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WorksheetsAntimicrobial Agents - Chapter 43-45 Objectives
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 47mins
The major actions of classes of drugs used to treat bacterial diseases include:
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, and metabolic pathways
Stimulating bacterial growth and reproduction
Enhancing viral replication within host cells
Suppressing the immune system to allow bacterial survival
Identify the signs and symptoms of the common adverse effects of antibiotic therapy.
Nausea, diarrhea, allergic reactions, and rash
Increased appetite and weight gain
Improved vision and hearing
Muscle growth and increased energy
Which of the following best describes the nursing assessments and interventions for the common adverse effects associated with antibiotic agents: allergic reaction, nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and hepatotoxicity?
Monitor for signs of allergic reaction, assess renal and liver function, evaluate hearing, and provide appropriate interventions for toxicity.
Administer antibiotics without monitoring for adverse effects and only assess vital signs.
Encourage increased fluid intake and ignore any signs of toxicity.
Discontinue antibiotics at the first sign of any side effect without further assessment.
The primary uses for antibiotics and antitubercular agents are:
Treating bacterial infections and tuberculosis
Treating viral infections and cancer
Preventing allergies and asthma
Curing genetic disorders and diabetes
Explain the major actions of classes of drugs used to treat viral infections.
Antiviral drugs inhibit viral replication, block virus entry, or interfere with viral enzymes.
Antiviral drugs primarily enhance bacterial growth in the body.
Antiviral drugs are used to treat fungal infections only.
Antiviral drugs work by increasing the production of red blood cells.
Describe the signs and symptoms of the common adverse effects of antiviral therapy.
Nausea, headache, fatigue, and rash
Increased appetite, weight gain, and improved vision
Joint pain, hair growth, and improved memory
Frequent urination, muscle gain, and enhanced hearing
Nursing assessments and interventions for the common adverse effects of antiviral medications include monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions, nephrotoxicity, and hepatotoxicity. Which of the following best describes these interventions?
Monitor for allergic reactions, assess renal and liver function, and provide supportive care as needed.
Administer antibiotics to prevent infection, increase fluid intake, and avoid all medications affecting the liver.
Encourage high-protein diet, restrict fluids, and monitor for respiratory depression.
Monitor blood glucose levels, provide vitamin supplements, and assess for cardiac arrhythmias.
The primary uses for antiviral agents are:
Treating viral infections
Preventing bacterial infections
Curing fungal diseases
Managing autoimmune disorders
The major actions of classes of drugs used to treat fungal infections include:
Inhibiting fungal cell wall or membrane synthesis
Blocking bacterial protein synthesis
Enhancing viral replication
Suppressing human immune response
The signs and symptoms of the common adverse effects of antifungal therapy include:
Nausea, vomiting, rash, and liver dysfunction
Hypertension, bradycardia, and blurred vision
Increased appetite, weight gain, and insomnia
Joint pain, hair loss, and dry mouth
Which of the following best describes the nursing assessments and interventions for the common adverse effects associated with antifungal medications: allergic reaction, nephrotoxicity, and hepatotoxicity?
Monitor for signs of allergic reaction, assess renal and liver function, and provide supportive care as needed.
Administer antibiotics to prevent adverse effects and avoid monitoring organ function.
Encourage increased fluid intake only and ignore any signs of organ dysfunction.
Discontinue all medications at the first sign of any adverse effect without further assessment.
The primary uses for antifungal agents include:
Treating fungal infections
Treating bacterial infections
Treating viral infections
Treating parasitic infections
What are the six signs of inflammation listed in the Antimicrobial Agents Lecture Outline?
Rubor (redness), calor (warmth), dolor (pain), tumor (swelling), loss of function, functio laesa
Rubor (redness), pallor (paleness), dolor (pain), tumor (swelling), fever, nausea
Rubor (redness), calor (warmth), dolor (pain), tumor (swelling), cough, headache
Rubor (redness), calor (warmth), pruritus (itching), tumor (swelling), loss of function, fatigue
Which of the following is NOT an influence on infection according to the Antimicrobial Agents Lecture Outline?
Immature immune system
Altered function
Invasive procedures
Increased WBC
Leukocytosis is defined as ________ WBC, above normal range.
increased
decreased
normal
absent
Which of the following is a cause of leukocytosis?
F) All of the above
A) Infection
B) Inflammatory response
C) RA
D) Stress
A left shift in laboratory data indicates ________ WBC greater than mature WBC.
immature
granular
lysed
inactive
Gram stain differentiates bacteria into which two groups?
