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NSG2311 Exam 2 Content Review

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient is prescribed neostigmine for myasthenia gravis. Which mechanism explains how neostigmine improves muscle strength?

a)

It inhibits acetylcholinesterase at the synaptic cleft.

b)

It increases the presynaptic release of acetylcholine.

c)

It directly stimulates nicotinic receptors on skeletal muscle.

d)

It blocks muscarinic receptors in the autonomic nervous system.

2.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing acute bronchospasm. Which medication would be most appropriate to administer to relieve this symptom?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

A beta2 receptor agonist

c)

A beta1 receptor antagonist

d)

A cholinergic (muscarinic) antagonist

3.

A 60-year-old patient with hypertension and chronic heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which is a primary mechanism by which beta-blockers improve cardiovascular health in this patient?

a)

Inhibition of beta1-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate and contractility.

b)

Stimulation of alpha1 receptors to increase peripheral vascular resistance.

c)

Activation of beta2 receptors to enhance bronchodilation and cardiac output.

d)

Blockade of muscarinic receptors to increase sinoatrial node firing.

4.

In the context of vagal stimulation, which interventions can be used to manage cholinergic toxicity? Select all that apply.

a)

Administer atropine

b)

Provide activated charcoal

c)

Give epinephrine

d)

Administer flumazenil

5.

A patient presents with excessive salivation, diarrhea, and constricted pupils after exposure to an unknown substance. These symptoms are most consistent with:

a)

Cholinergic toxicity

b)

Sympathetic nervous system activation

c)

Beta blocker overdose

d)

Sedative-hypnotic toxicity

6.

Which of the following symptoms would be expected from activation of the sympathetic nervous system during a stress response?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Increased digestive activity

c)

Dilated pupils

d)

Constricted bronchi

7.

A patient with a history of anxiety is prescribed a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which of the following is a nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic that could be considered for this patient?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Diazepam

c)

Temazepam

d)

Ramelteon

8.

In patients with asthma, which type of beta-blocker is preferred to minimize the risk of bronchospasm?

a)

Non-selective beta-blockers

b)

Selective beta-1 blockers

c)

Alpha-1 blockers

9.

Which nursing intervention is critical when administering bethanechol to a patient with urinary retention?

a)

Monitor for bradycardia and hypotension.

b)

Assess for signs of cholinergic toxicity such as dry mouth and pupil dilation.

c)

Ensure the patient is positioned supine during administration.

d)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent bladder distention.

10.

Which of the following medications is most suitable as an antidote for cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Atropine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Phenytoin

11.

A patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. What is the most immediate nursing intervention to take?

a)

Elevate the head of the bed.

b)

Administer beta-blockers.

c)

Apply cold compresses.

d)

Provide a sedative.

12.

Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with the use of benzodiazepines in treating sleep disorders?

a)

Daytime drowsiness

b)

Hypertension

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Tachycardia

13.

What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Administer atropine immediately.

b)

Provide intravenous fluids to maintain hydration.

c)

Initiate gastric lavage to remove the toxin.

d)

Administer beta-blockers to control heart rate.

14.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

15.

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed metoprolol. What is the primary benefit of metoprolol in this context?

a)

Decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand

b)

Increasing coronary artery perfusion

c)

Direct vasodilation of coronary arteries

d)

Increasing cardiac output

16.

When initiating treatment with ramelteon, a patient should be advised about which potential side effect?

a)

Dizziness

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Weight gain

d)

Constipation

17.

How does pilocarpine exert its effects on the autonomic nervous system?

a)

As a beta-blocker

b)

As a muscarinic agonist

c)

As a nicotinic antagonist

d)

As an adrenergic antagonist

18.

A patient is experiencing muscle twitching, bradycardia, and bronchospasm after taking an unknown medication. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a)

Neostigmine overdose

b)

Beta blocker overdose

c)

Sympathetic nervous system activation

d)

Sedative-hypnotic overdose

19.

A patient with glaucoma is prescribed pilocarpine drops. What is the primary therapeutic action of pilocarpine in this condition?

a)

Increase aqueous humor outflow.

b)

Decrease the production of aqueous humor.

c)

Constrict blood vessels in the eye.

d)

Relax the iris sphincter muscle.

20.

