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All Textbook Chapters Review Questions DEN111

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

That period of an infectious disease between the initial infection and the time when the first symptoms occurs is called the:

a)

Prodromal Period

b)

Incubation Period

c)

Acute Stage

d)

Convalescent Stage

2.

What microbe causes “strep throat”?

a)

Myobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Streptococcus Mutans

c)

Streptococcus Pyogenes

d)

E. Coli

3.

What virus has caused the COVID-19 pandemic?

a)

SARS-CoV-1

b)

SARS-CoV-2

c)

Influenza virus

d)

MERS-CoV

4.

This virus is found in adults and exhibits painful eruption and the vesicles or blisters run along the pathway of a sensory nerve. The virus is most likely: (a)  

5.

The occupational exposure most likely to produce disease is:

a)

Parenteral stick

b)

Aerosol Inhalation

c)

Droplet Inhalation

d)

Handshake

6.

The "hiding place" link in the chain of infection where germs live, grow, and increase in numbers is better termed:

(a)  

7.

In order for an infection to take place, certain elements must be present. The first of these elements in the chain of infection is:

a)

Portal of exit

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Susceptible host

d)

Infectious agent

e)

Means of Transmission

8.

What bloodborne disease has the greatest potential for occupational transmission risk to dental professionals?

a)

HIV

b)

AIDS

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Hepatitis C

9.

Which of the following types of respiratory infections is usually caused by inhaling or aspirating contaminated water?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Chickenpox

c)

Legionnaires Disease

d)

Infectious Mononucleosis

10.

Entrance of the herpes virus through breaks in the skin on unprotected hands and fingers can lead to vesicle development at these sites called: (a)   .

11.

That period of an infectious disease when the symptoms are at or near the maximum level is called the:

a)

Prodromal Period

b)

Incubation Period

c)

Acute Stage

d)

Convalescent Stage

12.

The vaccine for Hepatitis B also protects against:

(a)  

13.

A (a)   route of exposure to an infectious agent means that exposure occurred through the skin.

14.

Hepatitis ______ virus in blood dried on an inanimate surface can remain infectious for up to 6 weeks.

a)

Hepatitis E

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis A

15.

 
Hepatitis ­­­____ is a liver disease that is usually self-limiting with no chronic state. It is spread by contaminated food or water.

a)

Hepatitis E

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis A

16.

Also known as the “recovery phase”:

a)

Prodromal Period

b)

Incubation Period

c)

Acute Stage

d)

Convalescent Stage

17.

________________  ___________________ may infect different blood cells or other tissues of the body, but during infection the pathogens exist in or are released into the blood or other body fluids.

(a)  

18.

A vaccine is available for which of the types of hepatitis:

a)

Hepatitis A and Hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis D and Hepatitis C

19.

What microbe causes denture stomatitis?

a)

Streptococcus mutans

b)

Herpes Simplex Virus

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

20.

HIV is a member of a group of single-stranded RNA viruses called:

a)

Coronaviruses

b)

Retroviruses

c)

Influenza virus

d)

Hepatitis viruses

21.

The following is caused by Type 4 Human Herpes Virus:

a)

Recurrent herpes

b)

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

c)

Infectious mononucleosis

d)

Genital herpes

22.

This stage of disease involves the appearance of early symptoms:

a)

Prodromal Period

b)

Incubation Period

c)

Acute Stage

d)

Convalescent Stage

23.

This Coronavirus was first recognized in 2003

a)

MERS

b)

SARS-CoV-2

c)

SARS-CoV-1

d)

MRSA

24.

This Hepatitis does not pose a particular threat to dental professionals because this form is primarily spread by the fecal-oral route involving consumption of contaminated food or water. There is no vaccine available for this type of Hepatitis.

a)

Hepatitis E

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis A

25.

The greatest occupational risks for exposure to hepatitis B virus are: (1) blood and saliva contamination of cuts and cracks in the skin or ungloved hands or hands with torn gloves; (2) spraying of blood and saliva onto open lesions on the skin or onto mucous membranes; and (3)

a)

by ingesting contaminated water.

b)

through injuries with contaminated sharps

c)

through inhalation.

d)

by shaking hands with patients.

