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2205 Exam 3 pt.6

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client is 4 days postpartum and reports crying for “no reason,” mood swings, anxiety, and insomnia. Which condition best matches the chapter’s description?

a)

Postpartum depression

b)

Postpartum psychosis

c)

Postpartum blues

d)

Bipolar disorder

2.

A nurse is triaging postpartum mood concerns. Which symptom duration most strongly supports postpartum blues rather than postpartum depression?

a)

Symptoms resolve by day 10 without intervention

b)

Symptoms occur within 12 months of birth

c)

Symptoms begin within the first year postpartum

d)

Symptoms persist and do not resolve without intervention

3.

A client states, “I’ve been feeling down since delivery, but it’s only been 6 days.” Which nurse response best aligns with the chapter’s teaching about postpartum blues?

a)

“This always requires medication.”

b)

“These feelings are normal and usually self-limiting, but tell your provider if they persist.”

c)

“This is postpartum psychosis until proven otherwise.”

d)

“This is not related to postpartum changes.”

4.

A postpartum client is 2 weeks postpartum and suddenly begins hallucinating and acting paranoid. Which diagnosis is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Normal maternal adaptation

5.

A postpartum client with severe confusion, disorientation, and delusions is admitted. Which history most increases risk for this condition according to the chapter?

a)

Multiparity

b)

History of bipolar disorder

c)

Younger age

d)

Complications with breastfeeding

6.

A nurse assesses a postpartum client who reports persistent intense mood swings and sadness at 4 months postpartum. Which condition best fits the chapter definition?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Normal adjustment

7.

A client asks, “How common is postpartum blues?” Which response matches the chapter?

a)

About 8% to 20% of new parents.

b)

Up to 85% of clients in the first few days after birth.

c)

One in seven clients.

d)

It’s rare.

8.

A nurse is educating a postpartum group. Which statement accurately distinguishes postpartum blues from postpartum depression using the chapter’s wording?

a)

“Blues persist for 12 months without intervention.”

b)

“Depression resolves within 10 days without intervention.”

c)

“Blues typically resolve in 10 days without intervention, but depression usually does not resolve without intervention.”

d)

“Blues include delusions and hallucinations.”

9.

A client is postpartum day 8, not eating well, reports sadness, fatigue, and insomnia, but is still caring for the newborn. Which action best matches the nurse’s role per chapter guidance?

a)

Encourage the client to keep feelings private

b)

Reinforce that it can be normal and self-limiting and to notify the provider if it persists

c)

Tell the client symptoms confirm psychosis

d)

Discontinue all bonding activities until symptoms stop

10.

A nurse is reviewing “expected findings” for postpartum blues. Which finding is included?

a)

Delusions

b)

Paranoia

c)

Crying easily for no apparent reason

d)

Hallucinations

11.

A client is postpartum day 2 and reports restlessness, insomnia, fatigue, headache, and anxiety. Which is the best interpretation?

a)

Findings align with postpartum blues

b)

Findings confirm postpartum psychosis

c)

Findings are not mentioned in the chapter

d)

Findings confirm a thyroid imbalance diagnosis

12.

A client is 5 weeks postpartum and reports guilt, irritability, persistent sadness, and intense mood swings. Which condition most fits the chapter?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Typical postpartum recovery

13.

A nurse is screening a postpartum client for perinatal mood disorders. Which approach best aligns with the chapter?

a)

Screen only if the client requests help

b)

Ask questions addressing mood and anxiety throughout pregnancy and postpartum

c)

Screen only at delivery

d)

Screen only if bonding is absent

14.

A nurse is planning required reassessment timing for postpartum depression screening. Which schedule matches the chapter?

a)

Only at 6 months postpartum

b)

Before discharge and reassess at 4 weeks after birth

c)

Only at 12 months postpartum

d)

Only during pregnancy, not postpartum

15.

