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WorksheetsPHARM FINAL PART 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The client admitted to the emergency department with shock has been prescribed norepinephrine. The client consumed multiple high-energy beverages prior to the onset of symptoms. What finding should the nurse be most alert for?
a)
exaggerated increase in heart rate and blood pressure
b)
reduced effectiveness of norepinephrine
c)
necessity of prescribing dobutamine rather than norepinephrine
d)
increased risk for vascular collapse
2.
A client is being treated for heart failure. What assessment finding would the nurse interpret as most indicative of improved health status?
a)
Decreased pitting edema
b)
Increased skin turgor
c)
Heart rate of 52
d)
Improved sensorium
3.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with severe heart failure. Milrinone is administered IV. For what adverse effect should the nurse assess?
a)
Hypertension
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Dysrhythmias
d)
Lethargy
4.
A client with heart failure has experienced a worsening of symptoms in recent weeks and the care team has admitted the client and initiated an IV infusion of milrinone. What will the nurse teach the client about this medication?
a)
"This medication will likely be continued while a definitive treatment plan is being created."
b)
"The care team will likely transition you to the oral form of this drug once you've stabilized."
c)
"Before discharge, you will receive education about maintaining your IV at home."
d)
"You may experience a worsening of your symptoms for the first 24 hours, before your body adjusts to the medication."
5.
The nurse has administered a client's scheduled 8 AM dose of trandolapril, prescribed for the treatment of heart failure. The nurse will assess for peak effect during what time range?
a)
12 PM - 2 PM
b)
9 AM - 10 AM
c)
10 AM - 12 PM
d)
2 PM - 4 PM
6.
A client, after presenting at the clinic with sneezing and coughing, is diagnosed with the common cold. Which type of microorganism causes the common cold?
a)
Gram-positive bacteria
b)
Gram-negative bacteria
c)
Virus
d)
Fungus
7.
The nurse is educating the client about the use of pseudoephedrine. Which medication should the client be cautioned about taking concurrently with pseudoephedrine?
a)
anti-infective agents
b)
antihyperglycemics
c)
proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
d)
thyroid preparations
8.
A client is prescribed an antitussive agent with codeine. Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective?
a)
"I will take this medication regularly to prevent coughing and each time that I have a cough."
b)
"This medication contains a narcotic, but it doesn't carry the same risks as stronger narcotics."
c)
"I will call my health care provider if I develop diarrhea when I take it."
d)
"This medication will cause drowsiness, and it might make me breathe slower."
9.
A client has expressed frustration stating, "I've been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant for several days and it still hasn't really cured my cold." What teaching point should the nurse convey to the client?
a)
"Drugs like this can often relieve some of the symptoms of a cold, but they won't cure it."
b)
"Most people find that cold medications are essentially ineffective."
c)
"It usually takes between 8 and 10 days for a decongestant to cure affect cold symptoms."
d)
"Sometimes a decongestant can sometimes mask the effects of your cold, essentially prolonging it."
10.
The nurse is assessing a client suspected of overdose with dextromethorphan. What assessment finding is suggestive of an overdose with the drug?
a)
Hallucinations
b)
Respiratory depression
c)
Kussmaul respirations
d)
Profound diaphoresis
11.
The nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with the common cold. What measure should the nurse recommend implementing to help liquefy cold-related secretions?
a)
Reducing salt intake
b)
Deep breathing
c)
Gargling with normal saline
d)
Increasing fluid intake
12.
A client has purchased an over-the-counter (OTC) cold remedy that advertises a "nondrowsy" formulation. The nurse explains to the client that such a medication likely contains what classification of drug?
a)
A nasal decongestant
b)
A benzodiazepine
c)
An antihistamine
d)
A narcotic analgesic
13.
The nurse is educating an adult client diagnosed with rhinosinusitis with viscous clear mucous about the prescribed guaifenesin 400 mg PO every 4 hours. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification?
a)
"I will ask my pharmacist before taking any over-the-counters."
b)
"I will drink at least 8 ounces of water with each dose."
c)
"The drug will suppress my cough so I can sleep easier."
d)
"The drug is not affected by taking it with or without meals."
14.