26.

Which of the following microbes can cause a respiratory disease (mainly in immunocompromised persons) and has emerged as opportunistic pathogen found in technologically advanced water handling devices including in dental unit waterlines?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Bartonella henselae

c)

Cryptosporidium parvum

d)

Legionella pneumophilia

27.

What is the most caries-conducing component of our diet?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Lactose

28.

What governmental agency regulates disinfectants?

a)

The Environmental Protection Agency

b)

The Department of Labor

c)

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

d)

Occupational Health and Safety Administration

29.

The category of bacteria on the hands that refers to the normal skin bacteria rather than the pathogens is called:

a)

resistant

b)

transient

c)

resident

d)

a colony

30.

According to the bloodborne pathogens standard who must provide gloves, masks, eyeglasses and protective clothing to the dental assistant in the office?

a)

The employing dentist must supply this protective equipment.

b)

The dental assistant must supply her/his own protective equipment.

c)

OSHA must supply this protective equipment.

d)

A dental sales representative of a protective equipment manufacturer must provide the protective equipment to the office free of charge.

31.

The goal of ____________ ___________ is to reduce the number of microbes that are shared between individuals.

(a)  

32.

An ASTM level (a)   facemask is used for moderate to heavy amounts of fluid exposure

33.

When putting on your protective barriers, which barrier should be put on last just before patient care begins?

a)

Protective clothing

b)

Protective eyewear

c)

Gloves

d)

Mask

34.

ASTM levels 1, 2, and 3 classifications of facemasks refer to what property of the masks?

a)

Cost of the masks

b)

Fit

c)

Color stability

d)

Fluid resistance

35.

There is no vaccine for which of the following diseases?

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Influenza

d)

Hepatitis C

36.

The vaccine for Hepatitis B also protects against

(a)  

37.

Microbes that are usually involved in the spread of disease from the hands are (a)   skin flora.  They can be removed or greatly reduced by routine hand hygiene

38.

A handwashing consisting of 2 latherings of 20 seconds each is recommended at the beginning of the day. What type of handwash should be done between patients?

a)

2 latherings of 20-25 seconds each

b)

1 lathering of 15-20 seconds each

c)

3 latherings of 10 seconds each

d)

3 latherings of 10-15 seconds each

39.

Hepatitis C and (a)   are both bloodborne hepatitis viruses.

40.

Wearing gloves at chairside helps prevent which of the following routes of entry of patient's microbes into the body?

a)

inhalation

b)

ingestion

c)

mucous membranes

d)

percutaneous

41.

Performing hand hygiene before gloving

a)

Kills all of the resident and transient skin flora

b)

Makes the gloves fit better

c)

Prevents the gloves from tearing

d)

Reduces the number of bacteria on the skin that may multiply beneath the gloves

42.

The most common type of skin reaction to gloves is:

a)

Latex allergy

b)

Irritant Contact Dermatitis

c)

Allergic Contact Dermatitis

43.

Which two infections are caused by the varicella-zoster virus?

a)

Tuberculosis and HIV

b)

Hepatitis and cytomegalovirus

c)

Chickenpox and shingles

d)

HIV and herpes

44.

An ASTM level (a)   facemask is used for moderate amounts of fluid exposure

45.

Which of the following PPE (personal protective equipment) is used to prevent inhalation of droplets and/or spatter?

a)

Overgloves

b)

Protective eyewear

c)

Mask

d)

Face shield

46.

Which of the following protective barriers are to be worn when processing contaminated instruments?

a)

Gloves and mask

b)

Gloves, mask, and protective clothing

c)

Gloves, mask, protective clothing, and protective eyewear

d)

Gloves

47.

When should standard precautions be practiced?

a)

with patients suspected to be positive for HBV or HIV

b)

with patients known to be HIV positive

c)

at all times for all patients

d)

for most patients, family members, and some others you just know do not have communicable diseases

48.

Current __________ standards require certain immunization records to be maintained for all-risk employees.

a)

OSHA

b)

EPA

c)

FDA

d)

CDC

49.