A patient is prescribed zolpidem for insomnia. What instruction should the nurse provide to minimize the risk of adverse effects?

a)

Take the medication immediately before going to bed.

b)

Take the medication with a large meal.

c)

Use the medication only on weekends.

d)

Take a double dose if sleep is not achieved within 30 minutes.

21.

Which side effect should a nurse monitor for in a patient starting therapy with propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Agranulocytosis

22.

Which of the following mechanisms explains the toxicity associated with cholinergic drugs like pilocarpine?

a)

Excessive activation of muscarinic receptors

b)

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

c)

Blockade of nicotinic receptors

d)

Increased norepinephrine release

23.

A nurse is assessing a client who has developed redness, discomfort, and blurred vision after using prescribed eye drops for glaucoma. Based on the scenario, determine the appropriate nursing actions in response to the client's symptoms.

a)

Discontinue the eye drops.

b)

Administer artificial tears to relieve discomfort.

c)

Arrange for a prompt eye examination to assess severity and prevent complications.

d)

Reassure the client and provide comfort measures.

24.

In a patient with suspected autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which observation would most likely indicate sympathetic nervous system involvement?

a)

Persistent hypotension.

b)

Increased sweating.

c)

Bradycardia.

d)

Enhanced gastrointestinal motility.

25.

An elderly patient with a history of COPD and hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which of the following beta-blockers is most appropriate for this patient?

a)

Atenolol.

b)

Propranolol.

c)

Labetalol.

d)

Carvedilol.

26.

A patient on temazepam reports experiencing fatigue and confusion during the day. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

a)

Residual sedation from the medication.

b)

Medication-induced anxiety.

c)

Inadequate sleep duration.

d)

Increased caffeine intake.

27.

A nurse is preparing to administer bethanechol to a postoperative patient. What condition would contraindicate its use?

a)

Urinary retention.

b)

Hypotension.

c)

Constipation.

d)

Postoperative ileus.

28.

A patient is treated with atropine for cholinergic toxicity. What is the primary action of atropine in this situation?

a)

Blocks muscarinic receptors to reduce acetylcholine effects

b)

Inhibits acetylcholine release from nerve terminals

c)

Enhances the metabolism of acetylcholine

d)

Stimulates nicotinic receptors to counteract toxicity

29.

A patient is prescribed a non‑selective beta‑blocker. What caution should the nurse advise regarding its effects on the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Possible bronchoconstriction

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Enhanced parasympathetic activity

d)

Increased blood pressure

30.

What is the most immediate treatment for organophosphate poisoning‑induced cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Atropine and pralidoxime

b)

Beta blockers and oxygen therapy

c)

Neostigmine and supportive care

d)

Activated charcoal

31.

What is the role of cholinergic drugs in managing Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Increase acetylcholine levels in the brain

b)

Reduce amyloid plaque formation

c)

Stimulate dopamine release

d)

Improve serotonin uptake

32.

A patient with high blood pressure is being considered for beta‑blocker therapy. Which additional condition would make a beta‑blocker particularly beneficial for this patient?

a)

Migraine headaches

b)

Seasonal allergic rhinitis

c)

Iron‑deficiency anemia

d)

Osteoarthritis

33.

A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a patient starting on nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotics. Which statement should be included?

a)

Avoid alcohol consumption while on this medication.

b)

Take the medication in the morning to align with natural circadian rhythms.

c)

Increase dose if sleep is not achieved within one hour.

d)

Use this medication for long-term management of insomnia.

34.

Which drug would be most appropriate to counteract cholinergic toxicity in an emergency setting?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Atropine

c)

Propranolol

d)

Bethanechol

35.

A patient develops bradycardia following vagal stimulation during a procedure. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

a)

Administer atropine to block vagal effects.

b)

Provide intravenous fluids to improve circulation.

c)

Apply defibrillation pads for immediate cardioversion.

d)

Monitor the patient for spontaneous resolution.

36.

Which symptom is least likely to be associated with cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Miosis

d)

Bronchospasm

37.

Which clinical finding would indicate effective treatment of glaucoma with pilocarpine?

a)

Reduced intraocular pressure.

b)

Improved visual acuity.

38.

A patient on beta-blockers is experiencing fatigue and bradycardia. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Increase the dose of beta-blockers

b)

Assess the patient's blood pressure and heart rate

c)

Administer atropine

d)

Advise the patient to stop taking the medication

39.

