wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Instrumentation Physic Prep

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In A-mode ultrasound, which axes show echo strength and depth?

a)

z-axis strength, y-axis depth

b)

y-axis strength, x-axis depth

c)

x-axis strength, y-axis depth

d)

x-axis strength, z-axis depth

2.

Which statement best describes the output of A-mode?

a)

A set of vertical spikes showing amplitude and depth

b)

A color map of velocity vectors

c)

A gray-scale image with different dot brightness

d)

A 3D rendering of tissue surfaces

3.

In B-mode imaging, what determines the brightness of each dot?

a)

Depth compensation by the system

b)

Probe frequency

c)

Strength of the return echo

d)

Speed of sound in tissue

4.

Which term describes a structure that appears nearly white on B-mode, and why?

a)

Hypoechoic, due to weak reflectors

b)

Hyperechoic, due to strong reflectors

c)

Isoechoic, due to equal echoes

d)

Anechoic, due to no echoes

5.

Which comparison between A-mode and B-mode is accurate?

a)

A-mode forms images; B-mode lacks images

b)

B-mode shows velocity; A-mode shows displacement

c)

A-mode uses spikes; B-mode uses brightness dots

d)

Both plot amplitude along the x-axis

6.

In B-mode, amplitude is mapped along which axis?

a)

x-axis of the displayed frame

b)

y-axis of the displayed frame

c)

t-axis representing time

d)

z-axis representing brightness

7.

A fluid-filled cyst appears black on B-mode. What is the correct term and reason?

a)

Isoechoic, because echoes match surrounding

b)

Anechoic, because echoes are absent

c)

Hypoechoic, because echoes are moderate

d)

Hyperechoic, because echoes are strong

8.

Which parameter is needed to place echo dots at the correct depth on an ultrasound screen?

a)

Beam frequency of the transducer

b)

Time for sound to go and return

c)

Amplitude of the returning echoes

d)

Angle of insonation to the target

9.

Which variables does the range equation use to calculate distance to a reflector?

a)

Power and pulse duration

b)

Propagation speed and round‑trip time

c)

Frequency and wavelength

d)

Attenuation and gain settings

10.

What does the 13 microsecond rule mean in ultrasound for soft tissue?

a)

Sound travels 1 cm one way in 13 µs

b)

Sound travels 0.5 cm one way in 13 µs

c)

Sound travels 1 cm round trip in 13 µs

d)

Sound travels 2 cm round trip in 13 µs

11.

How long is the echo round-trip time for a reflector 3 cm deep in soft tissue?

a)

52 µs

b)

39 µs

c)

26 µs

d)

13 µs

12.

Which display mode is shown in the image?

a)

A‑mode amplitude mapping

b)

D‑mode Doppler spectral

c)

B‑mode brightness imaging

d)

M‑mode motion tracing

13.

In M‑mode, what is shown on the x‑axis and y‑axis?

a)

Amplitude and depth

b)

Velocity and time

c)

Depth and time

d)

Time and depth

14.

Which clinical application most commonly uses M‑mode?

a)

Cardiac and obstetric viability

b)

Musculoskeletal tendon imaging

c)

Vascular stenosis quantification

d)

Hepatic lesion characterization

15.

If round-trip time doubles and soft tissue speed stays the same, what happens to the calculated depth?

a)

Depth halves

b)

Depth doubles

c)

Depth unchanged

d)

Depth becomes zero

16.

If a system assumes a speed faster than soft tissue, how does the displayed depth of a reflector change?

a)

Displayed too shallow

b)

Displayed unchanged

c)

Displayed as moving

d)

Displayed too deep

17.

Which statement best describes a nonlinear behavior?

a)

High-pressure peaks slow while troughs speed up in tissue

b)

Beam generates harmonics only at the surface

c)

Wave remains perfectly sinusoidal throughout travel

d)

Wave shape deforms into nonsinusoidal with depth

18.

What are tissue harmonics in ultrasound?

a)

Added frequencies generated by patient tissues

b)

Original transmitted fundamental frequency only

c)

Noise artifacts from superficial structures

d)

Echoes created solely by the transducer hardware

19.

Where are harmonic signals mainly produced in the body?

a)

At the skin surface

b)

As the beam goes deeper in tissue

c)

Equally at all depths

d)

Only in the transducer crystal

20.