An ASTM level (a)   facemask is used for low amounts of fluid exposure

50.

The ___________ has placed strict requirements on glove manufacturers to help ensure a high quality of these medical devices.

a)

OSHA

b)

EPA

c)

FDA

d)

CDC

51.

Engineering controls to prevent occupational exposure are:

a)

items used to help prevent exposure

b)

procedures used to help prevent exposure

c)

designs developed by engineers to prevent exposures

d)

none of the above

52.

OSHA requires that bloodborne pathogen training records be kept:

a)

length of time is not specified by OSHA

b)

10 years

c)

3 years

d)

30 years

53.

Which of the following is one of the purposes of OSHA?

a)

To protect patients in healthcare facilities from infectious diseases and hazardous chemicals

b)

To test and approve all products used for infection control

c)

To encourage employers and employees to reduce workplace hazards and implement safety programs

d)

To determine the hazards of all chemicals and issue material safety data sheets for those chemicals

54.

Why are two disinfecting towelettes used during the wipe-discard-wipe procedure?

a)

The first one disinfects the surface and the second one re-disinfects the surface for double assurance

b)

The first one cleans the surface and the second one disinfects the surface

c)

The first one wets the surface and the second one cleans the surface

d)

The first one disinfects the surface and the second one cleans the surface

55.

Safe injection practices recommended by the CDC include:

a)

using multiple dose injection medication vials rather than the single dose vials whenever possible

b)

disinfecting the rubber septum on a medication vial with alcohol before using

c)

wearing heavy utility gloves when recapping used needles by hand

d)

using sterilizable needles for administering local anesthesia

56.

One should not use bleach (sodium hypochlorite) to flush or clean out the vacuum line.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following will best reduce the spread of patient microbes to environmental surfaces?

a)

touching as few surfaces as possible

b)

using disposable high-volume evacuator tips

c)

switching from disposable to reusable air/water syringe tips

d)

not having carpeting on the operatory floor

58.

Which of the following infection control procedures best minimizes the patient-to-dental team route of transmission when patient treatment involves using of a high-speed handpiece?

a)

sterilization of the handpiece

b)

the high-volume evacuator

c)

pre-procedure mouth rinse

d)

use of sterile gloves

59.

What barriers should be worn before changing the vacuum line trap?

a)

gloves, masks, protective eyewear, and protective clothing

b)

gloves, mask, and protective eyewear

c)

gloves

d)

gloves and mask

60.

Research has shown that in one of five cases, fluids from the line may be retracted back into the patient's mouth if the patient closes his/her lip around the:

a)

saliva ejector

b)

high-speed handpiece

c)

air/water syringe tip

d)

high-volume evacuator

61.

How does a preprocedure mouthrinse contribute to infection control?

a)

it will eliminate plaque and calculus and begin to reverse dental caries by adding calcium back to the demineralized portions of the teeth

b)

it will anesthetize the mouth and eliminate the need for an injection

c)

it will temporarily reduce the number of oral microorganisms that come out of the mouth during dental care

d)

it will permanently kill all microorganisms in the mouth

62.

Most, if not all, unmodified dental units produce water that is below the standard for drinking water.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Any water that passes through dental unit waterlines containing biofilm will become heavily contaminated.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which of the following is a waterborne bacterium that can cause a harmful infection in compromised persons?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Herpes simplex

c)

Legionella pneumophila

d)

Streptococcus mutans

65.

What would be needed for a dental office to continue to perform restorations and give prophys under a "boil water notice"?

a)

a dry heat sterilizer and sterile treatment gloves

b)

an independent water reservoir on the dental units and an alcohol hand rub

c)

an unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizer and a high-level disinfectant

d)

masks with attached face shields and barriers for all of the clinical contact surfaces in the operatory

66.

The level of microbes in water coming out of an unmodified dental unit is almost always:

a)

higher than drinking water

b)

zero

c)

lower than drinking water

d)

the same as drinking water

67.

