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MT Exam Review: Muscular System Terminology and Pathology

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 6hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which suffix best indicates surgical suturing of a muscle or tendon?

a)

-rrhaphy indicates surgical suturing

b)

-otomy indicates surgical suturing

c)

-lysis indicates surgical suturing

d)

-plasty indicates surgical suturing

2.

A patient with muscle weakness that worsens with activity is being evaluated. Which diagnostic test from the list is most appropriate to assess electrical activity in muscles?

a)

Blood CK levels for electrical activity

b)

MRI scan for electrical activity

c)

Muscle biopsy for electrical activity

d)

Electromyography (EMG) for electrical activity

3.

Which combining form refers specifically to muscle tissue?

a)

fasci/o

b)

fibr/o

c)

tendin/o

d)

my/o

4.

Which diagnostic procedure records electrical activity in skeletal muscle to assess neuromuscular function?

a)

Muscle biopsy under local

b)

Electromyography (EMG)

c)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

d)

Blood tests for CK levels

5.

Which term best describes abnormally slow movement with difficulty initiating voluntary muscle movements?

a)

Dystrophy involving progressive muscle wasting

b)

Rhabdomyolysis causing muscle fiber breakdown

c)

Myasthenia causing fluctuating muscle weakness

d)

Bradykinesia involving slow movement initiation

6.

A patient with Parkinson’s disease shows shuffling gait and decreased facial movement. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Bradykinesia linked to neurological disorders

b)

Myasthenia gravis autoimmune weakness

c)

Rhabdomyolysis after intense heat exposure

d)

Duchenne muscular dystrophy inheritance

7.

Myasthenia gravis most characteristically presents with which symptom pattern?

a)

Drooping eyelids and dysphagia improving with rest

b)

Constant tremor and slowed initiation of motion

c)

Dark urine with severe diffuse muscle pain

d)

Childhood-onset progressive calf pseudohypertrophy

8.

A teenager has progressive difficulty walking and respiratory decline. Which diagnosis fits best?

a)

Muscular dystrophy with progressive degeneration

b)

Bradykinesia due to Parkinsonian features

c)

Myasthenia gravis improving with rest

d)

Rhabdomyolysis after medication exposure

9.

Which condition is defined as inflammation of a tendon due to overuse injuries or repetitive strain?

a)

Tendinitis

b)

Fibromyalgia

c)

Strain injury

d)

Muscle cramp

10.

Strain is best described as which of the following?

a)

Overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon

b)

Inflammation of a joint capsule lining

c)

Rupture of a blood vessel near muscle

d)

Partial dislocation of a joint structure

11.

Which common cause is MOST associated with recurring muscle cramps during athletic practice on a hot day?

a)

Dehydration leading to electrolyte loss

b)

Viral infection of muscle tissue

c)

Autoimmune attack on tendons

d)

Congenital neck muscle anomaly

12.

Which condition involves permanent tightening of a muscle, tendon, or ligament that restricts joint movement?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Tendinitis

c)

Strain

d)

Contractures

13.

Which term best defines myorrhexis?

a)

Pain originating from muscle tissue

b)

Inflammation of the muscle fascia

c)

Degeneration of motor neurons

d)

Rupture or tearing of a muscle

14.

A basketball player feels a sudden pop and severe pain after overstretching the quadriceps. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Myorrhexis due to excessive force

b)

Tendinitis from chronic overuse

c)

Myositis from bacterial infection

d)

Neuropathy from nerve compression

15.

Which scenario is a common cause of compartment syndrome?

a)

Autoimmune attack on myelin

b)

Viral infection causing myositis

c)

Crushing injury leading to swelling

d)

Simple muscle cramp after exercise

16.

Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to visualize a suspected rotator cuff tear?

a)

EMG to record motor unit spikes

b)

MRI to show soft tissues clearly

c)

Muscle biopsy to assess cells

d)

X-ray to evaluate bone density

17.