A postpartum client with suspected perinatal mood disorder is withdrawing and not responding to the newborn. Which nursing action is supported by the chapter?

a)

Avoid observing interactions to respect privacy

b)

Monitor interactions and encourage bonding activities

c)

Encourage separation to reduce stress

d)

Do not address mood unless suicidal thoughts are present

16.

A postpartum client states, “I’m scared I might hurt myself.” What is the nurse’s priority according to the chapter?

a)

Provide the client with community resource pamphlets

b)

Ask about self-harm, suicide, or harming the newborn and prioritize safety of client and newborn

c)

Encourage the client to sleep more

d)

Reassure the client that this is always self-limiting

17.

A nurse is caring for a client with postpartum psychosis. Which action is the priority in the chapter’s question?

a)

Reinforce taking antipsychotics as prescribed

b)

Ask if the client has thoughts of harming self or infant

c)

Monitor the infant for failure to thrive

d)

Review the record for bipolar disorder history

18.

A postpartum nurse receives report: client is disoriented, confused, paranoid, and has rapid mood swings. Which physical assessment finding listed best matches postpartum psychosis?

a)

Flat affect

b)

Weight loss

c)

Behaviors indicating hallucinations or delusional thoughts of harming self/newborn

d)

Lack of appetite

19.

A postpartum client reports intense anxiety and panic attacks along with persistent sadness and lack of appetite. Which condition is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Normal postpartum recovery

d)

Mastitis-related mood changes

20.

A nurse is identifying risk factors for postpartum mood disorders. Which factor is listed?

a)

Increased progesterone levels postpartum

b)

Rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels

c)

Increased insulinase postpartum

d)

Increased oxytocin levels postpartum

21.

A nurse is screening for postpartum depression risk. Which client factor from the chapter increases risk?

a)

Strong social support system

b)

Intended pregnancy

c)

History of previous depressive disorder

d)

Older age only

22.

A nurse assesses a client who reports low self-esteem and anxiety about the new parenting role. Which statement is accurate per the chapter?

a)

These are listed risk factors for perinatal mood disorders

b)

These are diagnostic findings of endometritis

c)

These are expected findings of mastitis

d)

These are unrelated to postpartum conditions

23.

A nurse reviews risk factors and notes the client has a history of partner violence and decreased social support. Which conclusion is supported by the chapter?

a)

These reduce risk for PMDs

b)

These are risk factors for PMDs

c)

These are findings of postpartum psychosis

d)

These indicate normal postpartum blues only

24.

A postpartum client with diabetes and thyroid imbalance asks if medical conditions can affect postpartum mood disorders. Which response is accurate per the chapter?

a)

Only socioeconomic factors matter

b)

Medical conditions including thyroid imbalance and diabetes are risk factors

c)

Medical conditions are not relevant postpartum

d)

Only breastfeeding complications matter

25.

A nurse is teaching a client about postpartum depression prevalence. Which statement matches the chapter?

a)

“It affects up to 85% of clients.”

b)

“It affects one in seven clients.”

c)

“It affects one in fifty clients.”

d)

“It affects only clients with bipolar disorder.”

26.

A nurse is explaining AWHONN guidance. Which statement is consistent with the chapter’s definition of perinatal mood disorders (PMDs)?

a)

PMDs only occur after delivery

b)

PMDs can occur any time during pregnancy and during the first year postpartum

c)

PMDs occur only in the first 10 days postpartum

d)

PMDs occur only in clients with unintended pregnancy

27.

A client asks what disorders are included under PMDs per the chapter. Which answer is correct?

a)

Endometritis, mastitis, UTI

b)

Depression, bipolar disorder, anxiety, postpartum psychosis

c)

DIC, DVT, pulmonary embolism

d)

Hemorrhage, uterine atony, subinvolution

28.

A nurse evaluates whether the newborn may be affected by a parent’s perinatal mood disorder. Which concern is explicitly stated in the chapter?

a)

Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

b)

Failure to thrive secondary to inability of the parent to provide care

c)

Congenital anomalies from postpartum blues

d)

Respiratory distress syndrome

29.