Improvement in the microbial quality of dental unit water may involve use of an independent water reservoir which is:

a)

a lake that supplies treated water to healthcare facilities for patient treatment

b)

a bottle attached to the dental unit that supplies the treatment water or other solutions

c)

a city water tower that supplies water to the healthcare facilities for patient treatment

d)

an independent waterline from the city water treatment plant that is directly plumbed into dental units

68.

How does biofilm in dental unit waterlines affect the microbial concentration in the water coming out of the dental unit?

a)

it may cause a decrease in the microbes in the water

b)

it causes and increase int he microbes in the water

c)

it does not affect the microbes in the water

d)

it always causes a decrease in the microbes in the water

69.

Compare the potential for microbial contamination of dental unit water with that dental unit air?

a)

air contains more microbes than water

b)

air contains fewer microbes than water

c)

air is sterile and water is not

d)

air has about the same level of microbes as water

70.

Which of the following protective barriers are to be worn when disinfecting a surface?

a)

utility gloves

b)

utility gloves, mask and protective clothing

c)

utility gloves and mask

d)

utility gloves, mask, protective clothing, protective eyewear

71.

Which of the following germicidal agents is least desirable as a surface disinfectant?

a)

iodophors

b)

phenolics

c)

alcohols

d)

chlorines

72.

What microbe is not killed by low-level disinfectants nor intermediate-level disinfectants?

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Bacterial spore

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Staphylococcus auerus

73.

The spray-wipe-spray procedure is a technique for:

a)

adding a rust inhibitor to instruments prior to ultrasonic cleaning

b)

washing your hands

c)

disinfecting surfaces or objects

d)

flushing out your eye after a chemical exposure

74.

Supplying sterile forceps or cotton pliers with each instrument set-up to reach into containers of bulk supplies (e.g., cotton rolls, or cotton pledgets) is best referred to as:

a)

high-tech management

b)

aseptic retrievel

c)

antisepsis

d)

unit dosing

75.

If you properly use surface covers on clinical contact surfaces at chairside for each patient, which of the following is not necessary?

a)

use gloves for patient care

b)

package the instruments before sterilization

c)

wear protective clothing at chairside

d)

clean and disinfect those surfaces between patients

76.

How often should a surface cover on a dental light handle or light switch be replaced?

a)

only after a high-speed handpiece is used on a patient

b)

after every three patients

c)

when the cover is visibly soiled

d)

after every patient

77.

How can you tell if a disinfectant has been registered with the EPA?

a)

its label displays a registration number

b)

its label states that it is a hospital disinfectant

c)

its label displays a blue "R"

d)

its label states that it is tuberculocidal

78.

According to the CDC low-level disinfectants can be used on clinical contact surfaces if they are EPA-registered as a hospital disinfectant and have been shown to kill:

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis

b)

human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis B virus

c)

human immunodeficiency virus

d)

Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella choleraesuis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

79.

Why would alcohol hand-rubs be considered as fire hazards?

a)

their containers are made of a special plastic that have a low ignition point

b)

they are also recommended for disinfecting electrical components

c)

alcohol is flammable

d)

the moisturizers used in these preparations are explosive when warmed above 37 degrees C

80.

Which of the following statements is one of the nine required elements of a written fire safety plan?

a)

develop an exposure control plan

b)

location of the SDSs for all chemicals in the office

c)

installation of eyewash stations

d)

employee training

81.

What is a good way to account for all employees following an evacuation?

a)

predesignate an assembly area outside the facility and take a headcount after the evacuation

b)

have someone stand at the exit and count them as they pass

c)

go through the facility and make sure everyone is out

d)

have each employee call a specific person indicating their safety

82.

A facility has two special needs staff persons who may need assistance during an evaluation. How should this be addressed?

a)

make sure these persons know where everyone is to gather after the evacuation

b)

provide these persons with the names and contact information of those responsible for the developing the evacuation plan

c)

train the special needs persons to help each other evacuate

d)

appoint an evacuation warden to assist these persons during an evacuation

83.

Who prepares the original Safety Data Sheets?

a)

the employer dentist

b)

the governmental agency that developed the Hazard Communication Standard

c)

the manufacturer of the chemical

d)

the dental assisting staff must prepare the original from information provided by the chemical manufacturer

84.