Which harmonic is most commonly used for imaging?

a)

Fourth harmonic, four times the fundamental

b)

First harmonic, equal to the fundamental

c)

Second harmonic, two times the fundamental

d)

Third harmonic, three times the fundamental

21.

When harmonic imaging is used with a 2 MHz beam, which signal is usually displayed?

a)

4 MHz narrow second harmonic signal

b)

3 MHz intermediate harmonic signal

c)

2 MHz broad fundamental signal

d)

5 MHz wideband artifact-prone signal

22.

Why does harmonic imaging improve lateral resolution?

a)

Harmonic beams are narrower than fundamental

b)

Surface reverberations broaden the beam

c)

It increases axial resolution only

d)

Frequency filtering widens the main lobe

23.

How does harmonic imaging reduce superficial artifacts?

a)

By generating harmonics mainly at the surface

b)

By ignoring all echoes from deep tissue

c)

By processing only deep-generated harmonic signals

d)

By lowering the transmitted acoustic power

24.

Which component controls the voltage amplitude to transducer elements and sets pulse repetition?

a)

Beam former with delay control

b)

Pulser acting as transmitter

c)

Master synchronizer unit

d)

Receiver gain amplifier

25.

Increasing output power in ultrasound most directly affects which characteristic?

a)

Wave strength entering tissue

b)

Beam width uniformity

c)

Center frequency stability

d)

Echo timing accuracy

26.

What is the main safety concern when increasing output power during scanning?

a)

Shorter pulse repetition period

b)

Higher risk of image artifacts

c)

Greater chance of patient bioeffects

d)

Reduced signal-to-noise ratio

27.

Which statement best reflects the ALARA principle in ultrasound?

a)

Prioritize image brightness over patient exposure

b)

Use highest power for fastest imaging

c)

Keep power and scan time as low as reasonable

d)

Favor long scans to improve averaging

28.

What does the beam former mainly control in array transducers?

a)

Post‑processing dynamic range

b)

Mechanical movement of elements

c)

Timing delays for steering and focus

d)

Amplitude equalization only

29.

Apodization, controlled by the beam former, mainly reduces which artifact?

a)

Side lobes near the focus

b)

Grating lobes from arrays

c)

Speckle from interference

d)

Reverberations from surfaces

30.

What does the master synchronizer do during pulse‑echo operation?

a)

Compensates for attenuation with TGC

b)

Amplifies weak returning echoes

c)

Assigns dynamic receive focusing

d)

Controls echo timing and range determination

31.

Why should a new transmit pulse not be sent before previous echoes return?

a)

To ensure maximum lateral resolution

b)

To prevent range ambiguity errors

c)

To avoid thermal index elevation

d)

To maintain constant PRF across depths

32.

A sonographer increases output power to improve signal‑to‑noise ratio. Which action best maintains ALARA?

a)

Use wider beam and slower frame rate

b)

Increase power and lengthen scan time

c)

Keep power fixed and raise receiver gain

d)

Increase power and reduce scan duration

33.

Which receiver function changes the strength of all returning echoes equally?

a)

Rejection thresholding

b)

Amplification (overall gain)

c)

Compensation (TGC)

d)

Compression of amplitudes

34.

What is the main purpose of Compensation (TGC) in ultrasound?

a)

Reduce dynamic range differences

b)

Boost near-field echoes only

c)

Equalize brightness by depth

d)

Discard low-amplitude noise

35.

Which control applies compensation across depth?

a)

Reject filter toggle

b)

TGC sliders curve

c)

Overall gain knob

d)

Dynamic range menu

36.

Compression in the receiver mainly affects which signal property?

a)

Transducer element sensitivity

b)

Echo travel time

c)

Beam steering

d)

Difference between largest and smallest amplitudes

37.

Dynamic range, as managed by compression, refers to the range of what?

a)

Acoustic power output levels

b)

Transducer operating frequencies

c)

Image pixel spatial resolution

d)

Signal amplitudes within the signal

38.

Demodulation makes signals easier for machines to handle. Which pair are its components?

a)

Filtering and interpolation

b)

Rectification and smoothing

c)

Clamping and dithering

d)

Modulation and averaging

39.