A client is taking guaifenesin 200 mg every 4 hours. What finding would best indicate the medication has had the desired outcome?
a)
Client is able to mobilize secretions.
b)
Client reports reduced coughing.
c)
Client remains free of nasal congestion.
d)
Client reports increased energy and decreased malaise.
15.
A client having an allergic reaction to shellfish describes chest tightness and difficulty breathing. Which process is occurring?
a)
Contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi
b)
Suppression of the vagus nerve endings producing tachycardia
c)
Decreased permeability of the veins and capillaries
d)
Decreased secretion of the mucous glands
16.
A client is having an anaphylactic reaction to an insect sting. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the client experiencing?
a)
type I
b)
type II
c)
type III
d)
type IV
17.
A client, prescribed cephalexin for an upper respiratory infection 7 days ago, develops myalgia and fever. What reaction is responsible for this symptomology?
a)
A new infection
b)
An autoimmune disease
c)
Septicemia
d)
Serum sickness
18.
A client, scheduled to receive one unit of packed red blood cells, has a history of an allergic reaction to a transfusion in the past. What class of medication will assist in preventing a reaction to the packed red blood cell transfusion?
a)
Antipyretics
b)
Antimicrobials
c)
Antianginals
d)
Antihistamines
19.
What is the chemical mediator released in immune and inflammatory response to allergic reactions?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Mast cells
c)
Epinephrine
d)
Histamine
20.
When describing the benefits of second-generation H1 receptor antagonists to those of first-generation H1 receptor antagonists, the nurse should cite what advantage?
a)
Lower cost
b)
Decreased sedation
c)
Absence of adverse effects
d)
Once-weekly dosing
21.
An adult client has reported experiencing a dry mouth and urinary retention after several nights of taking an over-the-counter (OTC) sleep aid. The nurse should suspect that this medication contains what antihistamine?
a)
Loratadine
b)
Promethazine
c)
Diphenhydramine
d)
Olopatadine
22.
The nurse is providing education to a client with a new diagnosis of asthma. Which health education topic is most important for the nurse to share?
a)
"Do not become fatigued. It will trigger asthma attacks."
b)
"Exposure to cold temperatures can trigger asthma."
c)
"Do not consume foods high in sodium."
d)
"Prolonged exposure to direct sunlight will trigger asthma."
23.
The nurse is providing education to a client with asthma on the therapeutic action of inhaled corticosteroid agents. How will the nurse describe the action?
a)
Inhaled corticosteroid agents will depress the central nervous system.
b)
Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce respiratory rate.
c)
Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce bronchodilation.
d)
Inhaled corticosteroid agents reduce airway inflammation.
24.
Which medication is contraindicated for the treatment of acute bronchospasm?
a)
aminophylline
b)
cromolyn
c)
albuterol
d)
corticosteroids
25.
Albuterol is administered to a client to promote bronchodilation. Administration of albuterol, a beta2-adrenergic agonist, results in increased production of which chemical compound?
a)
glucose
b)
adrenaline
c)
cyclic adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
d)
glucagon
26.
A client admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of status asthmaticus is prescribed a high dose of nebulized albuterol. The nurse should assess the client based on the increased risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Hypermagnesemia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Hypokalemia
27.
A client has been prescribed a medication to decrease the nighttime episodes of bronchoconstriction and prevent asthma attacks. What type of medication does the nurse suspect has been prescribed?
a)
xanthine alkaloids
b)
epinephrine
c)
anticholinergics
d)
leukotriene modifiers
28.
A client with a diagnosis of asthma has been prescribed ipratropium 2 puffs QID. What is the most likely goal of this treatment?
a)
Promoting short-term relief of acute asthma symptoms
b)
Relieving acute bronchoconstriction
c)
Promoting long-term management of asthma symptoms
d)
Promoting blood flow in the alveolar capillaries
29.
The nurse teaching a client about theophylline will include the identification of which possible symptoms of toxicity?
a)
Polyuria and polyphagia
b)
Confusion and decreased level of consciousness
c)
Agitation and arrhythmias
d)
Chest pain and shortness of breath
30.