A patient with heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is a key reason for choosing carvedilol over other beta-blockers in this situation?

a)

Carvedilol has both beta and alpha-blocking properties, which can improve heart failure outcomes.

b)

Carvedilol selectively blocks only beta-1 receptors.

c)

Carvedilol increases cardiac output more than other beta-blockers.

d)

Carvedilol has a shorter half-life, allowing for easier dose adjustments.

40.

Which of the following is most likely to cause cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Organophosphate exposure

b)

Beta blocker overdose

c)

Zolpidem overdose

d)

Sympathetic nervous system activation

41.

Which adverse effect is most likely to occur with cholinergic drug overdose?

a)

Diarrhea and excessive salivation.

b)

Confusion and hallucinations.

c)

Dry skin and decreased sweating.

d)

Hypertension and tachycardia.

42.

Which clinical finding is most indicative of cholinergic toxicity?

a)

Bronchospasm and excessive salivation

b)

Hypotension and tachycardia

43.

What is the primary action of beta1 receptor antagonists on the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Increase cardiac output

b)

Decrease heart rate

c)

Stimulate bronchial dilation

d)

Enhance sympathetic activity

44.

In the management of acute coronary syndrome, why might a beta-blocker be administered?

a)

To decrease myocardial oxygen demand by reducing heart rate

b)

To increase coronary artery dilation and improve blood flow

c)

To eliminate arrhythmias by increasing vagal tone

d)

To enhance platelet aggregation inhibition

45.

A patient is experiencing dry mouth and blurred vision after starting a new medication. Which class of drugs is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Cholinergic agonists

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Sympathomimetics

46.

A patient taking a beta-blocker for hypertension complains of cold extremities. What is a likely explanation for this side effect?

a)

Decreased peripheral circulation due to beta-2 receptor blockade

b)

Increased core body temperature

c)

Enhanced sympathetic nervous system activity

d)

Overactivation of the renin-angiotensin system

47.

For a patient with both hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which beta-blocker might offer additional benefits?

a)

Carvedilol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Labetalol

d)

Nebivolol

48.

A 45-year-old patient with a history of asthma presents with signs of autonomic dysregulation. Which of the following beta-blockers would be most appropriate to prescribe?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Nadolol

d)

Sotalol

49.

Which of the following interventions are appropriate for managing cholinergic toxicity? (Select all that apply)

a)

Administer atropine

b)

Provide supportive oxygen therapy

c)

Administer a benzodiazepine to control seizures

d)

Initiate beta-blocker therapy

e)

Administer pilocarpine

50.

A patient is prescribed zolpidem to treat insomnia. Which of the following is an important nursing consideration related to the administration of this medication?

a)

Administer with food to enhance absorption

b)

Advise the patient to avoid alcohol consumption while on this medication

c)

Instruct the patient to take the medication in the morning

d)

Monitor for signs of hypertension as a side effect

51.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of asthma and hypertension is to be started on a beta-blocker. Which beta-blocker would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Labetalol

d)

Nadolol

52.

Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treating insomnia by mimicking melatonin function in the brain?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Ramelteon

c)

Temazepam

d)

Phenobarbital

53.

A patient is prescribed neostigmine for myasthenia gravis. Which effect should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Increased muscle strength

b)

Decreased heart rate

54.

What is the primary effect of vagal stimulation on the heart?

a)

Increase in heart rate

b)

Decrease in heart rate

55.

Which clinical signs indicate cholinergic toxicity that require immediate intervention? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Excessive salivation

c)

Hypotension

56.

A patient with a history of COPD is prescribed temazepam for insomnia. What precaution should the nurse take?

a)

Monitor for signs of respiratory depression

b)

Advise the patient to avoid dairy products

c)

Monitor the patient's blood glucose levels.

57.

Which of the following beta-blockers is most likely to cause a significant reduction in heart rate at rest?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Carvedilol

c)

Propanolol

58.

When administering bethanechol, what primary effect should the nurse anticipate in the patient?

a)

Increased urinary output

b)

Decreased salivation

59.

During the administration of temazepam, a sedative-hypnotic, which of the following assessments is most critical?

a)

Monitoring of respiratory status.

b)

Regular blood glucose checks.

c)

Assessment of liver function tests.

d)

Frequent blood pressure measurements.

60.