A client is postpartum day 9 with mood swings, crying, insomnia, and lack of appetite but denies thoughts of self-harm. Which nursing action best fits chapter guidance?

a)

Provide reassurance that it’s normal and self-limiting and to notify provider if it persists

b)

Discharge without education

c)

Diagnose postpartum psychosis immediately

d)

Focus only on newborn weight checks

30.

A nurse observes a postpartum client who is tearful and anxious but still engaging in newborn care. Which finding aligns most with postpartum blues from the chapter?

a)

Delusions

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Feeling of inadequacy with crying

d)

Disorientation

31.

A postpartum client is 3 weeks postpartum and becomes paranoid and disoriented. Which timing best matches the chapter’s onset window?

a)

Within the first few days only

b)

Within 12 months only

c)

Within the first 2 to 3 weeks postpartum

d)

Only after 6 months postpartum

32.

A nurse is teaching that postpartum depression usually does not resolve without intervention. Which client statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

“This should go away in 10 days without help.”

b)

“If it doesn’t resolve, I should notify my provider because I might need treatment.”

c)

“This is always normal and should be ignored.”

d)

“Only psychosis needs treatment.”

33.

A nurse is creating a discharge plan for a client at high risk for postpartum depression. Which action is supported by the chapter?

a)

Delay follow-up until the traditional postpartum visit only

b)

Contact a community resource to schedule a follow-up visit after discharge

c)

Avoid discussing mood concerns to prevent anxiety

d)

Encourage the client to isolate for rest

34.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge education for postpartum mood concerns. Which instruction is included under client education in the chapter?

a)

“Avoid naps to sleep better at night.”

b)

“Get plenty of rest and nap when the newborn sleeps.”

c)

“Do not use community resources.”

d)

“Avoid taking time out for yourself.”

35.

A nurse teaches a client at risk for postpartum depression to plan care after discharge. Which is specifically recommended?

a)

Wait for the traditional postpartum visit no matter what

b)

Schedule a follow-up visit prior to the traditional postpartum visit if at risk

c)

Avoid follow-up visits unless psychosis occurs

d)

Follow-up is only needed at 12 months

36.

A nurse is planning referrals. Which community resource is explicitly listed in the chapter as an example?

a)

AWHONN hotline only

b)

La Leche League

c)

Blood bank services

d)

Radiology center

37.

A nurse is discussing medication categories for postpartum psychosis. Which combination is listed?

a)

Antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, and mood stabilizers

b)

Oxytocics and antifibrinolytics

c)

Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

d)

Antacids and laxatives

38.

A postpartum client has postpartum depression symptoms and asks about medication. Which statement matches the chapter?

a)

Antidepressants can be prescribed by the provider if indicated

b)

Antidepressants are never used postpartum

c)

Only antibiotics are used postpartum mood disorders

d)

Antidepressants are used only for blues

39.

A nurse is differentiating postpartum depression vs psychosis. Which finding is listed for postpartum depression (not psychosis) in the chapter?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Delusions

c)

Flat affect

d)

Disorientation

40.

A postpartum client says, “I keep thinking my baby would be better without me.” Which manifestation from the chapter most directly triggers priority safety assessment?

a)

Lack of appetite

b)

Headache

c)

Thoughts of harming self or newborn

d)

Mood swings

41.

A nurse notes a client’s symptoms are “sadness, crying, insomnia” but only for 3 days postpartum. Which nursing interpretation is best?

a)

This is postpartum depression by definition

b)

This is postpartum blues pattern and can resolve by 10 days

c)

This is postpartum psychosis because crying is present

d)

This is unrelated to postpartum changes

42.

A nurse is teaching risk factor recognition. Which client situation is a risk factor listed in the chapter?

a)

Strong social support

b)

Intended pregnancy

c)

Complications with breastfeeding

d)

High self-esteem

43.

