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2205 Exam 3 pt.5

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A postpartum client has unilateral calf tenderness, swelling, and warmth. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse anticipate as a noninvasive test for suspected DVT?

a)

Pulmonary angiogram

b)

Embolectomy

c)

Doppler ultrasound scanning

d)

CBC with differential

2.

A postpartum client with suspected thrombophlebitis asks why the nurse is discouraging leg crossing. Which rationale should the nurse provide?

a)

Crossing your legs reduces circulation and worsens venous stasis.

b)

Crossing your legs increases milk production and discomfort.

c)

Crossing your legs causes uterine inversion.

d)

Crossing your legs increases lochia rubra.

3.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client at risk for thrombophlebitis about hydration. Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

Limit fluids to 1 L/day to prevent edema.

b)

Avoid fluids after 6 PM.

c)

Maintain 2 to 3 L of fluid intake each day from food and beverages.

d)

Drink only water to prevent clotting.

4.

A postpartum client with thrombophlebitis has an order set being reviewed by the nurse. Which intervention should the nurse question?

a)

Warm moist compresses intermittently

b)

Massage the affected limb to reduce inflammation

c)

Measure leg circumferences

d)

Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart

5.

A nurse is planning prevention teaching for a postpartum client after cesarean birth. Which statement best reflects the chapter’s risk-factor emphasis?

a)

A cesarean birth decreases your DVT risk.

b)

Only clients over age 35 are at risk.

c)

Cesarean birth doubles the risk for DVT.

d)

Only smokers develop DVT postpartum.

6.

A postpartum client is on prolonged bed rest. Which action by the nurse best aligns with prevention of thrombophlebitis when bed rest lasts longer than 8 hours?

a)

Keep the client supine and still

b)

Use active and passive range of motion to promote circulation if warranted

c)

Apply cold compresses to both legs

d)

Encourage leg crossing to reduce swelling

7.

A postpartum client with suspected DVT asks why the nurse refuses to place a pillow under the knees while elevating the leg. Which response is best?

a)

It can cause uterine inversion.

b)

It can worsen venous return; avoid a knee gatch or pillow under knees.

c)

It increases the risk of infection.

d)

It increases urine output too quickly.

8.

A postpartum client has DVT and is prescribed heparin. Which lab parameter should the nurse monitor to adjust dosing per the chapter?

a)

Hemoglobin only

b)

INR only

c)

aPTT and coagulation studies (including prothrombin/partial thromboplastin)

d)

D-dimer only

9.

A nurse is verifying safety preparedness before starting a continuous IV heparin infusion for acute PE. Which medication must be readily available per the chapter?

a)

Phytonadione

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Terbutaline

10.

A postpartum client receiving warfarin asks what is most important to report. Which instruction by the nurse is correct?

a)

Report a mild headache only.

b)

Report bleeding gums or nose, increased vaginal bleeding, blood in urine, and frequent bruising.

c)

Report appetite changes only.

d)

Report uterine cramping only.

11.

A postpartum client taking warfarin asks about pregnancy planning. Which teaching is priority based on the chapter?

a)

Warfarin is safe during pregnancy.

b)

Use birth control to avoid pregnancy due to teratogenic effects.

c)

Contraception is unnecessary if breastfeeding.

d)

Stop warfarin anytime you miss a period.

12.

A postpartum client on warfarin asks if they can start oral contraceptives. Which response is best?

a)

Yes, oral contraceptives reduce bleeding risk.

b)

Yes, oral contraceptives are preferred postpartum.

c)

No, oral contraceptives are contraindicated due to increased thrombosis risk.

d)

No, oral contraceptives cause uterine atony.

13.

A nurse is reinforcing precautions for a postpartum client receiving anticoagulants. Which client statement requires correction?

a)

I’ll use an electric razor.

b)

I’ll brush gently with a soft toothbrush.

c)

I’ll avoid aspirin or ibuprofen.

d)

I’ll rub my legs to improve circulation.

14.

