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Worksheets

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Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of using a Penrose drain on an inguinal hernia repair?

a)

To retract the spermatic cord

b)

To retract the Poupart ligament

c)

To drain the wound postoperatively

d)

To irrigate the wound postoperatively

2.

Which of the following procedures involves a surgeon entering into the pleural space?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingoophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

3.

What clamp should the CST have ready to occlude the ureters during a nephrectomy?

a)

Right angle

b)

Allis

c)

Tonsil

d)

Kelly

4.

When does intubation occur on a patient whose surgery will be performed in the prone position?

a)

After the patient is positioned prone

b)

When the patient is in POHA

c)

With the patient on their gurney in the supine position

d)

With the patient in the lateral position on the Operating room bed

5.

Select the correct stapling device used to perform an end to end anastomosis during a low anterior anastomosis.

a)

LDS stapler

b)

EEA stapler

c)

GIA stapler

d)

Purse-string stapler

6.

The surgeon needs to decompress the gallbladder during a cholecystectomy, which of the following instruments would be used?

a)

Maloney dilator

b)

Randall Forceps

c)

Ochsner trocar

d)

Mayo scoop

7.

When assisting on orthopedic procedures, what hemostatic agent should the CST (certified surgical technologist) have on the sterile field to control bleeding from bony prominences?

a)

Gelfoam

b)

Bone wax

c)

Electrocautery

d)

Thrombin

8.

Which of the following points during the surgical procedure is an improper time for the CST and circulator to conduct a count of both sharps and sponges?

a)

Prior to the skin incision

b)

At the beginning of closure of the peritoneum or any first layer of an organ cavity

c)

At the conclusion of the procedure

d)

If there is a change of CST and/or circulator during the surgical procedure

9.

What is the name of the layer of connective tissue surrounding the liver and encases the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile ducts within the liver?

a)

Glisson's capsule

b)

Gerota's fascia

c)

Parietal pleura

d)

Visceral pleura

10.

When using laparoscopic instrumentation, one of the greatest hazards posed in the operating room is:

a)

Fire

b)

Pneumoperitoneum

c)

Embolus

d)

Radiation exposure

11.

Which of the following procedures would be recommended for a patient diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

a)

Gastrectomy

b)

Nissen fundoplication

c)

Hemicolectomy

d)

Gastrostomy

12.

Which of the following procedures would be necessary after testicular torsion?

a)

Orchiectomy

b)

Orchiopexy

c)

Prostatectomy

d)

Vasovasostomy

13.

Which of the following statements is true regarding chest compressions?

a)

Health care providers should ensure complete recoil of the chest with each compression.

b)

Compression depth for adults is 3 inches.

c)

Compression rate should be 80 per minute.

d)

Health care providers should give 2 rescue breaths before starting compressions.

14.

The surgical technologist is scrubbed in an ACL reconstruction with a human donor graft. Which of the following tissue implants is the correct term for this graft?

a)

Xenograft

b)

Epidermal graft

c)

Autograft

d)

Allograft

15.

Surgical team members should pass one another in which of the following ways?

a)

front to back

b)

back to front

c)

front to front only

d)

front to front or back to back

16.

A patient is rushed to the operating room subsequent to being exposed to a loud explosion. The patient suddenly cannot hear. Upon exam, the patient has injured their tympanic membrane, which procedure should then take place?

a)

Tympanoplasty

b)

Mastoidectomy

c)

Myringotomy

d)

Cricoid pressure

17.

What type of gas is used to inflate the abdomen to create a pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic procedures?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Oxygen

18.

Which of the following is the insufflator setting for maximum pressure to prevent intraoperative complications of hemodynamic changes, bradycardia, or potential gas emboli during laparoscopic procedures?

a)

10 mm Hg

b)

15 mm Hg

c)

20 mm Hg

d)

25 mm Hg

19.

Which of the following procedures involves the removal of a blood clot in an artery?

a)

CABG (coronary artery bypass graft)

b)

Thrombectomy

c)

Aneurysm repair

d)

Arteriovenous shunt placement

20.

What is the hollow structure that allows passage of instrumentation during laparoscopic surgery?

a)

Obturator

b)

Sheath

c)

Shield

d)

Scope

21.

Ventricular tachycardia is treated by administration of:

a)

Xylocaine

b)

Levophed

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Adrenalin

22.