Which best describes the role of creatine kinase (CK) in clinical testing?

a)

A hormone regulating calcium in bone tissue

b)

An enzyme producing ATP in muscle tissues

c)

A protein transporting oxygen in red cells

d)

A lipid storing energy in adipose tissue

18.

What does the suffix -tomy most accurately mean in medical terminology?

a)

Cutting into a structure

b)

Suturing a structure

c)

Viewing inside a structure

d)

Reshaping a structure

19.

Tenorrhaphy is best defined as which procedure?

a)

Cutting fascia to decompress

b)

Suturing a torn tendon

c)

Repairing a muscle belly

d)

Loosening a stiff tendon

20.

In the term tenorrhaphy, what does the combining form ten/o specifically refer to?

a)

Cartilage at a joint

b)

Muscle of the thigh

c)

Tendon within the limb

d)

Fascia around muscle

21.

Thermogenesis in the muscular system is best defined as

a)

Heat production from ATP usage

b)

Energy storage within adipose tissue

c)

Cooling of blood via sweating

d)

Conversion of lactic acid to ATP

22.

A patient with weak intercostal muscles would most likely have difficulty with

a)

Producing joint stability

b)

Protecting abdominal viscera

c)

Maintaining body temperature

d)

Breathing and effective respiration

23.

Muscles can only ____, not ____.

a)

rotate; push

b)

push; pull

c)

pull; push

d)

stretch; pull

24.

Rotating the forearm so the palm faces downward is termed what?

a)

Pronation of the forearm

b)

Supination of the forearm

c)

Inversion at the ankle

d)

Dorsiflexion at the ankle

25.

Which scenario illustrates mandibular retraction?

a)

Pulling the chin backward

b)

Pushing the chin forward

c)

Opening the mouth wide

d)

Clenching the teeth hard

26.

Which pair correctly matches structure and movement example?

a)

Scapula—shrugging is depression

b)

Mandible—biting down is elevation

c)

Mandible—opening mouth is elevation

d)

Scapula—shrugging is retraction

27.

Which muscle primarily raises the eyebrows and wrinkles the forehead?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Deltoid

c)

Temporalis

d)

Frontalis

28.

Which muscle elevates and retracts the mandible during chewing?

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Frontalis

d)

Temporalis

29.

The flexor carpi muscle group primarily produces which action at the wrist?

a)

Wrist pronation and finger flexion

b)

Wrist supination and finger extension

c)

Wrist extension and hand abduction

d)

Wrist flexion and hand flexion

30.

Which function is shared by all three named hamstring muscles?

a)

Knee extension

b)

Hip abduction

c)

Foot inversion

d)

Knee flexion

31.

Which sequence correctly lists skeletal muscle organization from largest to smallest structure?

a)

Muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomere

b)

Muscle, muscle fiber, fascicle, myofibril, sarcomere

c)

Muscle fiber, muscle, fascicle, sarcomere, myofibril

d)

Fascicle, muscle, muscle fiber, sarcomere, myofibril

32.

Which connective tissue layer surrounds fascicles within a muscle?

a)

Perimysium

b)

Peritoneum

c)

Endomysium

d)

Epimysium

33.

Which intramuscular injection site is commonly used for vaccines due to easy access?

a)

Deltoid muscle of upper arm

b)

Dorsogluteal region of buttock

c)

Vastus medialis of inner thigh

d)

Rectus femoris of anterior thigh

34.

Which site is preferred for infants because it is a large muscle on the outside of the upper thigh?

a)

Ventrogluteal site of hip

b)

Deltoid muscle of shoulder

c)

Dorsogluteal site of buttock

d)

Vastus lateralis of lateral thigh

35.

Which provider most often coordinates long‑term prevention strategies for sports‑related injuries across a team?

a)

Occupational therapist (OT)

b)

Orthopedic surgeon

c)

Sports medicine physician

d)

Athletic trainer (AT)

e)

Physical therapist (DPT)

36.