A postpartum client with suspected pulmonary embolus is anxious, tachypneic, and hypoxic. What is the nurse’s priority positioning intervention?

a)

Place the client flat and supine

b)

Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with head of bed elevated

c)

Place the client in Trendelenburg

d)

Place the client in knee-chest position

15.

A nurse suspects acute pulmonary embolus in a postpartum client. Which finding is most consistent with the chapter’s expected findings list?

a)

Bradycardia and hyperglycemia

b)

Hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain

c)

Constipation and fever alone

d)

Hypotension with boggy uterus only

16.

A postpartum client with suspected PE asks why this is considered an emergency. Which explanation best matches the chapter’s definition?

a)

It means the uterus turned inside out.

b)

It occurs when a clot dislodges and lodges in the pulmonary artery, obstructing blood flow to the lungs.

c)

It’s caused by low estrogen.

d)

It’s a normal postpartum adaptation.

17.

A nurse is preparing a postpartum client for diagnostic testing for suspected PE. Which diagnostic/therapeutic procedure listed in the chapter could be ordered?

a)

Dilation and curettage

b)

Ventilation/perfusion lung scan

c)

Fundal massage

d)

Intrauterine balloon tamponade

18.

A postpartum client has suspected PE. Which nursing action is appropriate immediately while awaiting definitive management?

a)

Apply massage to both calves

b)

Administer oxygen by mask

c)

Encourage ambulation to clear the lungs

d)

Restrict fluids to prevent crackles

19.

A postpartum client is prescribed thrombolytic therapy for PE. Which medications listed in the chapter are thrombolytics?

a)

Alteplase and streptokinase

b)

Oxytocin and misoprostol

20.

A postpartum client has heavy vaginal bleeding that does not stop despite measures to stimulate uterine contractions. Which condition should the nurse suspect per the chapter?

a)

Normal lochia progression

b)

Coagulopathy such as DIC

c)

Breast engorgement

d)

Postpartum leukocytosis

21.

A nurse is caring for a client with DIC. Which antepartum complication listed is a risk factor for DIC?

a)

Preeclampsia/eclampsia (gestational hypertension), HELLP syndrome

b)

Placenta previa only

c)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

d)

Varicella nonimmunity

22.

A postpartum client is suspected to have DIC. Which physical finding best aligns with the chapter’s expected findings?

a)

Petechiae and ecchymoses

b)

Clear lochia alba day 1

c)

Uterus firm and midline with scant bleeding

d)

Decreased appetite only

23.

A nurse reviews labs for a client with suspected DIC. Which pattern matches the chapter’s clotting factor changes?

a)

Platelets increased; fibrinogen increased; PT shortened; D-dimer decreased

b)

Platelets decreased; fibrinogen decreased; PT prolonged; fibrin split products increased; D-dimer increased

c)

Platelets normal; fibrinogen normal; PT normal; D-dimer decreased

d)

Platelets increased; fibrinogen decreased; PT shortened; D-dimer normal

24.

A nurse is implementing care for a postpartum client with DIC. Which intervention aligns with the chapter?

a)

Encourage vigorous ambulation

b)

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor output

c)

Massage injection sites to stop oozing

d)

Restrict oxygen to avoid drying mucosa

25.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with DIC. Which is the priority focus stated in the chapter for DIC management?

a)

Strict fluid restriction

b)

Correcting the underlying cause (e.g., removal of dead fetus/abruption, treating infection, preeclampsia/eclampsia)

c)

Encouraging leg massage to prevent clots

d)

Delaying all blood products

26.

A postpartum client has a cumulative blood loss of 1,1001{,}100 mL with tachycardia within 12 hours of a vaginal birth. How does the chapter define this situation?

a)

Normal postpartum bleeding

b)

Postpartum hemorrhage per ACOG definition ( 1,000\ge 1{,}000 mL or blood loss with hypovolemia within 24 hr)

c)

Lochia rubra expected finding

d)

Subinvolution only

27.

A nurse is told to follow AWHONN guidance for postpartum hemorrhage monitoring. What does the chapter emphasize should be measured with every birth?

a)

Fundal height only

b)

Quantification of blood loss (QBL)

c)

Maternal mood assessment

d)

Newborn feeding logs

28.