Gram positive and Gram negative
Aerobic and Anaerobic
Cocci and Bacilli
Pathogenic and Non-pathogenic
Which cell shapes are mentioned in the Gram stain section of the Antimicrobial Agents Lecture Outline?
Cocci
Rods
Spirilla
All of the above
Which of the following is a fungus listed in the Antimicrobial Agents Lecture Outline?
Aspergillus
Candida
Coccidioides
All of the above
Name two viruses mentioned in the Antimicrobial Agents Lecture Outline.
Influenza, hepatitis
E. coli, Streptococcus
Herpes, Salmonella
Tuberculosis, Candida
What is the purpose of prophylactic antimicrobial therapy?
Taken before anticipated exposure to an infectious organism to help prevent the development of an infection.
To treat an existing infection after symptoms appear.
To increase the effectiveness of vaccines.
To reduce the side effects of other medications.
Which type of antimicrobial therapy involves the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics based on healthcare provider judgment of pathogens and common antibiotics that treat them?
Empiric therapy.
Prophylactic therapy.
Definitive therapy.
Adjunctive therapy.
Direct antimicrobial therapy involves which of the following?
Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Administration of narrow-spectrum antibiotics
Administration of antiviral agents
Administration of vaccines
Allergic reactions to antimicrobial agents can range from mild rash to fatal anaphylaxis.
True
False
Nephrotoxicity is related to which organ function?
Excretion (kidneys)
Digestion (stomach)
Respiration (lungs)
Circulation (heart)
Hepatotoxicity is related to which organ function?
Metabolism (liver)
Respiration (lungs)
Filtration (kidneys)
Digestion (stomach)
If taking more than one antimicrobial agent, what should be assessed?
Assess for toxicity and effects on organs.
Assess for increased appetite.
Assess for improved sleep quality.
Assess for skin hydration.
What is colonization in terms of antimicrobial therapy?
Presence of normal flora (good bacteria).
Elimination of all bacteria from the body.
Development of resistance to antibiotics.
Direct destruction of pathogens by immune cells.
Super infection occurs when antibiotics reduce or eliminate normal bacterial flora, allowing certain bacteria to take over and cause infection.
True
False
Being on Clindamycin can cause which infection?
C. difficile infection.
Streptococcal pharyngitis.
Tuberculosis.
Hepatitis B.
Secondary infection may happen as a result of being on antimicrobial therapy. Give an example.
Yeast infection as a result of antimicrobial therapy.
Common cold as a result of antimicrobial therapy.
Migraine as a result of antimicrobial therapy.
Allergic rhinitis as a result of antimicrobial therapy.
What is the appropriate use of antimicrobial agents?
To treat infections effectively while minimizing resistance and side effects.
To use them for any minor illness regardless of cause.
To prescribe them without considering patient history.
To use them to prevent all possible infections in healthy individuals.
Which of the following is a guideline for how to take antimicrobial drugs?
Take only when symptoms are severe
Continue to take even if they feel better, complete course
Stop when symptoms improve
Take with food only
What is the course of treatment for antimicrobial agents?
Complete the prescribed course as directed by a healthcare provider.
Stop taking the medication once you feel better.
Double the dose if you miss one.
Take the medication only when symptoms appear.
List one potential side effect or drug interaction of antimicrobial agents.
Allergic reactions, gastrointestinal upset, or interaction with other drugs.
Improved appetite and weight gain.
Enhanced memory and concentration.
Increased physical strength.
Which of the following is NOT a broad term for antimicrobial classification? Choose the correct option.
Antibiotic
Antimicrobial
Antibacterial
Antiviral
Which of the following is a pharmacological classification of antimicrobials?
Aminoglycosides
Steroids
Antihistamines
Analgesics
What is one mechanism of drug resistance? Choose the correct option.
Drug does not reach the target
Drug is always active
Target is unchanged
Drug is always effective
Some antibiotics cannot penetrate into the site of infection due to the blood-brain barrier.
True
False
How can we decrease the risk of drug resistance?
Prescribing antimicrobials only when truly needed and patient education.
Increasing the dosage of antimicrobials for all patients.
Using antibiotics for viral infections as a precaution.
Stopping antimicrobial treatment as soon as symptoms improve.
Define bactericidal.
Bactericidal means to kill bacteria.
Bactericidal means to slow down bacteria growth.
Bactericidal means to make bacteria visible.
Bactericidal means to change bacteria color.
Define bacteriostatic.
Bacteriostatic means to inhibit bacterial growth.
Bacteriostatic means to kill viruses.
Bacteriostatic means to promote bacterial growth.