A client has been prescribed a combination diuretic agent. The nurse knows that the major purpose of this combination is what?
a)
It prevents sodium imbalance.
b)
It is less expensive than two medications.
c)
It prevents potassium imbalance.
d)
It prevents allergic reactions.
31.
A client is receiving digoxin and a potassium supplement. When monitoring daily laboratory values, what should the potassium level be for this client?
a)
1.5–3.0 mEq/L
b)
3.5–5.0 mEq/L
c)
5.0–7.5 mEq/L
d)
6.0–6.5 mEq/L
32.
A hospital client with a diagnosis of liver failure has been prescribed a dose of furosemide in order to treat ascites. The nurse who is providing this client's care should prioritize assessments for the signs and symptoms of what health problem?
a)
Peritonitis
b)
Liver cancer
c)
Cirrhosis
d)
Hepatic encephalopathy
33.
To which client should the nurse anticipate administering mannitol?
a)
the client with increased intracranial pressure secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
b)
the client in a hypertensive crisis with blood pressure 222/141 mm Hg
c)
the client with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis
d)
the postpartum client with dependent edema 3+
34.
A client has been prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate to lower the potassium level. What is the action of the drug?
a)
It decreases the absorption of exogenous potassium.
b)
It increases urinary excretion of potassium.
c)
It combines with potassium in the colon for elimination.
d)
It releases sodium to acidify urine with potassium.
35.
A 4-year-old child has eaten the mother's prenatal vitamins. Which medication is indicated to address possible iron toxicity?
a)
Deferoxamine
b)
Penicillamine
c)
Sucralfate
d)
Magnesium sulfate
36.
A client required several doses of furosemide and now has developed hypokalemia. What medication will be prescribed to treat this adverse effect?
a)
Potassium chloride
b)
Calcium gluconate
c)
Zinc gluconate
d)
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
37.
An older adult client's compromised nutritional status has necessitated the use of a nutritional formula. When reviewing this client's laboratory findings, the nurse should prioritize which value?
a)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
b)
Serum albumin
c)
Liver enzymes
d)
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
38.
A nurse is teaching an adult client about nutrition. Which statement is included in the teaching?
a)
"Carbohydrates are functional and structural components of all body tissues."
b)
"Carbohydrates are more energy dense than fats or protein."
c)
"You should try to drink at least 2 liters of water each day."
d)
"Your daily protein intake should be at least 35 grams."
39.
A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran by IV to a client with severe iron-deficiency anemia. What action should the nurse perform prior to administration that is specific to the use of this medication?
a)
Confirm sodium levels
b)
Confirm the presence of emergency resuscitation equipment.
c)
Perform a head-to-toe assessment.
d)
Check the client record for allergies.
40.
A client has been diagnosed with malnutrition, including vitamin A deficiency. The client's body will compensate for the inadequate intake of vitamin A by performing which action?
a)
releasing vitamin A stores from the liver
b)
increasing bone remodeling to free stored vitamin A
c)
slowing overall metabolic activity
d)
synthesizing small amounts of vitamin A from extracellular vitamin C
41.
What environmental factor is believed to have contributed most to increased weight in today's generation of children?
a)
increasingly sedentary lifestyles
b)
decreased time available for food preparation
c)
increased social acceptance of obesity
d)
increased incidence of depression and ineffective coping
42.
The nurse is providing education to the parent of a child who is classified as overweight. The nurse should inform the parent that children who are overweight are at increased risk of developing:
a)
glaucoma.
b)
fatty liver disease.
c)
type 1 diabetes.
d)
hypertension.
43.
A male client is taking cimetidine. Which adverse effect is more likely to occur with cimetidine than with other histamine2 receptor antagonists?
a)
Prostatic hypertrophy
b)
Hypertension
c)
Gynecomastia
d)
Seizures
44.
A client with ulcers has asked the nurse if it would be acceptable to take bismuth subsalicylate. Before recommending an over-the-counter (OTC) formulation of bismuth subsalicylate, the nurse should conduct which client assessment?
a)
Immunization history
b)
Allergy status
c)
Cognition
d)
Normal bowel pattern
45.