A postpartum client’s pad is saturated in 15 minutes with bright red blood. Which interpretation best fits the chapter’s expected findings for postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Normal lochia rubra

b)

Excessive blood loss consistent with hemorrhage pattern

c)

Lochia serosa transition

d)

Expected after breastfeeding only

29.

A nurse is assessing for early hypovolemia from hemorrhage. Which finding is identified in the chapter as an early indicator?

a)

Increasing pulse and decreasing blood pressure

b)

Elevated WBC 22,000

c)

Fundus 1 cm below umbilicus

d)

Mild uterine cramping

30.

A postpartum client has suspected hemorrhage. Which IV fluid choice is consistent with the chapter’s isotonic replacement guidance?

a)

0.45% sodium chloride

b)

Lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% sodium chloride

c)

D5W as primary replacement

d)

Sterile water infusion

31.

A nurse prepares oxygen for a postpartum client with hemorrhage and hypoxia risk. What delivery and rate does the chapter specify?

a)

2 L/min via nasal cannula

b)

10–12 L/min via nonrebreather facemask

c)

6 L/min via simple mask

d)

Room air and reassess

32.

A postpartum client with hemorrhage is being positioned to improve perfusion. Which action matches the chapter?

a)

Elevate legs to a 20° to 30° angle

b)

Place in knee-chest position

c)

Place flat with legs dependent

d)

Encourage standing to improve circulation

33.

A nurse is administering oxytocin for postpartum hemorrhage. Which adverse reaction must the nurse monitor for per the chapter?

a)

Water intoxication that can progress to cerebral edema with seizures/coma

b)

Severe hypoglycemia

c)

Pulmonary fibrosis

d)

Hyperthyroidism

34.

A postpartum client has postpartum hemorrhage and chronic hypertension. Which medication should the nurse anticipate not giving based on the chapter’s explicit warning?

a)

Methylergonovine

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Tranexamic acid

35.

A nurse is monitoring for adverse reactions after giving carboprost tromethamine. Which reaction is listed in the chapter?

a)

Fever and diarrhea

b)

Vision loss

c)

Severe hypoglycemia

d)

Gingival hyperplasia

36.

A postpartum client has hemorrhage and is prescribed tranexamic acid. Which timing recommendation is explicitly stated in the chapter?

a)

Administer only after 24 hours postpartum

b)

Administer within 3 hours of birth when postpartum hemorrhage occurs

c)

Administer only after D&C fails

d)

Administer only if BP is elevated

37.

A nurse finds a boggy uterus that is larger than expected and displaced laterally. Which cause is most consistent with the chapter’s uterine atony findings?

a)

Distended bladder contributing to lateral displacement and atony findings

b)

Normal postpartum involution

c)

Hypercoagulability resolving hemorrhage

d)

Lactation suppression

38.

A nurse attempts to express uterine clots in a client with heavy bleeding but the uterus remains boggy. What is the best nursing response per the chapter?

a)

Express clots now to empty the uterus

b)

Avoid expressing clots until the uterus is firmly contracted to prevent inversion

c)

Express clots while applying vigorous fundal pressure

d)

Stop all uterotonics before expressing clots

39.

A postpartum hemorrhage persists despite fundal massage and medications. Which next intervention is described in the chapter as a uterine hemorrhage treatment before hysterectomy is likely?

a)

Uterine tamponage (intrauterine balloon)

b)

Varicella vaccination

c)

Splenectomy

d)

Enema administration

40.

A postpartum client has continued lochial discharge with an enlarged uterus higher than expected. Which condition matches the chapter?

a)

Subinvolution of the uterus

b)

Normal involution

c)

Pulmonary embolus

d)

ITP

41.

For suspected subinvolution, which lab/diagnostic sampling does the chapter list to evaluate infection/endometritis?

a)

Blood, intracervical, and intrauterine bacterial cultures

b)

D-dimer only

c)

INR only

d)

Urine ketones

42.

A postpartum client has subinvolution from retained fragments. Which therapeutic procedure is listed as performed by the provider to remove retained fragments or debride the insertion site?

a)

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

b)

Embolectomy

c)

Pulmonary angiogram

d)

Splenectomy

43.