When was the most recent Federal update of OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard?

a)

199

b)

2012

c)

2005

d)

1991

85.

The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard is to:
Requiring employers to protect employees from being contaminated with patients' body fluids during all work activities is part of the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. It is part of the standard to ensure the hazards of chemicals are evaluated and that information concerning their hazards is transmitted to employers and employees. It is not part of the standard to keep patients informed of the dangers related to fire, flood, and tornados that may occur during their appointment. It is not part of the standard to have health care employees identify and report all potential work hazards to their employers.

a)

ensure that the hazards of chemicals are evaluated and that information concerning their hazards is transmitted to employers and employees

b)

have health care employees identify and report all potential work hazards to their employers

c)

prevent exposures of employees to bloodborne pathogens at work

d)

keep patients informed of the dangers related to fire, flood, and tornados that may occur during their appointment

86.

The OSHA-required written Hazard Communication Program for each dental office must contain:

a)

an Exposure Control Plan

b)

a list of all job classifications in which employees in those jobs have occupational exposure

c)

the name of the person responsible for implementing the program

d)

the procedures for post-exposure medical evaluation

87.

How does one determine the hazard potential of a new bonding agent just before it's used in the office?

a)

ask a fellow employee who has already used the chemical

b)

ask the employer

c)

read the label and the Safety Data Sheet

d)

try to contact the chemical manufacturer

88.

Before the 2012 update of OSHA's Hazard Communication Plan, Safety Data Sheets (SDS) were referred to as:

a)

Written Safety Data Sheets

b)

Material Safety Data Sheets

c)

Chemical Safety Data Sheets

d)

Hygiene Safety Data Sheets

89.

A new spray disinfectant has been ordered for the office. What should be done to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard when it arrives?

a)

revise the Exposure Control Plan

b)

update the employee medical records

c)

file the Safety Data Sheet and revise the list of chemicals

d)

add to the list of universal precautions

90.

How should instrument packages/cassettes be placed into the sterilizer chamber?

a)

on their edges or in a single layer

b)

packed tightly to reduce any air space between the packages or cassettes

c)

layered flat and stacked upon one another

d)

one cassette or package at a time regardless of its size

91.

Instruments that are sterilized but are not packaged or wrapped must be

a)

placed in a sealed pouch as quickly as possible

b)

stored in a disinfected cabinet

c)

used immediately

d)

resterilized

92.

According to CDC, chemical integrated monitors should be used:

a)

once a week

b)

one in every package

c)

one in every load

d)

one in every third load

93.

HBV can be transmitted through direct contact. HBV can be transmitted through indirect contact.

a)

both statements are true

b)

first statement is false. second statement is true.

c)

both statements are false.

d)

first statement is true. second statement is false.

94.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires employers to provide specific training to their healthcare employees on:

a)

strep throat

b)

bloodborne diseases

c)

chickenpox and shingles

d)

herpes labialis

95.

OSHA is a branch of the state and federal government whose purpose is to protect the:

a)

patient

b)

employee

c)

employer

d)

all of the above

96.

How often must the Exposure Control Plan for a dental office be reviewed and updated?

a)

every 6 months

b)

only when changes occur in the way things are done in the office

c)

there is no set time for review

d)

once a year and/or as changes occur

97.

Which of the following items in a dental office do NOT need a biohazard sign affixed:

a)

trash can

b)

sharp's container

c)

ultrasonic cleaner

d)

autoclave

98.

How often must employees in a dental office be trained on the Hazard Communication Program?

a)

at initial employment

b)

every year

c)

as new products are purchased

d)

at initial employment and as new products are purchased

e)

all of the above

99.

Work practice controls are:

a)

items used to reduce chance of occupational exposure

b)

behaviors used to reduce chance of occupational exposure

c)

items designed by OSHA engineers to reduce a chance of occupational exposure

d)

written exposure control plans to reduce chance of occupational exposure

100.

Waste defined as "regulated" by OSHA must be:

a)

in a red bag or container

b)

in a container which has a biohazard symbol

c)

any of the above