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Cardiovascular System Study Guide

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the inner layer of the heart called?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Pericardium

d)

Epicardium

2.

Which layer of the heart is the muscular middle?

a)

Myocardium

b)

Endocardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

Pericardium

3.

What is the outer layer of the heart called?

a)

Epicardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Pericardium

4.

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood?

a)

Right atrium (RA)

b)

Left atrium (LA)

c)

Left ventricle (LV)

d)

Right ventricle (RV)

5.

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?

a)

Right ventricle (RV)

b)

Left ventricle (LV)

c)

Right atrium (RA)

d)

Left atrium (LA)

6.

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood?

a)

Left atrium (LA)

b)

Right atrium (RA)

c)

Right ventricle (RV)

d)

Left ventricle (LV)

7.

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the body?

a)

Left ventricle (LV)

b)

Right ventricle (RV)

c)

Left atrium (LA)

d)

Right atrium (RA)

8.

Match the following heart valves to their locations:

a)

Tricuspid

1.

Right AV valve

b)

Mitral

2.

Left AV valve

c)

Pulmonic

3.

Right semilunar valve

d)

Aortic

4.

Left semilunar valve

9.

What is the function of the SA Node in the cardiac conduction system?

a)

Acts as the pacemaker of the heart, 60–100 bpm

b)

Initiates ventricular contraction directly

c)

Regulates blood pressure in the aorta

d)

Controls the closing of heart valves

10.

What is the function of the AV Node in the cardiac conduction system?

a)

Delays impulse, 40–60 bpm

b)

Initiates heartbeat, 60–100 bpm

c)

Contracts ventricles, 20–40 bpm

d)

Regulates blood pressure

11.

What is the correct order of electrical conduction in the heart according to the mnemonic 'Some Angry Birds Buy Purple Raisins'?

a)

SA → AV → Bundle of His → Bundle branches → Purkinje → Rhythm

b)

AV → SA → Bundle branches → Purkinje → Rhythm

c)

SA → Bundle branches → AV → Purkinje → Rhythm

d)

Bundle of His → SA → AV → Purkinje → Rhythm

12.

Fill in the blank: The Bundle of His is followed by the _______ in the cardiac conduction pathway.

a)

R/L Bundle Branches

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

SA Node

d)

Atrial muscle

13.

Which phase of the cardiac action potential is associated with sustained contraction and prevents tetany?

a)

Plateau phase (Phase 2)

b)

Rapid depolarization (Phase 0)

c)

Final repolarization (Phase 3)

d)

Resting membrane potential (Phase 4)

14.

Depolarization in the cardiac action potential involves Na+ moving in and K+ moving out, leading to contraction.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which of the following can cause arrhythmias according to the 'Watch for' section?

a)

Na+ imbalances

b)

K+ imbalances

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Both B and C

16.

Fill in the blank: During atrial systole, the ______ contract.

a)

atria

b)

ventricles

c)

lungs

d)

arteries

17.

Which mnemonic helps remember the heart sounds S1 and S2?

a)

S1 = Start, S2 = Stop

b)

S1 = Systole, S2 = Silence

c)

S1 = Sound, S2 = Silence

d)

S1 = Strong, S2 = Soft

18.

Cardiac Output (CO) = ______ × SV

a)

HR

b)

BP

c)

RR

d)

TV

19.

Cardiac Output & Hemodynamics: Fill in the blank. Stroke Volume (SV) = ______ per beat

a)

blood

b)

oxygen

c)

pressure

d)

plasma

20.

What does Preload refer to?

a)

stretch before contraction

b)

force after contraction

c)

relaxation after contraction

d)

shortening during contraction

21.

What does Afterload refer to?

a)

resistance after contraction

b)

volume of blood in the ventricle after filling

c)

rate of heart contraction

d)

pressure in the atria during diastole

22.

What does Contractility refer to?

a)

strength of contraction

b)

rate of relaxation

c)

amount of blood in the heart

d)

electrical activity of the heart

23.