An older adult has been taking calcium carbonate antacid tablets after each meal to treat acid reflux. The client previously achieved therapeutic effects by taking two to three tablets but now has to take four or five tablets. Which phenomenon will the nurse teach the client about?
a)
acid rebound leading to medication tolerance
b)
paradoxical effects of calcium carbonate
c)
limitations of oral administration of calcium antacids
d)
immunity to calcium carbonate as a result of medication misuse
46.
Which client being treated for peptic ulcers or GERD will the nurse monitor most closely for potential drug-drug interactions as a result of therapy?
a)
the client taking cimetidine
b)
the client using over-the-counter antacids
c)
the client taking rabeprazole
d)
the client taking omeprazole
47.
An older adult client is administered dimenhydrinate. Which is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
a)
Encourage fluids with this client.
b)
Have the client void after administration.
c)
Maintain IV access.
d)
Protect from injury.
48.
The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed hydroxyzine. What adverse effect should the nurse mention during teaching?
a)
Pruritus
b)
Drowsiness
c)
Urinary frequency
d)
Bradycardia
49.
A hospital client has a standing prescription for aprepitant on an as-needed basis. The client should be encouraged to request a dose of the drug in response to which event?
a)
Anticipation of becoming nauseous
b)
The same time each day
c)
The onset of nausea
d)
When nausea results in vomiting
50.
A client will soon begin chemotherapy for the treatment of breast cancer and has been prescribed oral antiemetics. What will the nurse teach the client about the safe and effective use of these medications?
a)
"Whenever possible, try to take antiemetics before you anticipate experiencing nausea."
b)
"Antiemetics work best if you can hold off taking them until your nausea is more severe."
c)
"Taking antiemetics too often may lead to a tolerance and a rebound nausea effect."
d)
"Try distraction and mindfulness exercises before resorting to taking your antiemetics."
51.
What is the result of failing to respond to the defecation reflex?
a)
Involuntary evacuation
b)
Increased sensory stimulation
c)
Decreased sensory stimulation
d)
Diarrhea
52.
The nurse is educating new parents on prevention and treatment of constipation with children. What is the most effective and safest way to treat constipation in a 2-year-old prior to bowel training?
a)
Milk of magnesia
b)
Sorbitol
c)
Bisacodyl suppositories
d)
Glycerin suppositories
53.
The nurse should know that lactulose achieves a therapeutic effect by which means?
a)
Decreasing the viscosity of intestinal contents in the duodenum
b)
Pulling water into the intestinal lumen by osmotic pressure
c)
Irritating the intestinal mucous membrane
d)
Relaxing the muscle tone of the ileocecal valve and anal sphincter
54.
A community health nurse is conducting a health promotion session with a group from a local seniors' center. The nurse has addressed the issue of laxative overuse in this population. The nurse should highlight what consequence of the overuse of laxatives?
a)
Dependence
b)
Impaired absorption of water-soluble vitamins
c)
Fecal incontinence
d)
Abdominal pain
55.
The nurse is assessing an older adult client who reports diarrhea. What should the nurse explore as the most likely cause?
a)
Fluid volume deficit
b)
Antihypertensive agents
c)
Laxative abuse
d)
Anemia
56.
The nurse is preparing to administer bismuth subsalicylate to a client. What assessment is most important to make before administration?
a)
Pain
b)
Electrolytes
c)
Allergy to aspirin
d)
Allergy to opioids
57.
Which client experiencing diarrhea would be a candidate for a prescription for octreotide?
a)
a child who has been diagnosed with E. coli infection
b)
an older adult who has been abusing laxatives for several months
c)
a teenage client who has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis
d)
a client with HIV/AIDS who has developed intractable diarrhea
58.
An older adult client has received a third dose of diphenoxylate. In addition to monitoring the number and consistency of the client's stools, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?
a)
Neurological status
b)
Oxygen saturation
c)
Nutritional status
d)
Fluid and electrolyte balance
59.
An 8-month-old infant admitted with a new diagnosis of diabetes is to receive 1 unit of regular insulin. How will that 1 unit be administered?
a)
orally
b)
intravenously
c)
with a 1-mL syringe
d)
using insulin U-10
60.