A postpartum client is being educated on activities that enhance uterine involution during subinvolution management. Which set matches the chapter?

a)

Breastfeeding, early and frequent ambulation, frequent voiding

b)

Bed rest, leg crossing, fluid restriction

c)

Avoid ambulation, avoid voiding, avoid breastfeeding

d)

Warm compresses only

44.

A postpartum client has sudden hemorrhage with a mass presenting in the vagina and severe lower abdominal pain. Which disorder does this most strongly suggest?

a)

Inversion of the uterus

b)

Superficial thrombophlebitis

c)

ITP

d)

Normal lochia rubra

45.

A nurse recognizes uterine inversion has occurred while oxytocin is infusing. Which action is required per the chapter?

a)

Stop oxytocin if it is being administered at the time inversion occurred

b)

Continue oxytocin at the same rate to push the uterus back

c)

Perform aggressive fundal massage

d)

Encourage the client to ambulate immediately

46.

Which medication is listed as the tocolytic used to relax the uterus prior to manual replacement for uterine inversion?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Warfarin

47.

After uterine replacement for inversion, which nursing action is explicitly included in the chapter’s post-replacement care?

a)

Avoid aggressive fundal massage

b)

Encourage vigorous fundal massage every 15 minutes

c)

Discontinue all oxytocics permanently

d)

Apply cold compresses directly to the uterus

48.

A placenta has not delivered within 30 minutes after birth. How does the chapter define this finding?

a)

Retained placenta

b)

Subinvolution

c)

Normal third stage delay

d)

Uterine atony only

49.

A postpartum client has severe persistent perineal pain, difficulty voiding, and minimal visible bleeding. Which complication is most consistent with the chapter’s distinguishing finding?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Retained placenta

d)

DIC

50.

A postpartum client is on day 3 and reports chills and pelvic pain. Which additional finding most strongly supports endometritis based on the chapter?

a)

Lochia rubra with fleshy odor that decreases gradually

b)

Lochia that is malodorous and dark with profuse flow

c)

Breast tenderness with bilateral warmth

d)

Cloudy urine with visible sediment

51.

A nurse reviews a postpartum client’s temperature trend: 38.1° C (100.6° F) on postpartum day 2 and again on day 3. Which action is most appropriate per the chapter?

a)

Reassure the client this is a normal postpartum change

b)

Document and reassess at the routine 6-week visit

c)

Initiate further investigation for postpartum infection

d)

Encourage oral fluids and repeat temperature in 24 hr only

52.

A postpartum client has a cesarean incision with warmth, erythema, edema, and seropurulent drainage. Which complication listed in the chapter is the major concern if the infection spreads?

a)

Septicemia

b)

Uterine inversion

c)

Subinvolution

d)

Puerperal bradycardia

53.

A postpartum client who is breastfeeding reports a painful, localized hard mass and reddened area on the left breast with fever and body aches. Which instruction is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Stop breastfeeding on the affected side until symptoms resolve

b)

Breastfeed or pump frequently, emptying the affected side

c)

Restrict oral fluids to decrease swelling

d)

Apply an underwire bra for firm support

54.

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse why postpartum clients are at increased infection risk immediately after birth. Which explanation best matches the chapter?

a)

“The immune system is permanently weakened after delivery.”

b)

“Micro-organisms can enter the reproductive tract and migrate into the blood.”

c)

“Lochia is sterile and prevents bacterial growth.”

d)

“The cervix is fully closed immediately after birth.”

55.

A postpartum client on day 8 develops unilateral mastitis. Which organism should the nurse expect is most likely responsible per the chapter?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

56.

A postpartum client has fever greater than 38° C (100.4° F) after the first 24 hr. Which possible infection sites should the nurse prioritize assessing based on the chapter?

a)

Heart, liver, pancreas, spleen

b)

Bladder, uterus, wound, breast

c)

Brain, spinal cord, meninges, eyes

d)

Joints, bones, cartilage, tendons

57.