Cardiac Output & Hemodynamics: According to the Frank-Starling Law, more stretch results in more ______ (to a point).

a)

force

b)

fatigue

c)

resistance

d)

volume

24.

Which of the following are symptoms of cardiovascular issues?

a)

Chest pain, SOB, fatigue

b)

Palpitations, edema, dizziness

c)

Syncope, LOC changes

d)

All of the above

25.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

a)

Smoking

b)

Age

c)

Genetics

d)

All of the above

26.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

a)

Diet

b)

Exercise

c)

Age

d)

Smoking

27.

What are cardiac biomarkers used to assess?

a)

Troponin, CK-MB

b)

Hemoglobin, Hematocrit

c)

Glucose, Insulin

d)

Sodium, Potassium

28.

BNP is used to assess which condition?

a)

heart failure

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

chronic kidney disease

d)

asthma

29.

What does a lipid profile measure?

a)

cholesterol

b)

blood sugar

c)

hemoglobin

d)

calcium

30.

What does an ECG/EKG measure?

a)

electrical activity

b)

blood pressure

c)

body temperature

d)

lung capacity

31.

What does an Echo assess?

a)

ejection fraction, valve function

b)

blood glucose levels

c)

lung capacity

d)

liver enzymes

32.

What are the requirements for a TEE?

a)

NPO 6 hrs, consent, sedation

b)

Full meal before procedure, no consent, general anesthesia

c)

NPO 2 hrs, no sedation, no consent needed

d)

No fasting, written consent only, local anesthesia

33.

What medications should be held before stress tests?

a)

beta blockers, caffeine

b)

statins, aspirin

c)

insulin, metformin

d)

antibiotics, antivirals

34.

Cardiac catheterization is an invasive test with contrast?

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Cardiac Catheterization: After a cardiac catheterization, which of the following should be monitored?

a)

Site for bleeding

b)

Blood sugar

c)

Blood pressure only

d)

None of the above

36.

What is a potential complication to watch for after a cardiac catheterization involving contrast?

a)

Contrast-induced nephropathy

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

37.

Circulation Review: The right heart pumps blood to the _______.

a)

lungs (pulmonary)

b)

liver

c)

left arm

d)

kidneys

38.

Circulation Review: The left heart pumps blood to the _______.

a)

body (systemic)

b)

lungs (pulmonary)

c)

brain only

d)

liver only

39.

Circulation Review: Arteries carry blood ______ from the heart.

a)

Toward

b)

Away

40.

Circulation Review: Veins carry blood ______ the heart.

a)

Toward

b)

Away

41.

What is the main function of capillaries?

a)

Exchange

b)

Protection

c)

Contraction

d)

Filtration

42.

Assessment: Vascular Disorders (Arterial PAD): Which of the following are symptoms of arterial (PAD)?

a)

Cool, pale, shiny skin

b)

Warm, dry skin

c)

Weak pulses

d)

Both A and C

43.

Which of the following is a symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

a)

Warm, swollen legs

b)

Pain with walking, relieved by rest

c)

Brown skin, wet ulcers on ankles

d)

Pulses present

44.

What type of ulcers are associated with PAD?

a)

Wet ulcers on ankles

b)

Ulcers on toes, dry and painful

c)

Brown skin ulcers

d)

No ulcers

45.

You should elevate legs in patients with PAD.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)?

a)

Pain with walking

b)

Ulcers on toes

c)

Brown skin, wet ulcers on ankles

d)

Pulses absent

47.

Elevating legs is recommended for venous insufficiency.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Fill in the blank: The mnemonic for PAD is _________.

a)

Painful Arterial Dry

b)

Painless Arterial Damp

c)

Painful Venous Dry

d)

Painless Venous Damp

49.

Which of the following is NOT a peripheral red flag for PAD?

a)

Sudden pain, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness

b)

Claudication

c)

Rest pain at night

d)

Warm, swollen legs

50.

Which medication is used to increase walking distance in PAD?

a)

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

b)

Statins

c)

Cilostazol (Pletal)

d)

Aspirin

51.