The surgeon begins to close the uterus during a c-section. Which of the following actions should the surgical technologist take before continuing with the closure of the uterus?

a)

Initiate the closing count.

b)

Obtain dressing material.

c)

Initiate cavity count.

d)

Prepare the urinary catheter.

23.

The surgeon is closing an abdominal incision and needs a retention suture. Which of the following sutures would be most likely used?

a)

PDS

b)

Vicryl

c)

Chromic gut

d)

Quill

24.

A cochlear ear implant procedure is performed to provide a sense of sound when there is permanent damage to what cranial nerve?

a)

Accessory

b)

Trigeminal

c)

Trochlear

d)

Vestibulocochlear

25.

The manipulators possess a specific number of degrees of freedom and rotation. What does the term "degrees of freedom" refer to?

a)

The pitch

b)

The yaw

c)

The up and down, left and right and rotating movement

d)

Clockwise and counterclockwise movement

26.

Which of the following is a possible role of a certified surgical technologist during a code blue?

a)

Administering intravenous medications

b)

Intubating the patient

c)

Providing artificial respirations

d)

Managing defibrillation when applicable

27.

Which needle is used to establish pneumoperitoneum in a laparoscopic procedure?

a)

Verres Needle

b)

Keith Needle

c)

Heparin Needle

d)

Arterial Needle

28.

The wound classification for a ruptured appendix that requires delayed primary closure would be:

a)

Class I-Clean Wound

b)

Class II- Clean Contaminated

c)

Class III- Contaminated

d)

Class IV- Dirty/Infected

29.

To achieve hemostasis of the scalp edges during a craniotomy, the following are required:

a)

Hemoclips

b)

Raney clips

c)

Bulldog clips

d)

Endoclips

30.

The surgical technologist is scrubbed in on a laparotomy. The surgeon asked for the room to be silent. The surgeon holds out his hand with his palm flat and vertical. What type of instrument should the surgical technologist be ready to pass?

a)

Forcep

b)

Scalpel

c)

Clamp

d)

Suction

31.

Which of the following is a non-invasive procedure that determines the pitch, rhythm, quality, and sound of the peripheral vascular system?

a)

Angiography

b)

Computed tomography (CT Scan)

c)

Doppler scanning and ultrasound

d)

Doppler scanning

32.

Which of the following procedures would require the use of a cell saver?

a)

Appendectomy

b)

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

c)

Gastrectomy

d)

Total Abdominal Hysterectomy (TAH)

33.

A hemostat is a what?

a)

Grasping instrument

b)

Retracting instrument

c)

Cutting instrument

d)

Occluding instrument

34.

Blades may often need to be changed during a procedure. What is the safest means of changing a blade frequently?

a)

With forceps

b)

With a needle holder

c)

With a clamp

d)

With your fingers

35.

Which of the following aneurysms is an example of a sacculated aneurysm?

a)

Dilation within the vessel, involves at least one layer of the vessel wall.

b)

Rupture of the blood vessel wall enables blood to escape into surrounding tissues, forming a clot.

c)

Rupture of the inner layer, permitting blood between vessel wall layers.

d)

Distention of the vessel wall on only one side, not around the entire circumference.

36.

A doppler ultrasound uses both the ultrasound waves and the doppler effect. The sound is measured and reflected in a visual image. This image may detect:

a)

Foreign substance in the blood cells

b)

Stagnant blood cells

c)

Moving blood

d)

Blockage in the blood cell

37.

What is the right-angled scissor to perform an arteriotomy together with the 11 blade?

a)

Metzenbaum scissor

b)

Potts scissor

c)

Straight Mayo scissor

d)

Jorgenson scissor

38.

Which of the following retractors is used exclusively in OB/GYN cases?

a)

Balfour

b)

Army – Navy

c)

Auvard weighted speculum

d)

Senn retractor

39.

During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the surgeon needs to grasp a vessel. The surgical technologist will give alan:

a)

Singleys forceps

b)

Ferris Smith forceps

c)

Adson Brown forceps

d)

Debakey forceps

40.

What is the vascular tissue that supplies blood to the duodenum and jejunum?

a)

Mesentery

b)

Peritoneum

c)

Omentum

d)

Cecum

41.