Which professional primarily uses hands-on techniques to relax muscles, reduce pain, and improve circulation and wellness?

a)

Neurologist treating nervous system diseases

b)

Chiropractor adjusting spine and joints

c)

Massage therapist applying manual techniques

d)

Physiatrist directing rehabilitation programs

37.

A patient with chronic low back pain seeks non-surgical care focused on manual spine adjustments. Which provider is the best first referral?

a)

Physiatrist for rehabilitation oversight

b)

Massage therapist for relaxation sessions

c)

Chiropractor for spinal manipulation

d)

Neurologist for nerve conduction studies

38.

What does the prefix "bi-" mean in medical terminology?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Slow

d)

Difficult

39.

Which prefix means "slow"?

a)

tri-

b)

brady-

c)

dys-

d)

bi-

40.

What is the meaning of the prefix "dys-"?

a)

Fast

b)

Difficult, painful, bad

c)

Two

d)

Coordination

41.

The prefix "tri-" refers to:

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Slow

d)

Muscle

42.

What does the root "fascio" refer to?

a)

Muscle

b)

Fascia (fibrous band)

c)

Movement

d)

Tendon

43.

The root "fibro" means:

a)

Fibrous tissue

b)

Coordination

c)

Tone

d)

Hernia

44.

What is the meaning of the root "kinesio"?

a)

Muscle

b)

Movement

c)

Tension

d)

Rupture

45.

What is the meaning of the suffix "-lysis"?

a)

Destruction, breakdown, loosening

b)

Suturing

c)

Paralysis

d)

Coordination

46.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -ia mean?

a)

Condition

b)

Inflammation

c)

Surgical repair

d)

Pain

47.

In medical terminology, what does the combining form rhabdomy/o mean?

a)

Rod-shaped, striated muscle (skeletal muscle)

b)

Smooth muscle of organs

c)

Muscle pain

d)

Muscle weakness

48.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -asthenia mean?

a)

Weakness

b)

Pain

c)

Cutting into

d)

Inflammation

49.

In medical terminology, what does the combining form troph/o mean?

a)

Development or nourishment

b)

Surgical repair

c)

Rupture

d)

Neck

50.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -itis mean?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Pain

c)

Rupture

d)

Suturing

51.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -algia mean?

a)

Pain

b)

Weakness

c)

Process of recording

d)

Surgical repair

52.

In medical terminology, what do tortus or tort/i mean?

a)

Twisted

b)

Straight

c)

Rapid

d)

Short

53.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -rrhexis mean?

a)

Rupture

b)

Suturing

c)

Inflammation

d)

Nourishment

54.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -otomy mean?

a)

To cut into

b)

Surgical suturing

c)

Surgical repair

d)

Process of recording

55.

In medical terminology, what does the combining form electr/o mean?

a)

Electricity or electrical activity

b)

Muscle contraction

c)

Nerve pain

d)

Joint movement

56.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -graphy refer to?

a)

The process of recording

b)

Inflammation of a structure

c)

Suturing tissue

d)

Destruction of tissue

57.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -rrhaphy mean?

a)

Surgical suturing

b)

Rupture

c)

Weakness

d)

Cutting into

58.

In medical terminology, what does the suffix -plasty mean?

a)

Surgical repair

b)

Pain

c)

Inflammation

d)

Recording

59.

Which description best fits the condition Compartment syndrome as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Painful pressure buildup within a muscle compartment that impairs blood flow and tissue function

b)

Sudden involuntary contraction of a single muscle due to electrolyte imbalance

c)

Degenerative weakening of neuromuscular junction causing fatigable weakness

d)

Acute bacterial toxin–mediated paralysis with loss of acetylcholine release

60.

Which description best fits the condition Torticollis (“wry neck”) as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Involuntary contraction of neck muscles causing the head to tilt or rotate

b)

Autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors leading to fluctuating weakness

c)

Breakdown of skeletal muscle releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream

d)

Progressive genetic degeneration of skeletal muscles in childhood

61.