Fill in the blank: Statins are used in PAD to lower _________.

a)

cholesterol

b)

blood pressure

c)

blood sugar

d)

calcium

52.

What is the effect of Pentoxifylline on red blood cells (RBCs)?

a)

Decreases RBC flexibility

b)

Increases RBC flexibility

c)

No effect on RBC flexibility

d)

Causes RBC destruction

53.

Statins + Grapefruit = ________

a)

Not Allowed

b)

Highly Recommended

c)

No Effect

d)

Always Safe

54.

What does AAA stand for in the context of aneurysms?

a)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

b)

Acute arterial aneurysm

c)

Aortic arch aneurysm

d)

Abdominal artery anomaly

55.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for aneurysms?

a)

Hypertension (HTN)

b)

Smoking

c)

Young age

d)

Older age

56.

An aneurysm greater than ____ cm requires surgical repair.

a)

>5.5

b)

>3.0

c)

>4.0

d)

>6.5

57.

Rupture of an aneurysm is considered a(n) ________.

a)

emergency

b)

routine checkup

c)

minor inconvenience

d)

scheduled procedure

58.

Which of the following is a symptom/sign (S/S) of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Back pain

c)

Headache

d)

Leg swelling

59.

What triggers color change in the fingers in Raynaud’s Disease?

a)

Heat

b)

Cold

c)

Exercise

d)

Sunlight

60.

Which medication is recommended for Raynaud’s Disease?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Diuretics

61.

What is the mnemonic for Raynaud’s Disease?

a)

RED = Run, Eat, Dance

b)

RAY = Red, Achy, Yikes (Cold!)

c)

RAY = Rest, Avoid, Yawn

d)

RED = Rest, Exercise, Diet

62.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow’s Triad for Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)?

a)

Stasis (immobility)

b)

Endothelial injury

c)

Hypercoagulability

d)

Hypotension

63.

What is the recommended prevention for Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)?

a)

Bed rest

b)

Ambulation, compression, heparin

c)

High salt diet

d)

Antibiotics

64.

Which laboratory value should be monitored when treating VTE with heparin?

a)

PT

b)

aPTT

c)

INR

d)

Platelet count

65.

What type of leg ulcer is described as dry, painful, and located on the toes?

a)

Arterial ulcer

b)

Venous ulcer

c)

Diabetic ulcer

d)

Pressure ulcer

66.

For arterial leg ulcers, what should be done with the legs?

a)

Elevate

b)

Keep dependent

c)

Compression

d)

Offloading

67.

Which type of leg ulcer is wet, irregular, and found on the ankle?

a)

Venous ulcer

b)

Arterial ulcer

c)

Diabetic ulcer

d)

Pressure ulcer

68.

What is the recommended management for venous leg ulcers?

a)

Compression & elevation

b)

Offloading

c)

No compression

d)

Glucose control

69.

Diabetic leg ulcers are most commonly found on the ________.

a)

foot

b)

hand

c)

abdomen

d)

face

70.

What does the mnemonic AVE stand for in the context of leg ulcers?

a)

Arterial = Dependent, Venous = Elevate, Edema = Venous

b)

Arterial = Elevate, Venous = Dependent, Edema = Arterial

c)

Arterial = Edema, Venous = Dependent, Edema = Elevate

d)

Arterial = Venous, Venous = Edema, Edema = Dependent

71.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cellulitis?

a)

Red, hot, swollen skin

b)

Fever/chills

c)

Marked borders

d)

Dry, scaly skin

72.

What is the primary treatment for cellulitis?

a)

Compression

b)

Antibiotics, elevation, warm packs

c)

Offloading

d)

Glucose control

73.

What is the normal blood pressure classification according to the Hypertension worksheet?

a)

<120/<80

b)

120–129/<80

c)

130–139 or 80–89

d)

>140 or >90

74.

What blood pressure range is classified as 'Elevated'?

a)

<120/<80

b)

120–129/<80

c)

130–139 or 80–89

d)

>140 or >90

75.

Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of _________.

a)

130–139 or 80–89

b)

120–129 or 70–79

c)

140–159 or 90–99

d)

110–119 or 60–69

76.

Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of _________

a)

>140 or >90

b)

120-129 and <80

c)

130-139 or 80-89

d)

<120 and <80

77.

According to the mnemonic in the Hypertension worksheet, what is your BP buddy?

a)

120/80

b)

140/90

c)

100/70

d)

130/85

78.

Which of the following is a complication of hypertension affecting the eyes?

a)

Stroke

b)

Retinopathy

c)

CKD

d)

Aneurysms

79.

Which organ is affected by hypertension leading to CKD as a complication?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

80.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a complication of hypertension?

a)

Retinopathy

b)

Stroke

c)

Diabetes

d)

Aneurysms

81.

What assessment is recommended for detecting retinal changes in hypertension?

a)

Check eyes (retinal changes)

b)

Check blood pressure (BP) only

c)

Assess lung sounds

d)

Monitor urine output

82.

Which tests are recommended in the assessment of hypertension?

a)

Urinalysis, BMP, ECG

b)

Liver function tests, Chest X-ray, Colonoscopy

c)

Thyroid panel, Pulmonary function test, MRI brain

d)

Stool occult blood, Serum amylase, EEG

83.

What should be monitored for in patients with hypertension according to the worksheet?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Masked HTN or white coat HTN

c)

Asthma

d)

Anemia

84.

Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE Inhibitors (–prils)?

a)

Dry cough

b)

Constipation

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Bradycardia

85.

What should you do if a patient on ACE Inhibitors develops swelling?

a)

Stop the medication.

b)

Increase the dose of the medication.

c)

Continue the medication and monitor.

d)

Switch to another ACE inhibitor.

86.

Which medication class is similar to ACE inhibitors but does not cause a cough and is kidney protective?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

ARBs (–sartans)

c)

Diuretics

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

87.

Beta-blockers (–lols) should be avoided in patients with which condition?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Asthma (non-selective)

c)

Hypertension

d)

Constipation

88.

Beta-blockers (–lols) cause a decrease in ______ and BP.

a)

HR (heart rate)

b)

RR (respiratory rate)

c)

WBC count

d)

Blood glucose

89.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Calcium Channel Blockers (Amlodipine, Diltiazem)?

a)

Edema

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Constipation

d)

Hyperkalemia

90.

Patients taking Calcium Channel Blockers should avoid which juice?

a)

Grapefruit juice

b)

Apple juice

c)

Orange juice

d)

Pineapple juice

91.

Which type of diuretic is associated with increased potassium and gynecomastia?

a)

Thiazides

b)

Loops

c)

Spironolactone

d)

ARBs

92.

Thiazide diuretics cause a decrease in ______ and an increase in glucose/uric acid.

a)

Potassium (K⁺)

b)

Sodium (Na⁺)

c)

Calcium (Ca²⁺)

d)

Magnesium (Mg²⁺)

93.

What is a risk associated with loop diuretics?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Constipation

d)

Bradycardia

94.

A hypertensive emergency is defined as BP >180/120 with ______ damage.

a)

organ

b)

muscle

c)

skin

d)

bone

95.

Which IV medications are used in hypertensive emergencies?

a)

A) Amlodipine, Diltiazem

b)

B) Nitroglycerin, Furosemide

c)

C) Nitroprusside, Nicardipine

d)

D) Lisinopril, Losartan

96.

What is a key characteristic of urgency in a medical context?

a)

Organ damage is present

b)

No organ damage

c)

Immediate surgery required

d)

High fever

97.

Which oral medications can be used in the management of urgency?

a)

Labetalol, captopril, clonidine

b)

Aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen

c)

Metformin, insulin, glipizide

d)

Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, doxycycline

98.

In urgency, blood pressure should be lowered _______.

a)

slowly

b)

rapidly

c)

immediately

d)

aggressively

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