A client who is 4 days postpartum reports fatigue and loss of appetite. The nurse also notes uterine tenderness. Which additional finding is most consistent with endometritis?

a)

Axillary adenopathy on one side

b)

Lochia that is purulent or malodorous

c)

Clear urine with no discomfort

d)

Incision that is dry and well-approximated

58.

A postpartum client has fever for 2 consecutive days during the first 10 days postpartum. How should the nurse interpret this per the chapter?

a)

Expected postpartum adaptation

b)

Normal effect of breastfeeding

c)

Indicative of postpartum infection requiring investigation

d)

Benign effect of epidural anesthesia only

59.

A nurse suspects a puerperal infection. Which lab finding is most consistent with the chapter’s expected laboratory results?

a)

Leukopenia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Decreased RBC sedimentation rate

d)

Increased RBC count

60.

A postpartum client has a wound infection and the provider prescribes IV antibiotic therapy. Which medication class is listed in the chapter as part of broad-spectrum treatment?

a)

Antifungals

b)

Penicillins

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antiparasitics

61.

A postpartum client’s episiotomy shows wound dehiscence. Which finding best describes dehiscence according to the chapter?

a)

Protrusion of internal contents through separated edges

b)

Separation of wound or incision edges

c)

Collection of pus under the skin only

d)

Hardening of scar tissue without drainage

62.

A postpartum client has wound evisceration. Which statement best defines evisceration per the chapter?

a)

Separation of wound edges without tissue exposure

b)

Protrusion of internal contents through separated wound edges

c)

Redness and warmth without drainage

d)

Localized bruising around the incision

63.

A postpartum client reports cracked nipples and uses bottle supplementation, decreasing breastfeeding frequency. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about developing?

a)

Mastitis due to milk stasis

b)

Endometritis due to placental attachment infection

c)

UTI due to bladder trauma

d)

Wound infection due to episiotomy laceration

64.

A breastfeeding client reports breast pain and fever. Which assessment finding best differentiates mastitis from endometritis using the chapter?

a)

Uterine tenderness

b)

Axillary adenopathy on the affected side

c)

Dark, profuse lochia

d)

Pelvic pain

65.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with suspected endometritis. Which nursing action is appropriate per the chapter?

a)

Administer IV antibiotics

b)

Encourage warm water douching

c)

Apply an underwire bra for support

d)

Restrict fluids to reduce lochia

66.

A postpartum client with suspected puerperal infection has an order to obtain cultures. Which cultures are listed in the chapter to reveal the offending organism?

a)

Throat and stool cultures

b)

Blood, intracervical, or intrauterine bacterial cultures

c)

Skin swab cultures only

d)

Sputum cultures only

67.

A postpartum client with mastitis states, “I’m going to stop breastfeeding until my antibiotics are done.” Which response is best based on the chapter?

a)

“That’s correct; breastfeeding spreads infection to the newborn.”

b)

“Stop breastfeeding and avoid pumping to prevent milk production.”

c)

“Continue breastfeeding frequently, especially on the affected side.”

d)

“Breastfeed only once per day to rest the breast.”

68.

A postpartum client with mastitis asks why the nurse discourages underwire bras. Which explanation best matches the chapter?

a)

Underwire increases risk for infection

b)

Underwire decreases oxytocin release

c)

Underwire causes uterine displacement

d)

Underwire prevents colostrum production

69.

A client has mastitis and reports severe pain with breastfeeding. Which instruction is appropriate per the chapter?

a)

Avoid emptying the affected breast to decrease pain

b)

Manually express breast milk or use a breast pump if breastfeeding is too painful

c)

Apply breast pads and keep nipples moist at all times

d)

Reduce fluid intake to decrease milk supply

70.

A postpartum client is diagnosed with a puerperal infection. Which nursing intervention is essential to reduce transmission during care according to the chapter?

a)

Use aseptic technique and proper hand hygiene; don gloves for care

b)

Limit perineal pad changes to reduce exposure

c)

Encourage the client to share towels with family to promote bonding

d)

Avoid IV access unless septicemia is confirmed

71.