What does rectification do in demodulation?

a)

Compresses the dynamic range of the image

b)

Eliminates low-amplitude signals below threshold

c)

Amplifies all echoes equally across depth

d)

Turns negative voltages into positive voltages

40.

What does smoothing do to the signal during demodulation?

a)

Converts analog data to digital samples

b)

Increases gain for deeper echoes

c)

Sharpens high-frequency components

d)

Wraps an envelope to make it less bumpy

41.

Which receiver function removes signals below a set threshold to reduce noise?

a)

Smoothing

b)

Amplification

c)

Compensation

d)

Rejection

42.

If deeper structures look darker than superficial ones due to attenuation, which adjustment should be made first?

a)

Apply additional rectification

b)

Raise overall gain uniformly

c)

Increase TGC slope and far gain

d)

Lower the reject threshold

43.

Which receiver setting helps remove weak noise but keeps important echoes?

a)

Rejection threshold level

b)

Compression knee position

c)

Demodulation smoothing depth

d)

Overall gain control

44.

Strong echoes fill the display, but weak echoes are hard to see. Which option best restores balance?

a)

Increase compression to reduce dynamic range

b)

Decrease TGC to lower far-field gain

c)

Reduce rectification to keep voltages negative

d)

Raise rejection to remove strong signals

45.

What is the main function of a scan converter in medical imaging?

a)

Stores image data and enables gray-scale display

b)

Generates ultrasound echoes from tissue interfaces

c)

Performs Doppler analysis of blood flow velocities

d)

Controls transducer frequency and beam focusing

46.

What key feature did analog storage in early scan converters provide?

a)

Error-correcting codes for unstable signals

b)

Fixed memory addresses per matrix element

c)

Infinite signal amplitudes allowing many gray shades

d)

Discrete binary levels limited to black and white

47.

Which complication was commonly associated with analog scan converters?

a)

Aliasing from under-sampling rates

b)

Image flicker, fade, and instability

c)

Quantization noise and bit depth limits

d)

Latency due to large buffer queues

48.

What number system do digital scan converters use for storage?

a)

Hexadecimal system using digits and letters

b)

Ternary system using three distinct states

c)

Decimal system using digits zero to nine

d)

Binary system using zeroes and ones

49.

In ultrasound digital representation, what do 0 and 1 indicate?

a)

Off black echo and on white echo

b)

Minimum intensity pixel and maximum

c)

Low amplitude echo and high amplitude

d)

Noise floor level and peak signal

50.

Before gray-scale imaging, displays were bistable. What does bistable mean?

a)

Adaptive contrast based on gain

b)

Variable hue with color saturation

c)

Multiple gray levels across continuum

d)

Purely black and white with two states

51.

What is a pixel in a digital image?

a)

Average intensity across a region

b)

Largest addressable block in memory

c)

Temporary cache used for buffering

d)

Smallest picture element in a display

52.

How does increasing the number of pixels on a display affect image quality?

a)

Improves spatial resolution

b)

Reduces dynamic range

c)

Increases color saturation

d)

Decreases frame rate

53.

What is a bit in digital imaging memory?

a)

Smallest amount of computer memory possible

b)

Single pixel coordinate on the matrix

c)

Analog voltage representing gray level

d)

Compression unit used for file storage

54.

If n is the number of bits per pixel, what does n determine in gray-scale imaging?

a)

Number of possible shades of gray

b)

Number of pixels per column

c)

Amount of beamformer delay taps

d)

Total dynamic range in decibels

55.

Which statement correctly matches bit depth to gray shades?

a)

Eight bits give 1024 gray shades

b)

Eight bits give 128 gray shades

c)

Five bits give 64 gray shades

d)

Five bits give 32 gray shades

56.

Which image matrix gives better spatial resolution for the same field of view?

a)

256 × 256 pixels matrix

b)

32 × 32 pixels matrix

c)

128 × 128 pixels matrix

d)

64 × 64 pixels matrix

57.

Which component assigns shades of gray to ultrasound signal amplitudes?

a)

PACS archiving system component

b)

Display monitor processing component

c)

Digital-to-analog converter component

d)

Analog-to-digital converter component

58.

Preprocessing changes occur when the image is in which state?

a)

Stored in memory

b)

Sent to PACS archive

c)

Converted to analog output

d)

Live real-time acquisition

59.