Specimen care is critical; it will be the determinant in many cases for diagnosis. When the surgical technologist receives many specimens prior to passing them off to the circulator, they should?

a)

Verify each one with the surgeon

b)

Verify each one with the circulator

c)

Verify each one with the anesthesiologist

d)

Verify each one with the surgical resident

42.

During surgical procedures, the circulating nurse is responsible for maintaining appropriate records of everything that takes place during the surgery. Besides the operative record, what document is a necessary and legal part of the operative record?

a)

Lot numbers of suture packets

b)

Instrument count sheet

c)

Anesthesia record

d)

Sterilization indicator strips

43.

The surgeon is going to repair a facial laceration, what should the surgical technologist have available?

a)

Tegasorb

b)

Benzoin

c)

Iodophor gauze

d)

Steri Strips

44.

Which of the following is used during cardiovascular and thoracic procedures to open and trim vessels?

a)

Randall forceps

b)

Allen clamp

c)

Babcock tissue forceps

d)

Potts Smith scissors

45.

What is the main safety concern for the electrosurgical plume?

a)

Offensive odor

b)

Viability of cellular contents

c)

Respiratory irritation

d)

Eye irritation

46.

Which of the following staplers may require reloading during an endoscopic procedure?

a)

Linear dissecting stapler

b)

TA stapler

c)

Skin stapler

d)

EEA stapler

47.

During an inguinal hernia repair, the Penrose drain is used for retraction of which of the following structures?

a)

Cooper's ligament

b)

Spermatic cord

c)

Epigastric artery

d)

Inguinal ligament

48.

Which of the following medications will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for most vascular cases?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Heparin

c)

Bacitracin

d)

Gelfoam

49.

Kerrison rongeur's are the preferred instrument used during a:

a)

Abdominoplasty

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Endarterectomy

d)

Laminectomy

50.

A breast biopsy was performed, and the mass removed en bloc. This is considered what type of biopsy?

a)

Needle localization biopsy

b)

Incisional biopsy

c)

Core biopsy

d)

Excisional biopsy

51.

How does a lung transplant procedure start for the recipient?

a)

Median sternotomy

b)

Make incisions on both sides of the chest to minimize risk to heart

c)

A horizontal incision beneath the sternum to minimize damage to sternum

d)

Incision in the posterior thorax

52.

During a thyroidectomy, which muscle will be retracted?

a)

Digastric

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Platysma muscle

d)

Omohyoid muscle

53.

A patient is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy and is placed in a lithotomy position with Allen stirrups. The assistant is responsible for the visualization of the surgical area. What nerve is at risk for injury from inappropriate placement of retractors?

a)

Tibial nerve

b)

Obturator nerve

c)

Deep femoral nerve

d)

Sciatic nerve

54.

Which of the following is the procedure for removal of uterine fibroids?

a)

Endometrial ablation

b)

Oophorectomy

c)

Myomectomy

d)

Hysterectomy

55.

A Mohs procedure will treat what type of cancer?

a)

Basal and squamous cell cancer

b)

Melanomas

c)

Endometrial cancer

d)

Prostate cancer

56.

A patient has been diagnosed with a left sliding indirect hernia. What structure is most commonly involved?

a)

Sigmoid

b)

Cecum

c)

Bladder

d)

Descending colon

57.

Subsequent to a colon resection the peritoneum is typically sutured with what?

a)

2-0 absorbable

b)

2 absorbable

c)

0 absorbable

d)

5-0 absorbable

58.

______ is the viewing of a joint.

a)

Laparoscopy

b)

Ophthalmology

c)

Bronchoscopy

d)

Arthroscopy

59.

The surgeon is using an autogenous vein graft for the vascular procedure scheduled in your room. He has requested a valvulotome. What is the function of a valvulotome?

a)

To perform a balloon angioplasty

b)

To remove the valves in the vein that might prevent arterial blood flow

c)

To make an incision in the vein for vascular access

d)

To make an incision into the cornea

60.

Which of the following conditions is an indication for a Nissen fundoplication?

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

Sphincter of Oddi stenosis

d)

Pancreatic cancer

61.

Which of the following statements correctly describe true diverticulosis?

a)

A. Twisting of the sigmoid colon

b)

B. Weakness in just the mucosa and submucosa

c)

C. Weakness in all layers of the bowel wall, typically where blood vessels enter between antimesenteric and mesenteric taenia

d)

D. Obstruction caused by bowel telescoping

62.