A nurse is assessing a client with persistent postpartum sadness and intense mood swings and notes weight loss and rejection of the newborn. Which condition best matches?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Normal postpartum fatigue

44.

A nurse is reviewing expected postpartum blues findings with a new nurse. Which cluster is correct per the chapter?

a)

Confusion, delusions, paranoia

b)

Mood swings, anxiety, crying, insomnia, lack of appetite

c)

Dyspnea, tachypnea, chest pain

d)

Uterine tenderness, malodorous lochia

45.

A nurse is providing patient-centered care to a postpartum client with mood concerns. Which nursing action is specifically supported by the chapter?

a)

Encourage the client to suppress feelings

b)

Encourage communication of feelings, validate conflicts, reinforce personal power and autonomy

c)

Discourage discussion of role changes

d)

Limit bonding to reduce stimulation

46.

A nurse is monitoring postpartum mental health and newborn wellbeing. Which monitoring pair is directly stated in the chapter?

a)

Monitor lochia and fundal height only

b)

Monitor suicidal/delusional thoughts and monitor the newborn for failure to thrive

c)

Monitor incision only and newborn temperature

d)

Monitor newborn feeding only and ignore parent affect

47.

A nurse is reviewing ACOG-related statements in the chapter. Which statement matches the text?

a)

ACOG says perinatal depression is rare

b)

ACOG identifies perinatal depression as one of the most common medical conditions during pregnancy and postpartum

c)

ACOG does not recommend screening

d)

ACOG limits screening to clients with psychosis

48.

A postpartum client asks, “Which condition lasts up to 10 days and resolves without intervention?” Which condition should the nurse name?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Bipolar disorder

49.

A postpartum client is 7 months postpartum with persistent sadness and intense mood swings. Which condition is most consistent with the chapter’s time frame?

a)

Postpartum blues

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Postpartum psychosis

d)

Normal postpartum adjustment

50.

A client at 41 weeks gestation is prescribed oxytocin for induction. Which nursing action is essential to ensure safe medication administration?

a)

Give oxytocin IM to start labor faster

b)

Use an infusion pump for IV oxytocin administration

c)

Warm dinoprostone gel using an external heat source before starting oxytocin

d)

Encourage the client to lie flat supine without a lateral tilt throughout infusion

51.

A nurse is titrating oxytocin during the first stage of labor. Which contraction pattern best reflects the chapter’s stated goal?

a)

Contractions lasting 90 seconds every 1 minute

b)

Contractions lasting 45 to 60 seconds or less every 2 to 3 minutes

c)

Contractions lasting 30 seconds every 5 minutes

d)

Contractions lasting 60 to 90 seconds every 4 to 5 minutes

52.

A nurse notes more than five uterine contractions in 10 minutes in a client receiving oxytocin. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Water intoxication

b)

Uterine tachysystole

c)

Hypertensive crisis

d)

Venous thrombosis

53.

A client receiving oxytocin suddenly reports confusion and headache. The nurse also notes listlessness. Which complication is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Water intoxication with electrolyte imbalance

c)

Pulmonary edema from terbutaline

d)

Gastric irritation from indomethacin

54.

A nurse is monitoring a client on oxytocin and wants to follow the chapter’s vital sign guidance. How often should blood pressure, respiratory rate, and pulse be monitored?

a)

Every 5 minutes continuously throughout labor

b)

Every 2 hours unless contractions change

c)

Every 30 to 60 minutes and with every dosage change

d)

Only at baseline and after delivery

55.

A nurse is evaluating a fetal heart rate tracing while oxytocin is infusing. Which nursing priority is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Discontinue fetal monitoring once the client reaches 4 cm

b)

Continuously monitor fetal heart rate and rhythm and report fetal distress

56.

