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Pharm: Antiboitcs

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply)

a)

Collect culture and sensitivity before the first dose.

b)

Monitor the patient's I&Os.

c)

Instruct the patient to limit fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

d)

Have epinephrine on hand for potential severe allergic reaction.

2.

Which instruction should the nurse give a 21-year-old female patient being treated with ampicillin?

a)

Stop taking oral contraceptives because serious adverse effects could occur

b)

Use oral contraceptives as prescribed because antibiotics do not react with birth control

c)

The antibiotics may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives

d)

The antibiotic, when taken with oral contraceptives, causes toxicity

3.

Match the following patient symptoms or conditions with the most likely cause related to imipenem-cilastatin therapy.

a)

Hypersensitivity reaction

1.

Shortness of breath, mouth and tongue swelling, and generalized itching after imipenem-cilastatin administration

b)

Blood dyscrasias

2.

Abnormal blood cell counts following imipenem-cilastatin therapy

c)

Beta-lactamase induction

3.

Development of resistance due to enzyme production during imipenem-cilastatin use

d)

Drug toxicity

4.

Symptoms due to excessive levels of imipenem-cilastatin in the body

4.

The LPN enters a patient's room to find that his heart rate is 120, blood pressure 70/50, and has red blotching of his face and neck. Vancomycin is running intravenously. What action will the LPN take?

a)

Stop the infusion and call the health care provider

b)

Report onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome to the health care provider

c)

Encourage the patient to drink more fluids

d)

Notify the RN immediately

5.

A patient is receiving tetracycline. Which advice should the nurse include when teaching this patient about tetracycline?

a)

Take an antacid with the drug to prevent severe gastrointestinal distress

b)

Obtain frequent hearing tests for early detection of hearing loss

c)

Obtain frequent eye checkups for early detection of retinal damage

d)

Take sunscreen precautions when at the beach

6.

A patient is prescribed erythromycin. Which home drug would the nurse be concerned about?

a)

metoprolol (Lopressor)

b)

prazosin (Minipress)

c)

warfarin (Coumadin)

d)

metformin (Glucophage)

7.

Match each laboratory result with the clinical scenario that would most likely prompt the nurse to consult with the prescriber before administering gentamicin for a postoperative wound infection.

a)

Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

1.

A patient with a low BUN result prior to gentamicin administration

b)

Elevated serum creatinine level

2.

A patient with a high serum creatinine result prior to gentamicin administration

c)

Increased white blood cell (WBC) count

3.

A patient with an increased WBC count prior to gentamicin administration

d)

Elevated serum iron level

4.

A patient with an elevated serum iron result prior to gentamicin administration

8.

The nurse is instructing a diabetic patient on a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) and will include which instructions? Select all that apply.

a)

Notify your provider for any pain in your heel, elbows, knees, or wrists.

b)

Monitor your blood sugars frequently. The antibiotic can cause hyperglycemia

c)

This antibiotic can make you dizzy or confused

d)

Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.

9.

Your patient has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

a)

Drink plenty of fluids

b)

Go for a walk every afternoon

c)

stop taking the antibiotic once you feel better

d)

Do not pass go, do not collect $200

10.

clindamycin belongs to what antibacterial class?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Lincosamides

c)

Cephalosporins

d)

Macrolides

11.

Cephalosporins are used in the treatment of what bacteria?

a)

Gram-negative bacteria

b)

Gram-positive bacteria

c)

Dont click me

d)

It's not me

12.

Chose the correct statement:

a)

It's not this one

b)

It is not me

c)

It is definitely me

d)

It's definitely not me

13.

Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply)

a)

Collect culture and sensitivity before the first dose.

b)

Monitor the patient's I&Os.

c)

Instruct the patient to limit fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

d)

Have epinephrine on hand for potential severe allergic reaction.

14.

A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease is a __________________.

a)

antibody

b)

pathogen

c)

host

d)

vaccine

15.

Which of the following is NOT part of the human body's 1st line of defense against pathogens?

a)

skin

b)

mucus lining of the nose

c)

white blood cells

d)

stomach acid

16.

Antibiotics (chemicals created in a lab designed to kill disease-causing living things) (a)   destroy viruses.

Choose from the below words
yes
no
17.