A client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes has attended educational sessions to provide insight into the diagnosis. Which of the client's statements should prompt the nurse to provide further teaching?
a)
"I don't like getting this diagnosis, but I know that treatment now can prevent future health consequences."
b)
"I'm disappointed, but I take some solace in the fact that I won't ever have to have insulin injections."
c)
"People always tried to encourage me to lose weight, and I suppose they might have been right."
d)
"From what I've learned, I know that the basic problem is that my pancreas can't keep up with my insulin needs."
61.
A hospital client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is prescribed Humulin R on a sliding scale. Based on the client's blood glucose reading, the nurse administered 8 units of insulin at 07:45. The nurse will check the client's blood glucose level at what time to monitor peak effectiveness of the medication?
a)
08:15:00
b)
Between 08:45 and 09:45
c)
Between 09:45 and 10:45
d)
Between 11:15 and 11:45
62.
The nurse is preparing to administer 20 units of NPH insulin to a client. Before administering the medication, the nurse should implement which intervention?
a)
Massage the chosen injection site.
b)
Assess the client's understanding of diabetes.
c)
Assess the client's urine for the presence of glucose.
d)
Have a colleague confirm the dosage.
63.
A client with type 1 diabetes has a medication regimen that includes insulin NPH. The nurse has administered the scheduled dose at 0800 and will expect to first assess for the medication's onset of action at what time?
a)
900
b)
815
c)
830
d)
1000
64.
A client with type 1 diabetes has been prescribed insulin glargine for the first time. What will the nurse teach the client about this medication?
a)
"This insulin will provide a steady amount of insulin over 24 hours."
b)
"If successful, this will eliminate your need to take other forms of insulin."
c)
"It will be important to time administration carefully around your meal schedule."
d)
"It's important to eat at least every 2 hours while taking insulin glargine."
65.
A client with type 1 diabetes has had ramipril added to their medication regimen. When teaching the client about this new medication, the nurse will describe what benefit?
a)
protection against nephropathy
b)
improved hemoglobin A1C levels
c)
delaying the onset of peripheral neuropathy
d)
reducing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring
66.
A client with diabetes has been prescribed pramlintide 15 mcg subcutaneously before meals. The nurse will recognize which additional aspect of the client's diabetes management regimen?
a)
The client also takes insulin before meals.
b)
The client is a candidate for a beta cell transplant.
c)
The client's diabetes is otherwise managed with diet and exercise.
d)
The client has obesity in addition to diabetes.
67.
A client has just been prescribed Lugol's solution 4 to 8 drops every 6 to 8 hours. The nurse will plan care to address which health problem?
a)
Hashimoto thyroiditis
b)
myxedema
c)
chronic hypothyroidism
d)
thyrotoxic crisis
68.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving propranolol for treatment of hyperthyroidism. The nurse is aware that which condition will warrant the tapering or possible discontinuation of propranolol?
a)
thyrotoxic crisis
b)
hypertension
c)
angina pectoris
d)
euthyroid state
69.
A client, being treated for hypothyroidism, has developed symptoms of adrenal insufficiency. What medication will be added to the client's medication regimen?
a)
Anti-infective agent
b)
Corticosteroid agent
c)
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent
d)
Antiadrenergic agent
70.
A client, diagnosed with hypothyroidism, is currently taking an opioid for knee pain. This client is at increased risk for developing which adverse reaction?
a)
Myxedema coma
b)
Pulmonary congestion
c)
Tachycardia
d)
Hyperventilation
71.
A client was successfully treated for thyroid storm earlier in the year. In subsequent health education, the nurse should caution the client against excessive intake of what foods?
a)
Seafood and kelp
b)
Leafy green vegetables and beef
c)
Purine-rich foods
d)
Red wine and aged cheeses
72.
The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of levothyroxine to a client. What assessment should the nurse perform prior to giving the drug?
a)
Level of consciousness and orientation
b)
Oxygen saturation level
c)
Heart rate
d)
Respiratory rate
73.
A 9-year-old female has been diagnosed with precocious puberty. What etiologic factor will the nurse identify for this client's diagnosis?
a)
excess estrogen production
b)
inadequate levels of luteinizing hormone
c)
deficit of follicle-stimulating hormone
d)
impaired corticotropin regulation
74.
