

Antibiotics and NSAIDs

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Antivirals

97.

Which condition involves abnormal widespread clotting and bleeding?

a)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

b)

Endometritis

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Mastitis

98.

What is the first nursing intervention when DIC is suspected?

a)

Notify provider and prepare for ICU transfer

b)

Give diuretics

c)

Start anticoagulants

d)

Encourage fluids

99.

Clients with a history of DVT should avoid:

a)

Copper IUD

b)

Hormonal contraception

c)

Condoms

d)

Diaphragm

100.

Which intervention best prevents DVT in postpartum clients?

a)

Early ambulation

b)

Strict bed rest

c)

Leg massage

d)

Fluid restriction