Which description best fits Contractures as they relate to the muscular system?

a)

Permanent shortening of muscle or connective tissue that limits joint motion

b)

Transient, painful spasm of a muscle due to overuse or dehydration

c)

Tearing of muscle fibers with acute pain and swelling

d)

Inflammation of the tendon sheath from repetitive strain

62.

Which description best fits Muscle Cramps as they relate to the muscular system?

a)

Sudden, involuntary, painful muscle contractions

b)

Chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain with fatigue

c)

Autoimmune neuromuscular disorder with fatigable weakness

d)

Bacterial toxin–induced sustained muscle rigidity

63.

Which description best fits Muscle Strain as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Overstretching or tearing of muscle or tendon fibers causing pain and swelling

b)

Localized inflammatory pressure in a fascial compartment

c)

Genetic disorder causing progressive muscle wasting

d)

Autoimmune disorder impairing neuromuscular transmission

64.

Which description best fits Fibromyalgia as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain with tenderness and fatigue

b)

Inflammation of a tendon due to overuse

c)

Painful muscle spasm from electrolyte imbalance

d)

Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle fibers

65.

Which description best fits Muscular Dystrophy (Duchenne MD) as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

X‑linked genetic disorder with progressive degeneration and weakness of skeletal muscles

b)

Autoimmune disorder impairing acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

c)

Painful pressure elevation within fascial compartments of limbs

d)

Breakdown of muscle releasing myoglobin and CK into circulation

66.

Which description best fits Rhabdomyolysis as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Acute breakdown of skeletal muscle with release of myoglobin that can cause kidney injury

b)

Inflammation of muscle fibers from autoimmune attack

c)

Fixed shortening of muscles limiting joint movement

d)

Neuromuscular junction failure producing fatigable weakness

67.

Which description best fits Tetanus as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Bacterial toxin causes sustained muscle rigidity and spasms

b)

Autoimmune blockade of neuromuscular transmission causing weakness

c)

Acute ischemic pressure injury within muscle compartments

d)

Genetic degeneration of motor neurons leading to weakness

68.

Which description best fits Botulism as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Clostridial toxin blocks acetylcholine release causing flaccid paralysis

b)

Sustained involuntary contractions resulting in rigid posture

c)

Immune-mediated inflammation of tendons and sheath

d)

Chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain with fatigue

69.

Which description best fits Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) as it relates to the muscular system?

a)

Genetic degeneration of anterior horn motor neurons causing progressive muscle weakness and atrophy

b)

X‑linked mutation causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle fibers

c)

Autoimmune attack at neuromuscular junction producing fatigable weakness

d)

Acute rhabdomyolysis from severe exertion with myoglobinuria

70.

Which description best fits Cerebral palsy (CP) as it relates to movement and muscles?

a)

Nonprogressive motor disorder from early brain injury causing abnormal muscle tone and movement

b)

Autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular junction causing episodic weakness

c)

Genetic defect of muscle protein causing progressive weakness

d)

Acute toxin-mediated blockade of neuromuscular transmission

71.

Muscular system diagnostic tests: How are blood tests measuring CK/CPK enzyme levels used in medical practice for patients?

a)

They screen for anemia to determine red blood cell counts.

b)

They indicate muscle fiber injury when levels are elevated, helping diagnose conditions like involving skeletal muscles, heart or brain injury

c)

They evaluate liver enzyme activity to assess hepatic function.

d)

They assess bone density to identify osteoporosis.

72.

Muscular system diagnostic tests: How is MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) used in medical practice for patients?

a)

It provides detailed images of soft tissues to identify muscle and tendon tears, inflammation, or edema.

b)

It measures electrical activity in skeletal muscles to detect neuropathies.

c)

It quantifies CK/CPK enzymes in blood to confirm muscle breakdown.

d)

It surgically removes scar tissue around tendons to improve motion.

73.

Muscular system diagnostic tests: How is a muscle biopsy used in medical practice for patients?

a)

It collects a tissue sample for microscopic examination to diagnose myopathies, dystrophies, or inflammation.

b)

It produces cross‑sectional images to visualize tendon injury without surgery.

c)

It sutures a torn tendon to restore continuity and strength.

d)

It measures nerve conduction velocity to detect peripheral neuropathy.