An adult client has been diagnosed with a posterior pituitary lesion that has resulted in diabetes insipidus. What is the characteristic sign of this health problem?
a)
Blood glucose levels ³400 mg/dL (22.20 mmol/L)
b)
Copious urine production
c)
Hyperglycemia that is unresponsive to exogenous insulin
d)
Hematuria
75.
A client begins exhibiting signs and symptoms of diabetes insipidus. In addition to administering vasopressin, what intervention should the nurse implement?
a)
falls precautions
b)
keeping the environment warm
c)
withholding fluids
d)
promotion of high-sodium food intake
76.
The nurse has been providing care for a 10-year-old child who receives daily injections of somatotropin to treat growth hormone deficiency. Which assessment finding will the nurse attribute to this medication?
a)
blood glucose 198 mg/dl (11.0 mmol/l)
b)
shortness of breath on exertion
c)
photosensitivity
d)
potassium 5.1 mEq/l (5.1 mmol/l)
77.
A client has been prescribed desmopressin 1 ml IV two times per day. Which assessment will the nurse prioritize when assessing for therapeutic effects?
a)
urine output
b)
weight and height
c)
arterial blood gases
d)
androgen levels
78.
A child with precocious puberty has been referred to the pediatric endocrinology clinic and will begin treatment with leuprolide acetate. The nurse will organize what treatment regimen for the client?
a)
monthly IM injections at the clinic
b)
home administration of weekly subcutaneous injections
c)
weekly IM injections in the home
d)
weekly administration of extended-release oral capsules
79.
A client is diagnosed with a vitamin D deficit. What disorder results from this deficit?
a)
Chondromalacia
b)
Chondritis
c)
Osteomalacia
d)
Osteopenia
80.
An older adult client has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which statement would the nurse include when teaching the client about this diagnosis?
a)
"Osteoporosis is usually the result of a bone injury."
b)
"Osteoporosis can sometimes result from long-term steroid use."
c)
"Osteoporosis results from nonmodifiable risk factors."
d)
"Osteoporosis occurs only in women."
81.
An older adult client has been prescribed oral corticosteroids to decrease the symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When providing teaching, the nurse should inform the client of the risk for developing what disorder?
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Oat cell carcinoma
d)
Paget's disease
82.
An older adult female client with osteoporosis has been prescribed calcitonin to be taken on an outpatient basis. Which education will the nurse provide?
a)
correct technique for nasal administration
b)
dietary changes required to prevent adverse effects
c)
safe subcutaneous self-administration
d)
the importance of adhering to the monthly blood work schedule
83.
A client with suspected adrenal insufficiency has been administered 1 mcg of cosyntropin as an IV bolus. Serum testing 20 minutes later reveals a markedly elevated level of cortisol. What conclusion should the nurse infer from this finding?
a)
The client has normal adrenocortical function.
b)
The client has primary adrenal insufficiency.
c)
The client has Cushing's disease.
d)
The client has Addison disease.
84.
A child has received a diagnosis of Addison disease, and the nurse is providing health education to the child's family around hormone replacement therapy. What assessment will the nurse prioritize during scheduled follow-up appointments?
a)
assessment for fluid deficit
b)
respiratory assessment
c)
assessment of growth and development
d)
assessment for signs and symptoms of infection
85.
A client diagnosed with Addison disease has experienced profound stress resulting from the collapse of his small business and subsequent conflict with his business partner. How might the presence of these stressors affect the client's long-term hydrocortisone medication regimen?
a)
The client should take the scheduled hydrocortisone later in the day.
b)
The ratio of mineralocorticoids to glucocorticoids should be adjusted.
c)
The client's hydrocortisone should be temporarily withheld.
d)
The client's hydrocortisone should be temporarily increased.
86.
A 26-year-old's gradual development of a "moon face," coupled with protracted weight gain, has caused the nurse practitioner to suspect the possibility of Cushing's disease. When explaining this health problem to the client, how should the nurse describe it?
a)
"Cushing's disease happens when your pituitary gland doesn't stimulate your other glands enough."
b)
"Cushing's disease is a result of an overproduction of steroid hormones by your adrenal glands."
c)
"Cushing's disease most often happens when people are taking corticosteroid medications and stop them abruptly."
d)
"Cushing's disease often results from a growth on your kidney that causes inadequate production of steroids."