Which of the following procedures would be termed Class III (contaminated)?

a)

Pancreatectomy

b)

Cholecystectomy

c)

Open fracture

d)

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

63.

For which of the following procedures would the CST (certified surgical technologist) have a minor tray and craniotomy tray on the sterile field?

a)

Craniotomy

b)

Laminectomy

c)

Thyroidectomy

d)

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

64.

During a Whipple procedure, the surgeon will identify and isolate the right gastric and gastroduodenal arteries. Which of the following should the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready to pass off?

a)

Hemoclips

b)

Scissors

c)

Silk ties

d)

Lap sponges

65.

To preserve the uterus and a woman's fertility at child bearing age, which is the procedure of choice to perform when she has been diagnosed with uterine fibroids?

a)

Hysterectomy

b)

Myomectomy

c)

Tubal Anastomosis

d)

Dilation and Curettage

66.

In which of the following circumstances would the use of the cell-saver be contraindicated?

a)

During spinal fixation surgery

b)

During an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm repair

c)

Anytime that there is potential contamination of the blood from bile or bowel

d)

During surgery to repair a ruptured spleen

67.

Which of the following sutures would the CST (certified surgical technologist) have on the sterile field for a tuboplasty?

a)

0 absorbable

b)

2 – 0 non – absorbable

c)

8 – 0 absorbable

d)

8 – 0 non – absorbable

68.

The most common site for harvesting an autologous bone graft is the anterior or posterior iliac crest. Which of the following is not a common complication of harvesting an autologous bone graft from the iliac crest?

a)

infection

b)

fracture

c)

immobility

d)

hematoma

69.

During hip procedures when muscle needs to be retracted, which the following is the retractor of choice?

a)

Balfour

b)

Bookwalter

c)

Israel

d)

Deaver

70.

Which of the following procedures is appropriate for a pregnant woman with an incompetent cervix?

a)

Episiotomy

b)

Marsupialization

c)

Shiller’s

d)

Shirodkar’s

71.

Which of the following refers to a procedure for removal of the globe of the eyeball in patients with a malignant neoplasm?

a)

Iridectomy

b)

Enucleation

c)

Dacryocystorhinostomy

d)

Scleral buckle

72.

Which incision would provide the best approach and visualization for an open cholecystectomy?

a)

Left Kocher incision

b)

Right Kocher incision

c)

Left Flank incision

d)

Right Flank incision

73.

Removing a kidney due to a tumor, disease or injury is referred to as?

a)

Nephrostomy

b)

Nephrectomy

c)

Nephroscopy

d)

Nephroureterectomy

74.

A patient diagnosed with PAD, Peripheral artery disease, will commonly experience claudication. What is a symptom of claudication?

a)

Cramping pain, usually during exercise

b)

Syncope

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

75.

Which of the following procedures would establish a new connection between the common bile duct and duodenum?

a)

Cholecystectomy

b)

Choledochojejunostomy

c)

CBDE

d)

Choledochoduodenostomy

76.

Many orthopedic procedures require precise steps to be incorporated to achieve a positive outcome. During an ORIF (open reduction internal fixation) after the surgeon used a drill and drill guide to drill the first hole, what would be next?

a)

Tap the hole if self tapping screws are used

b)

Insert screw

c)

Place bone holder

d)

Measure with a depth gauge

77.

Which of the following is a passive warming technique that should not be used intra-operatively to prevent hypothermia?

a)

Warmed cotton or reflective blankets

b)

Forced-air warming

c)

Energy transfer pads

d)

Circulating water garments

78.

Resection of a vestibular schwannoma is performed to remove tumors from the branch of what cranial nerve?

a)

VII

b)

X

c)

III

d)

VIII

79.

What is the purpose of using an argon enhanced electrosurgery?

a)

It focuses the current to a specific area

b)

Increases smoke plume

c)

Decreases the efficiency of the procedure

d)

Causes spark to occur

80.

What will the CST (certified surgical technologist) do with soiled sponges at the surgical field?

a)

Pass them to the circulator

b)

Discard them into a kick bucket

c)

Keep them in a safe area on the back table

d)

Leave them on the operative field

81.

A surgical position not often used in minimally invasive surgery is:

a)

Lithotomy

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Lateral

82.