Can antibiotics (chemicals created in a lab designed to kill disease-causing living things) destroy bacteria?

a)

yes

b)

no

18.

Penicillin, amoxicillin and azithromycin are examples of ________________.

a)

antibodies

b)

antibiotics

c)

vaccines

19.

Overuse of antibiotics can lead to (a)  

Choose from the below words
being healthy.
killing all the viruses in your bod
immunity to bacteria.
antibiotic resistance.
20.

How do humans benefit from bacteria living in the digestive system?

a)

Bacteria clean up oil spills.

b)

Bacteria help break down food.

c)

Bacteria fix nitrogen.

d)

Bacteria produce oxygen via photosynthesis.

21.

Your patient has tested positive for Chlamydia. The Macrolide antibiotic you might expect to be prescribed is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
Clarythromycin
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
Azithromycin
22.

Why is it important to save certain antibiotics for highly resistant infections?

a)

To lower the risk for resistance to a "last-resort" medication

b)

Because infectious disease doctors are stingy

c)

It is not important

d)

So patients won't complain about their hospital bill

23.

Your patient was just prescribed antibiotics. Though diarrhea and upset stomach are common side effects, C-Diff can also cause similar symptoms. What are you going to tell your patient to watch for?

a)

Cough and Nasal Congestion

b)

Rash in the shape of a target or bull's eye

c)

Watery diarrhea that occurs more than 10 times per day

d)

The sudden urge to dance to Drake's Tootsie Slide

24.

Your patient has just been prescribed Gentamicin, which is an aminoglycocide. Since these medications can be ototoxic, what are you going to teach your patient is NOT a normal side effect?

a)

Bad Headache for 2 days, followed by nausea and vertigo

b)

Diarrhea and nausea

c)

Dizziness for 2 days, following by a bad headache and nausea

d)

Feeling of "fullness" in the ear

25.

Why is it important to closely monitor blood levels of aminoglycosides?

a)

Infectious disease doctors like to make more work for nurses

b)

It's not. The same dose produces the same blood levels in different patients.

c)

The same dose can produce very different blood levels in different patients

26.

You are a nurse working on the Med-Surg floor. The ED is sending you a new patient with pneumonia. During handoff, the ED nurse tells you that they have already started antibiotics as ordered, BUT the blood cultures have NOT been done. Is this appropriate?

a)

YES

b)

NO

27.

What could be a reason antibiotics are prescribed to a patient?

a)
To treat viral infections.
b)
To treat bacterial infections.
c)
To relieve pain and inflammation.
d)
To cure allergies.
28.

What is the generic name for Amoxil ?

a)
ampicillin
b)
penicillin
c)
cephalexin
d)
amoxicillin
29.

What is the generic name for Cipro?

a)
levofloxacin
b)
ciprofloxacin
c)
azithromycin
d)
amoxicillin
30.

What is the generic name for Levaquin?

a)
ofloxacin
b)
levofloxacin
c)
moxifloxacin
d)
ciprofloxacin
31.

The vaccines trigger the immune system creating specific ______________ for the pathogen.

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Medicine

d)

Cells

32.

(a)   has an outer membrane (2nd cell membrane).

Choose from the below words
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
33.

Select the example of something which does not cause antibiotic resistance.

a)

Not finishing a course of antibiotics.

b)

Giving antibiotics to live stock (animals we eat).

c)

Using antibiotics when we don't need them.

d)

Finishing a course of antibiotics.

34.

Antibiotic resistance is a huge problem because the antibiotics we have now to fight bacteria will not work. Therefore we will need to make new kinds of .......... to fight the new types of ...........

a)

antibiotics, bacteria

b)

bacteria, antibiotics

c)

antibodies, bacteria

d)

antibiotics, viruses

35.

Penicillins do not share cross reactions or the potential for causing allergic reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Antibiotics that retard the growth of bacteria are known as (a)   agents.

37.

Which are classified as Anti-Infectives?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Narcotic Antagonist

38.

Penicillins do not share cross reactions or the potential for causing allergic reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

To ensure accurate C&S results, when should the patient start to receive antibiotic therapy?

a)

before specimen is obtained and sent to lab

b)

after specimen is obtained and sent to lab

c)

at the time of specimen collection

d)

when the specimen is sent to lab

40.