87.
A client is receiving morphine orally every 4 hours in the home setting. Which assessment is most important to emphasize when teaching the family about this medication?
a)
level of consciousness
b)
respiratory rate
c)
bowel pattern
d)
functional ability
88.
A 30-year-old client has been ordered meperidine 100 mg IM every 4 hours for 2 days after a fractured femur. What action should the nurse take?
a)
Give the medication as ordered.
b)
Administer half the dose.
c)
Call the health care provider for a smaller dose.
d)
Give the dose by mouth.
89.
A nurse administrates an opioid medication to a client. For what side effect should the nurse assess?
a)
Lower extremity paresthesia
b)
Drowsiness
c)
Occipital headache
d)
Polyuria
90.
The nurse administers an opioid analgesic to a client. When assessing for therapeutic effects, the nurse will perform which action?
a)
Observe the client when they are unaware of the assessment.
b)
Assess the client's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
c)
Using a pain scale, ask the client to describe the pain.
d)
Ask the client whether they are still in pain.
91.
A nurse is teaching a client about the prescription for acetaminophen to be taken at home. This medication consists of acetaminophen and what other likely drug that enhances the analgesic effect of acetaminophen?
a)
Codeine
b)
Acetylsalicylic acid
c)
Methadone
d)
Tramadol
92.
A terminally ill client has developed increased respiratory secretions and labored breathing. Which medication is prescribed to decrease these symptoms?
a)
meclizine
b)
ampicillin
c)
azithromycin
d)
morphine sulfate
93.
What action should the nurse take when a young adult is prescribed hydromorphone 2 mg orally every 6 hours?
a)
Administer the medication as prescribed.
b)
Question the health care provider about the route.
c)
Call the health care provider for a smaller dose.
d)
Question the health care provider about the frequency.
94.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a nonopioid analgesic in addition to a narcotic analgesic. What effect will the nurse expect?
a)
antagonism
b)
additive effect
c)
interference
d)
increased exertion
95.
The nurse administers prescribed naloxone to a client. Following administration, the nurse should assess for what potential adverse effect?
a)
increased blood pressure
b)
decreased oxygen saturation
c)
increased temperature
d)
increased respiratory rate
96.
An 88-year-old woman has fallen and suffered a hip fracture. The health care provider has prescribed meperidine 75 mg orally every 3 hours for short-term pain relief. Which is the nurse's best action?
a)
Question the use of meperidine for a client of this age.
b)
Administer the medication as prescribed and monitor the client's pain.
c)
Question the use of meperidine for a postmenopausal female client.
d)
Confirm the frequency of administration with the health care provider.
97.
The nurse is caring for an infant who has been prescribed a topical corticosteroid. What principle should guide the nurse's actions during administration?
a)
Topical medications on infants' skin must be covered with an impermeable barrier.
b)
Infants' skin is more permeable to medication than older clients' skin.
c)
Infants have more subcutaneous fat than older clients, so higher concentrations of topical medications are often necessary.
d)
Systemic drugs are preferable to topical medications in the care of infants.
98.
The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed immunosuppressant tacrolimus ointment for atopic dermatitis. During teaching, the nurse will ensure that the client has been informed of what risk associated with therapy?
a)
risk for chemical burn injury
b)
risk for alopecia
c)
risk for opportunistic fungal infections
d)
increased risks for skin cancer and lymphoma
99.
A client has been prescribed topical acyclovir for a type 2 herpes simplex infection. When monitoring for therapeutic effect, the nurse will perform which assessment?
a)
Inspect the client's genitalia.
b)
Inspect the client's oral cavity and mucous membranes.
c)
Inspect the client's lips for cold sore resolution.
d)
Inspect the client's face for density and size of lesions.
100.
A client is having a follow-up appointment with their health care provider to provide data that the provider will document as part of the iPLEDGE program. What information will the client give to their health care provider?
a)
information on their use of contraception
b)
details on any interaction with an immunocompromised person
c)
information on any alcohol or recreational substance use
d)
results of fecal occult blood testing
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