A patient is experiencing autonomic dysregulation following the administration of a non-selective beta-blocker. Which symptom is most likely to be exacerbated in this scenario?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Hyperglycemia

61.

Which of the following is a nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic used for short-term management of insomnia?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Ramelteon

d)

Diphenhydramine

62.

Which of the following is a primary mechanism of action for benzodiazepines like diazepam?

a)

Inhibition of GABA receptors

b)

Enhancement of GABA activity

c)

Blockade of adrenergic receptors

d)

Inhibition of dopamine synthesis

63.

In the event of cholinergic toxicity, which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as an antidote?

a)

Atropine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Propranolol

64.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requires a beta-blocker for heart failure management. Which beta-blocker is the safest option?

a)

Sotalol

b)

Bisoprolol

c)

Timolol

d)

Pindolol

65.

A patient taking zolpidem for insomnia is advised to avoid alcohol. What is the primary reason for this instruction?

a)

Alcohol can increase the risk of allergic reactions to zolpidem.

b)

Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of zolpidem, leading to increased CNS depression.

c)

Alcohol reduces the effectiveness of zolpidem in treating insomnia.

d)

Alcohol can cause zolpidem to be metabolized more quickly, reducing its duration of action.

66.

A patient experiencing increased vagal stimulation is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Increased respiratory rate

67.

In the management of hypertension, which beta-blocker should be avoided in patients with diabetes due to its potential effect on blood glucose levels?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Carvedilol

68.

A patient with Parkinson's disease is being treated with Carbidopa/Levodopa. They report experiencing increased autonomic dysregulation. What adjustment might help alleviate this symptom?

a)

Increase the dose of Levodopa

b)

Add Benztropine

c)

Decrease Carbidopa

d)

Switch to Pramipexole

69.

Which medication is used in the management of sleep disorders and works by activating GABA receptors?

a)

Ramelteon

b)

Zolpidem

c)

Modafinil

d)

Melatonin

70.

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause cholinergic toxicity when overdosed?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Ramelteon

71.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of beta-blockers that nurses should monitor for in patients?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Increased cardiac output

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Insomnia

72.

Which beta-blocker is most appropriate for a patient with hypertension who also experiences frequent migraines?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Esmolol

73.

A nurse is educating a patient about ramelteon, a melatonin receptor agonist. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the medication?

a)

I should take this medication with a glass of wine to help me relax.

b)

This medication can be used for immediate relief of anxiety.

c)

It may take a few days for the full effect to be noticeable.

d)

I can take this medication anytime during the day.

74.

A patient presents with orthostatic hypotension and autonomic nervous system dysregulation. Which intervention is most appropriate to manage this condition?

a)

Initiate beta-blocker therapy

b)

Increase fluid intake and sodium consumption

c)

Prescribe diuretics

d)

Advise strict bed rest

75.

A patient with heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker known for its antioxidant properties. Which medication is this likely to be?

a)

Carvedilol

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Propranolol

76.

A patient with glaucoma is prescribed pilocarpine. What mechanism of action should the nurse explain to the

patient?

a)

Decreases intraocular pressure by increasing aqueous humor outflow

b)

Increases aqueous humor production to relieve pressure

c)

Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors to reduce fluid production

77.

During a stress response, which neurotransmitter is primarily released by the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Dopamine

78.

What is the primary action of benzodiazepines in the treatment of insomnia?

a)

Inhibition of acetylcholine release.

b)

Inhibition of serotonin reuptake.

c)

Enhancement of GABAergic activity.

d)

Blockade of dopamine receptors.

79.

Which adverse effect is most associated with cholinergic agonists like bethanechol?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

HTN

d)

Dry Mouth

80.

A patient with autonomic dysregulation is experiencing severe bradycardia. Which of the following medications

would be most effective in increasing heart rate?

a)

Atropine

b)

Propanolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Epi

81.

patient on beta-blocker therapy presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which beta-blocker is most likely

responsible for masking these symptoms?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Propanolol

d)

Bisoprolol

82.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotics compared to

benzodiazepines?

a)

Higher risk of addiction

b)

Lack of muscle relaxant properties

c)

Longer half-life

d)

Greater potential for tolerance

83.

Which drug would be most appropriate for a patient with autonomic dysreflexia secondary to spinal cord injury?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Latanoprost

d)

Temazepam

84.