Postprocessing starts after which event in the scan converter workflow?

a)

Assignment of gray levels event

b)

Beam formation in the receiver event

c)

Transmission from transducer event

d)

Storage of the image frozen event

60.

What does a digital-to-analog (D-to-A) converter do?

a)

Magnifies pixels

b)

Converts digital data to analog

c)

Stores images

d)

Converts analog signals to digital

61.

Which zoom method increases pixel density by redrawing the image?

a)

Write zoom preprocessing method

b)

Linear interpolation display method

c)

Monitor zoom hardware method

d)

Read zoom postprocessing method

62.

When should write zoom be performed on an image?

a)

Frozen and stored in memory condition

b)

Live and being acquired condition

c)

Displayed and archived to PACS condition

d)

Converted back to analog output condition

63.

Read zoom mainly magnifies the image by which action?

a)

Increasing pixel density

b)

Redrawing the sampled region

c)

Reassigning gray levels

d)

Stretching existing pixels

64.

Which statement best compares write zoom and read zoom effects on image quality?

a)

Both methods equally improve resolution quality

b)

Write zoom improves, read zoom degrades quality

c)

Read zoom improves, write zoom degrades quality

d)

Neither method changes resolution quality

65.

Which sequence shows the correct path of the ultrasound signal?

a)

Transducer to PACS, monitor, then memory

b)

Receiver to D-to-A, memory, then A-to-D

c)

PACS to memory, A-to-D, then D-to-A

d)

Receiver to A-to-D, memory, then D-to-A

66.

A sonographer freezes an image and then magnifies a lesion. What type of zoom is used?

a)

Read zoom postprocessing type

b)

Beamformer magnification type

c)

A-to-D converter zoom type

d)

Write zoom preprocessing type

67.

Which statement best describes coded excitation in ultrasound?

a)

It relies on continuous-wave transmission

b)

It averages frames to reduce noise

c)

It sends a long pulse per scan line

d)

It uses encoded pulse sequences for one scan line

68.

What is the main imaging benefit of coded excitation?

a)

Higher color Doppler frame rates only

b)

Lower axial resolution in deep tissues

c)

Better speckle reduction and contrast resolution

d)

Improved temporal resolution only

69.

How is the final image created in frequency compounding?

a)

By averaging images from different frequencies

b)

By choosing the highest frequency

c)

By adding raw RF data from one transducer element

d)

By removing all low-frequency echoes

70.

What is the typical result of frequency compounding in soft tissue imaging?

a)

Less penetration with more aliasing

b)

Better contrast resolution and less speckle

c)

Sharper edges but more electronic noise

d)

More speckle and less contrast

71.

What is the main purpose of frame averaging in scan conversion?

a)

Increase frame rate to reduce motion blur

b)

Improve signal-to-noise ratio without bioeffects

c)

Reduce signal-to-noise ratio without bioeffects

d)

Increase transmit power for better penetration

72.

Which list correctly identifies types of frame averaging?

a)

Spatial compounding and frequency compounding

b)

Time gain compensation and persistence filters

c)

Temporal compounding and analog averaging only

d)

Harmonic imaging and coded aperture methods

73.

Fill-in interpolation in ultrasound imaging is:

a)

Replacing missing pixels with zeros

b)

Discarding frames with missing data

c)

Estimating missing pixels using nearby grayscale

d)

Increasing pixel size to cover gaps

74.

A patient's scan showed heavy speckle. Which technique best reduces speckle while keeping contrast?

a)

Apply frequency compounding across multiple bands

b)

Switch to continuous-wave Doppler mode

c)

Use single-pulse excitation and increase gain

d)

Disable averaging to maintain native texture

75.

Which statement best distinguishes interlaced CRT imaging from non-interlaced LCD imaging?

a)

CRT builds frames from two fields

b)

LCD forms images using odd lines

c)

CRT draws frames as one image

d)

LCD composes frames from two fields

76.

On a CRT display, what is the time to produce one frame from two fields?

a)

1/30 second per frame

b)

1/60 second per frame

c)

1/15 second per frame

d)

1/45 second per frame

77.

A CRT at 30 Hz shows how many frames per second?

a)

15 frames per second

b)

60 frames per second

c)

45 frames per second

d)

30 frames per second

78.

Which part controls if light passes through an LCD display?

a)

Twisting of liquid crystals

b)

Strength of magnetic tape

c)

Velocity of electron gun

d)

Charge of phosphor screen

79.