When is the best time to administer an Azithromycin oral suspension or Erythromycin?

Select all that apply

a)

1hr before a meal

b)

with a meal

c)

2-3hrs after a meal

d)

on an empty stomach

41.

The nurse should never instruct the client to take the full prescribed dose of any antibiotic, even though symptoms subside.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which type of antibiotics are most likely to cause side-effects?

a)

Narrow spectrum antibiotics

b)

Broad spectrum antibiotics

c)

Antibiotics made from plants

d)

Antibiotics made from animals

43.

What is antibiotic resistance?

a)

The ability of antibiotics to fight viral infections

b)

The ability of bacteria to multiply rapidly

c)

The ability of previously sensitive species of bacteria to resist the effects of antibiotics

d)

The ability of antibiotics to cure all types of infections

44.

In general, what is the common mechanism of action of antifungals?

a)

stop cell wall synthesis

b)

stop protein synthesis

c)

stop nucleic acid synthesis

d)

they target sterols in the plasma membrane

45.

What drug is the most versatile and effective antifungal and is often used to treat systemic fungal infections?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Vancomycin

c)

miconazole

d)

tetracycline

46.

Why is it necessary to practice HAART when treating HIV?

a)

the antiviral drugs are broad spectrum

b)

there are few points in the replication cycle where we can target HIV

c)

HIV replicates very rapidly

d)

to decrease the development of drug resistant virus

47.

Selective toxicity means that

a)

the drug kills only a small subset of microbes

b)

the drug kills bacteria but not helminths

c)

the drug kills microbes but is not harmful to the host

d)

the drug can be used at a wide range of concentrations

48.

The first discovered antibiotic was

a)

tetracycline

b)

novobiocin

c)

penicillin

d)

azithromycin

49.

Over half of the antibiotics are made by

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

helminths

d)

protozoa

50.

Which of the following are mechanisms of action of antimicrobial drugs (choose all that apply)

a)

damaging the plasma membrane

b)

inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

c)

altering cell surface receptors on the bacteria

d)

inhibit metabolic pathways

51.

Beta-lactamases are enzymes that (choose all that apply)

a)

make penicillin

b)

cleave the ring structure of penicillins

c)

are made by humans

d)

are made by some bacteria

52.

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

a)

are used to treat fungal infections

b)

are effective only against Gram positive bacteria

c)

are effective against Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria

d)

target nucleic acid synthesis of bacteria

53.

Carbapenems

a)

are used to treat fungal infections

b)

are effective against most organisms isolated from hospital patients

c)

are effective antivirals

d)

are used to treat ear infections

54.

This term describes when the effect of two drugs together is greater than the effect of either alone

a)

synergism

b)

selective toxicity

c)

broad spectrum

d)

commensalism

55.

Which is NOT one of the antibiotics typically contained in over the counter antibiotic cream?

a)

bacitracin

b)

erythromycin

c)

neomycin

d)

polymyxin B

56.

Erythromycin and Azithromycin are used to treat

a)

fungal infections

b)

influenza

c)

ear and respiratory infections and others commonly caused by Staph and Strep

d)

malaria

57.

Tetracycline (choose all that apply)

a)

is a broad spectrum antibiotic

b)

is useful for intracellular infections such as Rocky Mt. Spotted Fever

c)

can be used to treat Lyme disease

d)

is commonly added to animal feed

58.

Antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation causing water to rush in and the cell to burst

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfonamides

59.

If there is a clear zone where no bacteria are growing around an antibiotic disc, is the bacteria sensitive or resistant?

a)

Sensitive

b)

Resistant

60.

The type of bacteria that has a thin cell wall, an outer protective membrane & stains pink

a)

Gram Postive

b)

Gram Negative

61.

What kind of bacteria is this?

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

62.

Antibiotic that disrupts DNA gyrase making DNA replication impossible

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinoline

d)

Sulfonamides

63.

Antibiotic that inhibits the folic acid pathway making folic acid unavailable to the cell

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfanamides

64.

If there is bacterial growth all the way up to the edge of an antibiotic disc, is the bacteria sensitive or resistant?

a)

Sensitive

b)

Resistant

65.