A client has a scheduled cesarean section but the provider writes an order for oxytocin induction. Which action should the nurse take based on the chapter’s precautions?

a)

Administer oxytocin and reassess in 2 hours

b)

Question the order due to oxytocin precautions with scheduled cesarean section

c)

Give dinoprostone instead without notifying the provider

d)

Start terbutaline to prevent tachysystole

57.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s history before starting oxytocin. Which maternal factor is listed as a contraindication/precaution in the chapter?

a)

History of multiple births

b)

Mild nausea

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Prior varicella vaccination

58.

A client in labor has active genital herpes. A prescription is written for oxytocin induction. What is the best nurse response based on the chapter?

a)

Start oxytocin at the highest dose to shorten labor

b)

Start oxytocin only after giving nifedipine

c)

Recognize active genital herpes as a maternal contraindication/precaution and question the order

d)

Substitute misoprostol for oxytocin without provider input

59.

A client’s fetus is documented as having a prolapsed umbilical cord. Which uterine stimulant is contraindicated per the chapter’s fetal factors list for oxytocin?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Hydroxyprogesterone caproate

c)

Betamethasone

d)

Naloxone

60.

A nurse is preparing dinoprostone gel for cervical ripening. Which step follows the chapter’s nursing administration instructions?

a)

Warm the gel using an external warming device

b)

Cool the gel in ice water to reduce tachysystole risk

c)

Allow dinoprostone gel to warm to room temperature without external warming

d)

Shake the gel vigorously immediately before insertion

61.

A client receives a dinoprostone vaginal insert. Which instruction should the nurse give per the chapter?

a)

Ambulate for 2 hours after insertion

b)

Remain in position for 2 hours following administration

c)

Remain in position for 30 to 40 minutes only

d)

Sit upright in a chair for 1 hour to improve circulation

62.

A nurse administers misoprostol for cervical ripening. Which action is required immediately after administration based on the chapter?

a)

Keep the client in position for 30 to 40 minutes

b)

Encourage immediate showering for comfort

c)

Place the client in Trendelenburg

d)

Begin oral nifedipine every 3 hours

63.

A client receiving dinoprostone develops vomiting and diarrhea. Which complication does the nurse recognize as listed in the chapter?

a)

Hypertensive crisis

b)

Gastrointestinal reactions

c)

Venous thrombosis

d)

Respiratory depression

64.

A nurse is monitoring a client who received misoprostol. Which complication is specifically listed for misoprostol in the chapter?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Non-reassuring fetal heart rate

c)

Severe hypertension after vasopressors

d)

Partial closure of ductus arteriosus

65.

A provider prescribes misoprostol for a client with a prior uterine surgery. Which nursing action is most appropriate based on the chapter?

a)

Administer misoprostol and monitor intake and output only

b)

Recognize previous uterine surgery as a contraindication and question the order

c)

Replace misoprostol with carboprost automatically

d)

Give hydroxyprogesterone caproate instead

66.

A client with postpartum hemorrhage is prescribed methylergonovine maleate. Which complication must the nurse monitor for per the chapter?

a)

Hypertensive crisis

b)

Water intoxication

c)

Venous thrombosis

d)

Respiratory depression

67.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with preeclampsia. The provider orders methylergonovine for hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse take based on the chapter?

a)

Administer the medication only after breastfeeding

b)

Question the order due to contraindication/precaution with hypertension/preeclampsia

c)

Give the medication IV routinely after placenta delivery

d)

Substitute oxytocin with no further steps

68.

A nurse prepares to administer methylergonovine for uterine involution after placenta passage. Which route is appropriate per the chapter?

a)

IM after passage of placenta

b)

Oral immediately before delivery

c)

IV routinely to prevent nausea

d)

Subcutaneous every 15 minutes

69.

A breastfeeding client is prescribed methylergonovine. Based on the chapter, what instruction is correct?

a)

Breastfeeding is encouraged during therapy without restriction

b)

The medication is contraindicated for breastfeeding; breastfeeding may resume 12 hr following last dose

c)

Breastfeeding must be permanently stopped

d)

Pump and discard milk for 7 days minimum

70.