A patient diagnosed with a thyroid disorder and hyperthyroidism. The patient is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. What type of skin incision be made?

a)

Lanz

b)

Maylard

c)

Langer's lines

d)

Chevron

83.

What dressing should the surgical technologist have available for a hydrocelectomy?

a)

Ace bandage

b)

Gauze packing

c)

Scrotal support

d)

Elastoplast

84.

A Laparoscopic surgical procedure would convert to the traditional open approach for what reason?

a)

It will allow a faster recovery for the patient.

b)

It will provide better exposure and visualization.

c)

It will help prevent infection and sepsis.

d)

It will minimize adhesions.

85.

Which of the following instruments should the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready after the initial incision is made?

a)

Army-Navy retractor

b)

Bovie pencil

c)

Metzenbaum scissors

d)

Kelly clamps

86.

When an intra-operative X-ray is required, to ensure prevention of contamination between the surgical patient and the surgical technologist, what needs to take place?

a)

The surgical technologist steps out of the room.

b)

The surgical technologist needs to don a lead apron.

c)

The X-ray machine needs to be closer to the surgical patient.

d)

The X-ray cassette needs to be covered with a sterile cover.

87.

Which of the following procedures involves the passage of a small camera through the distal gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingoophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

88.

The surgeon is doing an ulnar nerve repair, what is used and passed around the freed segment of the nerve to aid in handling it for further dissection until the length of the nerve has been freed?

a)

Umbilical tapes

b)

Cottonoid patties

c)

Kitner

d)

Ray-tec sponge

89.

What term best describes performing a surgical procedure in real time from a distant location?

a)

Expert system

b)

Telemedicine

c)

Geometry

d)

Telesurgery

90.

Which of the following retractors will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for an open appendectomy?

a)

Rongeur

b)

Army – Navy

c)

O’Connor – O’Sullivan

d)

Weitlaner

91.

Where does the surgical team member manipulating the camera usually stand during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

a)

On the right side of the operating room table across from the surgeon.

b)

To the right of the surgeon

c)

At the head of the table

d)

At the foot of the table

92.

Who is the member of the surgical team who determines where the tourniquet is placed?

a)

Surgeon

b)

Surgical Technologist

c)

Circulating Nurse

d)

Anesthesiologist

93.

Which of the following postoperative complications can result in bowel obstructions?

a)

Surgical site hemorrhage

b)

Evisceration

c)

Adhesions

d)

Dehiscence

94.

What is the appropriate sequence of events when performing basic life support (BLS) for an infant who is choking?

a)

Hold the patient so their head is below their body, do 5 chest thrusts, turn patient over, do 5 back blows, then repeat.

b)

Hold patient so their head is above their body, do 5 chest thrusts, turn the patient over so their head is below their body, do 5 back blows, then repeat.

c)

Hold patient so their head is above their body, do 5 chest thrusts, then the patient face up, then do 5 back blows, then repeat.

d)

Hold patient so their head is below their body, do 5 back blows, turn the patient face up, then do 5 chest thrusts, then repeat.

95.

The surgeon is performing a cesarean section, which retractor is used to protect the bladder?

a)

Goodell

b)

O’Sullivan-O’Connor

c)

De Lee

d)

Heaney-Ballantine

96.

After developing seizures, your child is referred to a neurologist. They have diagnosed them with hydrocephalus, or water on the brain. What is the recommended permanent treatment to correct this pathology?

a)

V-P shunt

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Decompressive craniectomy

d)

Burr hole placement

97.

The surgeon is going to perform a tuboplasty; what solution should the surgical technologist have on the sterile field?

a)

Monsel’s solution

b)

Vasopressin

c)

Lugol’s solution

d)

Indigo carmine

98.

Peptic Ulcer disease is treated by completing a vagotomy with pyloroplasty. What cranial nerve will be ligated during the procedure?

a)

Cranial nerve VII

b)

Cranial nerve I

c)

Cranial nerve X

d)

Cranial nerve XI

99.

What term is used to refer to a hernia when both a direct and indirect hernia is present?

a)

Richter's

b)

Hiatal

c)

Pantaloon

d)

Ventral

100.

You are assigned to OR2. The surgeon approaches you and asks that you make sure you have a tumescent solution for the first case. What type of procedure is the surgeon performing?

a)

TURP

b)

Liposuction

c)

Compound fracture

d)

Bowel resection