74.

Muscular system procedures: How is a fasciotomy used to help patient outcomes?

a)

By incising fascia to relieve elevated compartment pressure and restore perfusion.

b)

By suturing the ends of a torn tendon to re‑establish continuity.

c)

By freeing a tendon from adhesions to improve gliding motion.

d)

By reshaping a muscle belly for cosmetic enhancement.

75.

Muscular system procedures: How is a tenolysis used to help patient outcomes?

a)

By releasing adhesions around a tendon to restore smooth gliding and movement.

b)

By suturing a ruptured tendon to regain tensile strength.

c)

By excising tight fascia to reduce compartment pressures.

d)

By removing necrotic muscle to prevent infection spread.

76.

Muscular system procedures: How is a tenorrhaphy used to help patient outcomes?

a)

By cutting fascia to decompress a compartment and improve circulation.

b)

By surgically suturing a torn tendon to restore continuity and function.

c)

By releasing scar adhesions around a tendon to increase range of motion.

d)

By reconstructing a muscle using a transfer to augment strength.

77.

Muscular system procedures: How is a myoplasty used to help patient outcomes?

a)

By reconstructing or transferring muscle to repair defects and restore function.

b)

By removing an inflamed bursa to reduce pain and swelling.

c)

By cutting fascia to decrease intracompartmental pressure.

d)

By fusing a joint to eliminate motion and relieve pain.

78.

match

a)

rotation in which palm moves to face downward

1.

pronation

b)

rotation in which the palm moves to face upward

2.

supination

c)

movement away from the midline

3.

lateral

d)

movement toward the midline

4.

medial

e)

doing the "twist" with your foot

5.

rotation

79.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

pectoralis major

b)

biceps

c)

triceps

d)

deltoid

80.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

quadraceps

b)

hamsting

c)

rectus abdominals

d)

deltoid

81.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

transvers abdominals

b)

rectus abdominals

c)

external obliques

d)

internal obliques

82.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

pectorals

b)

deltoid

c)

trapezius

d)

latissimus dorsi

83.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

obliques

c)

rhomboids

d)

deltoid

84.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

rectus abdominals

b)

transverse abdominals

c)

external obliques

d)

internal obliques

85.

Name the highlighted mucles

a)

hamstring

b)

quadricep

c)

soleus

d)

gastrocnemius

86.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

tricpes

b)

biceps

c)

rectus femoris

d)

trapezius

87.

Name this muscle

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Quadricep

c)

Gluteus Maximus

d)

Hamstring

88.
a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Hamstring

c)

Quadricep

d)

External Oblique

89.
What connects the calf muscle to the heel?
a)
Achilles' tendon
b)
Gluteus maximus
c)
Gastrocnemius
d)
Trapezius
90.

Name this movement

a)

inversion

b)

eversion

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

91.

Name this movement

a)

adduction

b)

abduction

c)

inversion

d)

eversion

92.

Name this movement

a)

adduction

b)

abduction

c)

flexion

d)

extension

93.

Identify the joint action being performed.

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

Plantarflexion

d)

Dorsiflexion

94.

What movement is occurring here?

a)

Eversion

b)

Flexion

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

Plantarflexion

95.

Name this movement

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

96.

Deltoids get their name because of

a)

their location (bones near to it)

b)

their size

c)

their direction

d)

their number of origins

e)

their shape

97.

Triceps get their name because of

a)

their location (bones near to it)

b)

their size

c)

their direction

d)

their number of origins

e)

their shape

98.

Oblique muscle fibers run diagonal to the body midline is an example of how muscles get their name based on

a)

its location (bones near to it)

b)

its size

c)

its direction

d)

its number of origins

e)

its shape

99.
_______% of your body is weight coming from muscles.
a)
50
b)
40
c)
45
100.
Muscles work together in groups of ________
a)
2
b)
4
c)
3