A client with serious postpartum hemorrhage is prescribed carboprost tromethamine. Which adverse effect should the nurse anticipate as most common per the chapter?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Vision loss

d)

Hypocalcemia

71.

A nurse administers carboprost and the client reports nausea and vomiting. Which nursing action is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Encourage grapefruit juice intake to stabilize blood pressure

b)

Administer an antiemetic or antidiarrheal medication as needed

c)

Discontinue fetal heart monitoring immediately

d)

Restrict oral intake to 500 mL/day

72.

A provider orders carboprost for a client with a history of respiratory problems. Which concern should the nurse prioritize based on the chapter?

a)

Carboprost can constrict bronchi; monitor for respiratory problems

b)

Carboprost increases risk for water intoxication

c)

Carboprost is contraindicated only for kidney failure

d)

Carboprost must be given PO with food

73.

A postpartum client experiencing serious hemorrhage is prescribed tranexamic acid. According to the chapter, when is administration recommended?

a)

Only after 24 hours postpartum

b)

Within 3 hours of birth

c)

Only after cesarean deliveries

d)

Only after dinoprostone fails

74.

A nurse is educating a client receiving tranexamic acid. Which complication is listed in the chapter that the nurse should monitor for?

a)

Thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism

b)

Water intoxication with hyponatremia

c)

Symptomatic bradycardia requiring pacing

d)

Uterine atony leading to increased bleeding

75.

A client receiving tranexamic acid reports sudden changes in vision. Which action is most aligned with the chapter?

a)

Ignore because headache is expected

b)

Monitor for arterial thrombosis (retina) by assessing vision changes

c)

Administer naloxone

d)

Start nifedipine immediately

76.

A nurse reviews a medication profile for a client planned for tranexamic acid therapy. Which finding is a contraindication per the chapter?

a)

History of thrombosis

b)

History of nausea

c)

History of anemia

d)

History of constipation

77.

A client taking oral contraceptives is prescribed tranexamic acid. Which nursing action is most appropriate based on the chapter?

a)

Administer as ordered; oral contraceptives decrease bleeding risk

b)

Recognize tranexamic acid is contraindicated for clients who take oral contraceptives and question the order

c)

Reduce oxytocin dose and proceed with tranexamic acid

d)

Substitute nalbuphine for tranexamic acid

78.

A client is receiving oxytocin and then requires a vasopressor. What complication does the chapter warn can occur if oxytocin follows vasopressors?

a)

Severe hypertension

b)

Severe hypoglycemia

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Uterine inversion

79.

A nurse is planning to administer dinoprostone and notes the provider also ordered another oxytocic concurrently. Which action is correct per the chapter?

a)

Proceed; other oxytocics decrease dinoprostone effects

b)

Avoid concurrent use because other oxytocics increase effects

c)

Give misoprostol first to reduce diarrhea risk

d)

Give naloxone before dinoprostone to prevent respiratory depression

80.

A client is taking magnesium-containing antacids and is prescribed misoprostol. Which concern is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Increased risk for diarrhea with concurrent aluminum- or magnesium-containing antacids

b)

Increased risk for severe hypertension after vasopressors

c)

Increased risk for uterine rupture only after 41 weeks

d)

Increased risk for thrombosis

81.

A nurse is teaching about methylergonovine interactions. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I will avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.”

b)

“I will avoid tobacco use because smoking can cause vasoconstriction.”

c)

“I will take vasopressors as needed without telling my provider.”

d)

“I will allow the nurse to monitor my vital signs.”

82.

A client with preterm labor is prescribed terbutaline. Which statement shows correct understanding per the chapter?

a)

“This medication will delay labor for up to 48 hours, but not prevent it.”

b)

“This medication will permanently stop contractions.”

c)

“This medication works by increasing prostaglandin production.”

d)

“This medication will mature my baby’s lungs within 1 hour.”

83.