In a CRT’s interlaced scan, which lines are placed first?

a)

Odd-numbered lines

b)

All lines together

c)

Even-numbered lines

d)

Center-to-edge lines

80.

Which system uses a computer network and DICOM software to manage medical images?

a)

CD/DVD burner

b)

PACS system

c)

VHS recorder

d)

MO cartridge

81.

Which list correctly groups storage media for medical imaging outside PACS?

a)

Phosphor screen, LCD panel, CRT

b)

Odd field, even field, refresh rate

c)

Film, VHS tape, CD/DVD, MO

d)

Ethernet cable, DICOM header, PACS

82.

Which statement best defines ultrasound artifacts?

a)

Echoes not representing actual anatomy

b)

Noise from machine power supply

c)

Echoes representing true anatomy

d)

Shadows caused by patient motion

e)

Pixels created by post-processing

83.

Which machine assumption states sound travels in a straight line to and from the transducer?

a)

Mirror return principle

b)

Linear path assumption

c)

Reverberation hypothesis

d)

Side lobe doctrine

e)

Beam width theorem

84.

What speed does ultrasound assume for soft tissue?

a)

1480 m/s

b)

1500 m/s

c)

1540 m/s

d)

1600 m/s

e)

1650 m/s

85.

Which assumption places all returning echoes along the transmitted beam path?

a)

Apodization constraint

b)

Speckle modeling assumption

c)

On-axis reflection assumption

d)

Time-gain compensation rule

e)

Beamformer coherence law

86.

What does the slice thickness assumption say about the imaging plane?

a)

It is thicker near focus

b)

It is elliptical shaped

c)

It is 5 mm thick

d)

It varies with depth

e)

It is razor thin

87.

According to machine assumptions, what should echogenicity represent?

a)

Beam intensity profile

b)

Transducer heating level

c)

Ambient noise in room

d)

Operator gain settings only

e)

Structure’s true echogenicity

88.

Mirror image artifact places a duplicated structure where?

a)

Within the focal zone only

b)

Shallower, near the transducer

c)

Inside acoustic shadow regions

d)

Deeper, across a strong reflector

e)

Lateral to the true structure

89.

Propagation speed error causes structures to be shown at which incorrect property?

a)

Wrong frame rate

b)

Wrong lateral position

c)

Wrong depth location

d)

Wrong Doppler frequency

e)

Wrong echogenicity level

90.

If tissue speed is less than 1540 m/s, how will depth appear?

a)

Too shallow

b)

Lateralized

c)

Correct depth

d)

Too deep

e)

Randomized

91.

Acoustic shadowing is mainly caused by which physical effect?

a)

Strong attenuation behind a reflector

b)

Phase cancellation in beamformer

c)

Time-gain overcompensation

d)

Velocity mismatch across tissues

e)

Edge refraction of side lobes

92.

Through-transmission (enhancement) is most prominent behind which type of structure?

a)

Bone cortex

b)

Highly attenuating mass

c)

Cyst with low attenuation

d)

Calcified plaque

e)

Gas-filled bowel

93.

Grating lobes are caused by which transducer feature?

a)

Array element spacing

b)

Single crystal design

c)

Excessive TGC slope

d)

Short pulse duration

e)

Low center frequency

94.

Which control reduces grating lobes by lowering outer element contributions?

a)

Apodization settings

b)

Color gain control

c)

Dynamic range control

d)

Rejection threshold

e)

Persistence averaging

95.

Which scenario is most likely to produce a mirror image artifact?

a)

Beam passing through homogeneous liver

b)

Beam transmitted through muscle

c)

Beam reflecting off diaphragm

d)

Beam focused within a cyst

e)

Beam crossing a curved vessel

96.

A hypoechoic band deep to a gallstone is which artifact?

a)

Mirror image from diaphragm

b)

Enhancement due to low attenuation

c)

Shadowing due to strong absorption

d)

Speed error in fatty tissue

e)

Grating lobe sidelobe energy

97.

Echoes under a simple cyst are brighter than nearby tissues. What artifact causes this?

a)

Mirror image duplication

b)

Grating lobe reflection

c)

Reverberation between walls

d)

Propagation speed error

e)

Acoustic enhancement