For a patient on carbidopa/levodopa therapy, which dietary advice is crucial to enhance drug efficacy?

a)

Limit protein intake at meals

b)

Increase calcium-rich foods

c)

Avoid foods high in vitamin C

d)

Consume more fiber-rich foods

85.

A patient with sleep apnea is prescribed a sedative-hypnotic. What potential risk should the nurse prioritize when

monitoring this patient?

a)

Increased risk of hypertension

b)

Development of a dependence on the medication

c)

Exacerbation of respiratory depression

86.

In the context of sedative-hypnotic use, what is the major concern with abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepines?

a)

Risk of hypertensive crisis

b)

Development of withdrawal seizures

c)

Onset of severe depression

d)

Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

87.

A patient is on a regimen of beta-blockers and benzodiazepines. What is the potential interaction to be most

concerned about?

a)

Additive bradycardic effects

b)

Increased risk of hyperglycemia

c)

Enhanced hypertensive effects

d)

Potential for renal impairment

88.

A nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin (Dilantin) to a client with seizure disorder. Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication?

a)

A. Take with milk to prevent GI upset

b)

B. Stop taking immediately if seizures stop

c)

C. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush

d)

D. Take with antacids to reduce heartburn

89.

The nurse reviews lab results for a client taking valproic acid (Depakote). Which finding should be reported to the provider immediately?

a)

A. ALT 80 U/L

b)

B. Sodium 138 mEq/L

c)

C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL

d)

D. Glucose 90 mg/dL

90.

A client taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) reports fever and sore throat. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

A. Encourage increased fluids

b)

B. Obtain a CBC

c)

C. Administer acetaminophen

d)

D. Reassure that this is an expected effect

91.

he nurse monitors for hyponatremia in a client taking which anticonvulsant?

a)

A. Phenytoin

b)

Oxcarbazepine

c)

Lamotrigine

d)

Tiagabine

92.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching about ophthalmic medication safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

a)

A. “I’ll touch the dropper to my eye to be sure it goes in.”

b)

B. “I’ll wait at least 5 minutes between different eye drops.”

c)

C. “I can share my eye drops with my spouse if we have similar symptoms.”

d)

D. “I don’t need to wash my hands before applying the medication.”

93.

A nurse suspects systemic absorption of ophthalmic beta-blocker drops. Which symptom supports this finding?

a)

A. Tachycardia

b)

B. Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

D. Dilated pupils

94.

When administering dorzolamide (Trusopt) eye drops, the nurse should instruct the client to:

a)

A. Close eyes tightly for 5 minutes after instillation

b)

B. Apply pressure on the inner canthus for 30–60 seconds

c)

C. Rinse eyes immediately after applying drops

d)

D. Lie flat for 10 minutes after use

95.

Acetazolamide (Diamox) may cause which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

B. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypocalcemia

96.

A client prescribed latanoprost (Xalatan) should be taught which potential effect?

a)

A. Temporary loss of vision

b)

B. Darkening of the iris color

c)

C. Dilated pupils

d)

D. Eye pain indicating toxicity

97.

A nurse is administering fluorescein during an eye exam. Which outcome is expected?

a)

A. Temporary yellow discoloration of sclera

b)

B. Visualization of corneal abrasions under blue light

c)

C. Pupillary constriction

d)

D. Increased intraocular pressure

98.

The nurse should use caution giving timolol (a beta-blocker eye drop) to a client with which condition?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Asthma

d)

Cataracts

99.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client taking tiagabine (Gabitril) for partial seizures. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

A. “I will avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”

b)

B. “I should take this medication on an empty stomach.”

c)

C. “I can stop this medication if I feel dizzy.”

d)

D. “I can drink alcohol to help me relax.”

100.

A client taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) reports a rash. What should the nurse do?

a)

A. Advise use of a topical steroid cream

b)

B. Encourage fluid intake

c)

C. Report the finding to the provider immediately

d)

D. Document and continue to monitor

101.

The nurse monitors for hyponatremia in a client taking which anticonvulsant?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Oxcarbazepine

c)

Lamotrigine

d)

Tiagabine

102.

A client taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) reports fever and sore throat. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

A. Encourage increased fluids

b)

B. Obtain a CBC

c)

C. Administer acetaminophen

d)

D. Reassure that this is an expected effect