What type of bacteria is this?

a)

Gram Postive

b)

Gram Negative

66.

Antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation causing water to rush in and the cell to burst

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfonamides

67.

Antibiotic that disrupts the 30s ribosome making protein synthesis stop

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfonamides

68.

Which class is primarily used to treat gram negative bacteria?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Macrolides

69.

Match the following antibiotics with the diseases they are used to treat.

a)

Ciproflafloxacin

1.

Treatment for Anthrax

b)

Azithromycin

2.

Treatment for Chlamydia

c)

Cefadroxil

3.

Treatment for Urinary Tract Infection

d)

Levofloxacin

4.

Treatment for Community-acquired Pneumonia

e)

Idunnoanswermycin

5.

Treatment for Unknown Disease

70.

Dark urine is a side effect for what antibiotic?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Flouroquinolones

d)

Macrolides

71.

Which antibiotic is usually in a drop form?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Neomycin

c)

Duricef

d)

Erythromycin

72.

Which Boi will save your life if you have septicemia?

a)

Keflex

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Vamcomycin

d)

Streptomycin

73.

Which antibiotic class increases the effects of anticoagulants?

a)

Levaquin

b)

Omnicef

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Flouroquinolones

74.

Which of the antibiotics in the picture increase light sensitivity?

a)

A,B

b)

C,D

c)

B,E

d)

A,F

e)

Correct combination is not here

75.

Select all that are Aminoglycosides

a)

Streptomycin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Neomycin

e)

Azithromycin

76.

What all is true about cephalosporins?

a)

It’s a first choice antibiotic

b)

It’s broad spectrum

c)

High chance of cross allergic reactions with Penicillin

d)

It can harm a developing fetus

77.

What is true about Sulfonamides?

a)

Usually used for dermatological

b)

Adding TMP makes Bactrim

c)

You take it until the infection goes away

d)

Causes urine color change

e)

Has a low allergy rate

78.

The word “antibiotic” means

a)

"against growth"

b)

"against disease"

c)

"against all odds"

d)

“against life”

79.
Penicillin is structurally the same as
a)
Cephalosporin
b)
Tetracycline
c)
Erythromycin
d)
Clindamycin
80.
Beta lactamase inhibitor
a)
Clavulanic Acid
b)
Amoxicillin
c)
Ampicillin
d)
Tetracycline
81.
Penicillinase resistant penicillin
a)
amoxicillin
b)
ampicillin
c)
methicillin
d)
carbenicillin
82.

This class of drugs is contraindicated for those with an allergy to Sulfa

a)

penicillin

b)

macrolides

c)

Sulfonamides

d)

quinolones

83.

In which drug class is there a warning of leg tendon's possibly rupturing while taking.

a)

Quinolones

b)

macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

sulfonamides

84.

A common side effect when taking antibiotics is

a)

headaches

b)

blurred vision

c)

dry mouth

d)

GI upset

85.

Of the following antibiotic class, (a)   may cause immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions.

Choose from the below words
Macrolides
Lincosamides
Tetracyclines
Penicillins
Fluoroquinolones
86.
 Infection is caused by a type of staph bacteria that's become resistant to many of the antibiotics
a)
Strain
b)
Antibiotic resistant
c)
MRSA
d)
Systematic
87.

Cephalosporins and Penicillin MOA (mechanism of action) is:

a)

inhibit protein synthesis

b)

destroys cell wall

c)

inhibit growth or multiplication

88.

What is the common stem for penicillins?

a)

-mycin

b)

-cef

c)

-cillin

d)

-cycline

89.

Bacteriostatic means to:

a)

stop the growth and multiplication

b)

destroy the cell wall

c)

inhibit protein synthesis

90.

Fluoroquinolones commonly have this stem?

a)

-mycin

b)

-ceph, -cef

c)

-floxacin

d)

-vir

e)

-cycline

91.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamicin?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Hearing loss

c)

Improved vision

d)

Weight gain

92.

What is the main reason for completing the full course of prescribed antibiotics?

a)

To prevent the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria

b)

To save money on future prescriptions

c)

To avoid allergic reactions

d)

To increase the effectiveness of vaccines

93.

Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat systemic fungal infections?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Amphotericin B