A postpartum client with endometritis is worried she should avoid her newborn. Which teaching is correct per the chapter?

a)

“Avoid interacting with your newborn until your fever is gone.”

b)

“Maintain interaction with the newborn to facilitate bonding.”

c)

“Rooming-in is contraindicated in endometritis.”

d)

“Delay bonding until after your antibiotics are completed.”

72.

A postpartum client has fever and tachycardia with dark, profuse, malodorous lochia. Which condition is most consistent with the chapter?

a)

Mastitis

b)

Urinary tract infection

c)

Endometritis

d)

Normal postpartum change

73.

A postpartum client has a temperature greater than 38° C for 2 consecutive days and her cesarean incision is warm and painful with edema. Which finding further supports wound infection?

a)

Lochia alba

b)

Seropurulent drainage

c)

Urine output 3,000 mL/day

d)

Bilateral breast engorgement

74.

A postpartum client has fever, chills, malaise, and nausea. Which category of findings does the chapter associate with these symptoms?

a)

Puerperal infections (general)

b)

UTI only

c)

Mastitis only

d)

Endometritis only

75.

A nurse is teaching mastitis prevention. Which instruction best targets milk stasis?

a)

“Decrease feeding frequency to rest the breasts.”

b)

“Completely empty the breasts with each feeding.”

c)

“Wear an underwire bra for better drainage.”

d)

“Avoid breastfeeding on one side to balance supply.”

76.

A postpartum client with mastitis asks how often she should breastfeed. Which response matches the chapter?

a)

Every 6 to 8 hr

b)

Every 8 to 12 hr

c)

At least every 2 to 4 hr

d)

Only when the breast becomes painful

77.

A postpartum client has suspected infection and is malnourished with anemia. How does this history affect risk according to the chapter?

a)

It lowers infection risk because the body conserves energy

b)

It increases risk for postpartum infection

c)

It only increases risk for mastitis, not uterine infection

d)

It increases risk only if the client is over age 35

78.

A postpartum client had prolonged labor and multiple vaginal examinations after rupture of membranes. Which infection is she at increased risk for per the chapter’s risk factors?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Mastitis

c)

UTI only

d)

No infection risk is listed for these factors

79.

A postpartum client reports dysuria, urgency, and suprapubic discomfort. Which additional urine characteristic supports UTI per the chapter?

a)

Clear and odorless urine

b)

Cloudy, blood-tinged, malodorous urine with sediment

c)

Bright red lochia mixed into urine

d)

Urine that is pale yellow with no sediment

80.

A postpartum client has suspected UTI. Which diagnostic procedure is listed in the chapter?

a)

Urinalysis for WBCs, RBCs, protein, bacteria

b)

Spiral CT scan

c)

Blood culture only

d)

MRI of the pelvis

81.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with UTI and teaches fluids. Which instruction matches the chapter?

a)

Increase fluid intake to 3,000 mL/day

b)

Restrict fluids to prevent frequency

c)

Drink only small sips to avoid urgency

d)

Avoid fluids until antibiotics are complete

82.

A postpartum client has UTI and asks what medication can help reduce discomfort and pain. Which medication is listed in the chapter?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Aspirin

d)

Naproxen

83.

A postpartum client says, “I’ll stop antibiotics when I feel better.” Which response is best based on the chapter?

a)

“That’s fine if your fever is gone.”

b)

“Complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed.”

c)

“Take half doses to reduce side effects.”

d)

“Stop antibiotics if breastfeeding.”

84.

A postpartum client with UTI asks why she needs treatment urgently. Which potential complication is listed in the chapter?

a)

Pyelonephritis leading to permanent kidney damage and kidney failure

b)

Uterine inversion

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Pulmonary embolism

85.

A postpartum client has costovertebral angle pain in addition to UTI symptoms. Which interpretation best matches the chapter?

a)

This indicates mastitis

b)

This suggests pyelonephritis involvement

c)

This is expected postpartum back pain only

d)

This indicates endometritis spread

86.