A client receiving terbutaline has a heart rate of 124/min and reports chest pain. What is the nurse’s best action per the chapter?

a)

Give the next dose to prevent contractions

b)

Withhold terbutaline and contact the provider

c)

Give nifedipine and continue terbutaline

d)

Increase IV fluids to 4,000 mL/day

84.

A nurse is monitoring terbutaline therapy. Which maternal adverse effect is listed in the chapter?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Severe constipation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hyponatremia

85.

A nurse is caring for a client on terbutaline and wants to prevent complications. Which lab value is most important to monitor per the chapter?

a)

Potassium

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Platelets

d)

INR

86.

A client asks why terbutaline teaching includes limiting fluids. Which daily intake limit does the chapter list?

a)

1,000 mL/day

b)

1,500 mL/day

c)

2,500 to 3,000 mL/day

d)

4,500 to 5,000 mL/day

87.

A client is prescribed nifedipine to suppress preterm labor. Which complication should the nurse anticipate based on the chapter?

a)

Headache and hypotension

b)

Water intoxication

c)

Hypertensive crisis

d)

Respiratory depression

88.

A client has preterm labor and is prescribed nifedipine, but the chart also shows magnesium sulfate is running. What is the best nurse action per the chapter?

a)

Continue both; they work best together

b)

Avoid concurrent use of nifedipine with magnesium sulfate

c)

Add terbutaline for stronger suppression

d)

Administer indomethacin first to prevent nausea

89.

A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires the nurse to report to the provider per the chapter’s “intolerable” list?

a)

Respirations 14/min

b)

Urine output 24 mL/hr

c)

2+ deep tendon reflexes

d)

Mild hot flashes

90.

A nurse is monitoring for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Which finding is specifically listed as an adverse effect requiring discontinuation?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Loss of deep tendon reflexes

c)

Mild pedal edema

d)

Heart rate 84/min

91.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate and follows the chapter guidance. Which medication must be available as an antidote?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Phytonadione

92.

A nurse is administering magnesium sulfate and wants to follow the chapter’s IV fluid limit recommendation. What is the maximum total IV fluid rate?

a)

75 mL/hr

b)

125 mL/hr

c)

200 mL/hr

d)

250 mL/hr

93.

A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed indomethacin for early preterm labor. Which nursing action is required per the chapter?

a)

Monitor for hypercalcemia

b)

Monitor blood glucose due to risk of hypoglycemia with insulin/antihyperglycemics interactions

c)

Monitor INR daily

d)

Monitor uterine inversion risk

94.

A pregnant client at 30 weeks gestation is prescribed betamethasone. What is the expected pharmacological action in the chapter?

a)

Suppresses uterine contractions by blocking calcium channels

b)

Releases enzymes that produce and release lung surfactant to stimulate fetal lung maturity

c)

Produces strong uterine contractions to deliver the placenta

d)

Reverses opioid respiratory depression in the newborn

95.

A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone for fetal lung maturity. Which administration schedule matches the chapter?

a)

Two injections IM at least 24 hours apart

b)

Four doses IM 12 hours apart

c)

Continuous IV infusion for 48 hours

d)

One dose PO daily for 7 days

96.

A nurse is teaching a client receiving betamethasone. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate per the chapter?

a)

This medication is effective immediately.

b)

Betamethasone requires about 24 hours to be effective.

c)

This medication is only used at 37 to 40 weeks.

d)

This medication prevents preterm labor permanently.

97.

A nurse is preparing to administer opioid analgesics during labor. Which assessment must be verified per the chapter before giving analgesics?

a)

Cervical dilation at least 4 cm with the fetus engaged

b)

Cervical dilation at least 1 cm with membranes intact

c)

Blood pressure below 90/60

d)

Continuous diarrhea for 12 hours

98.

A client receives fentanyl IV during labor and the newborn shows severe respiratory depression at birth. Which medication should the nurse anticipate needing per the chapter?

a)

Calcium gluconate

b)

Naloxone

c)

Betamethasone

d)

Oxytocin