A postpartum client has urinary retention related to hypotonic bladder. According to the chapter, why is this a risk factor for UTI?

a)

It causes milk stasis

b)

It causes urinary stasis and retention, increasing infection risk

c)

It increases lochia flow

d)

It decreases perineal pain

87.

A nurse is prioritizing infection prevention education for a postpartum client. Which teaching best reflects the chapter’s prevention emphasis?

a)

“Use tampons to keep the perineum dry.”

b)

“Practice thorough handwashing and good perineal hygiene.”

c)

“Avoid changing pads frequently to reduce irritation.”

d)

“Use scented wipes to reduce malodor.”

88.

A postpartum client with wound infection asks why sitz baths might be suggested. Which rationale best matches the chapter?

a)

To increase milk supply

b)

To provide comfort measures along with perineal care

c)

To replace antibiotic therapy

d)

To prevent uterine displacement

89.

A postpartum client has fever greater than 38° C and tachycardia. The nurse suspects puerperal infection. Which nursing action is appropriate per the chapter before antibiotic administration?

a)

Maintain or initiate IV access

b)

Encourage the client to avoid all fluids

c)

Delay vital signs until pain is controlled

d)

Restrict perineal pad changes

90.

A postpartum client reports pelvic pain and dark lochia. Which additional symptom listed with endometritis would the nurse expect?

a)

Axillary adenopathy

b)

Loss of appetite

c)

Dysuria and urgency only

d)

Breast hard mass

91.

A breastfeeding client has cracked nipples and poor latch technique. Which nursing teaching directly addresses the chapter’s latch guidance?

a)

“The newborn should latch only onto the nipple tip.”

b)

“Positioning and latch should include both the nipple and the areola.”

c)

“Limit feeding time to reduce nipple exposure.”

d)

“Use an underwire bra to correct latch.”

92.

A postpartum client with mastitis asks how to remove the newborn from the breast safely. Which instruction matches the chapter?

a)

Pull the newborn away quickly

b)

Release the newborn’s grasp on the nipple prior to removing the newborn from the breast

c)

Wait for the newborn to fall asleep

d)

Remove only after applying warm compresses

93.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with infection risk factors. Which factor listed in the chapter specifically increases endometritis risk through uterine exposure?

a)

Internal fetal/uterine pressure monitoring

b)

Wearing an underwire bra

c)

Avoiding breastfeeding

d)

Increased fluid intake

94.

A postpartum client asks why the nurse is emphasizing protein intake during infection recovery. Which response matches the chapter?

a)

“Protein decreases lochia.”

b)

“A diet high in protein promotes tissue healing.”

c)

“Protein prevents fever.”

d)

“Protein replaces antibiotic therapy.”

95.

A postpartum client taking antibiotics for endometritis reports watery, bloody diarrhea. Which action is appropriate per the chapter’s medication education?

a)

Tell the client this is expected and continue medication without reporting

b)

Notify the provider of watery, bloody diarrhea

c)

Stop interacting with the newborn

d)

Increase underwire bra use for support

96.

A postpartum client is breastfeeding and has been prescribed antibiotics for infection. Which instruction is listed in the chapter?

a)

“Breastfeeding is always contraindicated with antibiotics.”

b)

“Notify the provider if breastfeeding.”

c)

“Stop antibiotics if breastfeeding.”

d)

“Only take antibiotics at night.”

97.

A postpartum client has mastitis and asks how much fluid intake is recommended. Which response matches the chapter?

a)

1,000 mL/day

b)

1,500 mL/day

c)

At least 3,000 mL/day

d)

Only drink when thirsty

98.

A postpartum client has suspected endometritis with fever and uterine tenderness. Which nursing assessment is essential per the chapter’s general infection care?

a)

Assess fundal height, position, and consistency

b)

Assess pupillary response

c)

Assess bowel sounds only

d)

Assess fetal heart rate

99.

A nurse is triaging postpartum clients for infection risk. Which client situation is most consistent with the chapter’s highest-risk pattern?

a)

Precipitous labor less than 3 hr

b)

Premature rupture of membranes with prolonged labor

c)

Delivered a large for gestational age infant

d)

Boggy uterus that was not well-contracted