Bacteriostatic means to destroy fungi.
Broad spectrum coverage means:
Active against numerous types of microorganisms
Only effective against few organisms
Narrow spectrum coverage means:
Active against numerous types of microorganisms
Only effective against few organisms
What are two general principles for ALL antimicrobial agents?
Indications (choice of agent) and side effects.
Dosage and route of administration.
Duration of therapy and cost.
Spectrum of activity and resistance patterns.
Which of the following is NOT a class of beta-lactam antibiotics?
A) Penicillins
B) Cephalosporins
C) Carbapenems
D) Macrolides
Fill in the blank: Beta-lactamase (penicillinase) are ______ produced by some bacterial strains that can inactivate the beta-lactam rings.
enzymes
hormones
vitamins
acids
Which combination is commonly used at hospitals?
Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanate)
Timentin (ticarcillin/clavulanate)
Unasyn (ampicillin/sulbactam)
Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam)
Beta-lactam antibiotics are bacteriocidal, meaning they kill bacteria.
True
False
Fill in the blank: Penicillins are indicated for infections of the skin, soft tissue, pulmonary (cellulitis, sinusitis, pneumonia), middle ear, meningitis, UTIs, and _______.
syphilis
diabetes
hypertension
arthritis
Which of the following is a precaution when using antibiotics?
They increase effectiveness of oral contraceptive agents
All have the potential of causing a secondary infection
They are never associated with GI side effects
They are only used for viral infections
Which of the following is a side effect of penicillins?
Diarrhea
Hepatotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
All of the above
Fill in the blank: Penicillins are primarily used for coverage of ______ bacteria.
Gram-positive
Gram-negative
Acid-fast
Anaerobic
Which drug can cause a skin rash when used with penicillins due to drug interactions?
Allopurinol
Amoxicillin
Zosyn
Augmentin
Penicillins have the highest allergy response among antibiotics.
True
False
Which of the following is NOT an example of a penicillin drug?
Amoxicillin
Augmentin
Zosyn
Cephalexin
Cephalosporins are contraindicated in patients with ______ allergy.
Cephalosporin
Penicillin
Sulfa
Aspirin
Which generation of cephalosporins is primarily effective against MRSA?
1st generation
2nd generation
5th generation
3rd/4th generation
Fill in the blank: Cephalosporins are indicated for infections in the ______, soft tissue, pulmonary, abdominal, meningitis, osteomyelitis, and genitourinary (GU) sites.
skin
liver
bone marrow
eye
Which of the following is a side effect of cephalosporins?
Diarrhea
Nausea/vomiting
Both A and B
None of the above
Which generation of cephalosporins is Keflex (cephalexin) classified under?
First generation
Second generation
Third generation
Fourth generation
Name one oral drug from the second generation cephalosporins.
Cefaclor (Ceclor)
Cefazolin (Ancef)
Cefepime (Maxipime)
Ceftaroline (Teflaro)
Which cephalosporin is the first drug of choice for meningitis?
Cefazolin
Ceftriaxone
Cefotetan
Cefepime
Fill in the blank: Antibiotic-associated colitis (AA colitis) is the ________ of colon.
inflammation
infection
ulceration
perforation
Cephalosporins should be given with high alert if the patient has a PCN allergy.
True
False
Which generation does Maxipime (cefepime) belong to?
First generation
Second generation
Third generation
Fourth generation
List two indications for carbapenems.
Lower respiratory tract infections, intraabdominal infections
Skin and soft tissue infections, urinary retention
Migraine, hypertension
Osteoporosis, hyperlipidemia
Which adverse effect is associated with carbapenems?
Rash
Seizures
Headache
Hypertension
Fill in the blank: Valproic acid and carbapenems may produce clinically significant reductions in ________ acid levels, leading to loss of seizure control.
valproic
folic
ascorbic
uric
What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria
Inhibits DNA replication
Inhibits folic acid synthesis
Which of the following is NOT an indication for macrolides?
Skin infections
Soft tissue infections
Pulmonary infections
Bone fractures
Fill in the blank: Fidaxomicin is used for the treatment of _______.
C-diff (Clostridioides difficile)
Tuberculosis
Malaria
Influenza
Which sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are covered by macrolides?
A) Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
B) Syphilis and Lyme disease
C) HIV and Hepatitis B
D) Both A and B
Zithromax (azithromycin) may be used to treat trichomonas STD if the patient is pregnant.
True
False
What is a common GI side effect of macrolides?
Constipation
Severe GI irritation (diarrhea, nausea, vomiting)
Heartburn
Ulcers
Fill in the blank: DO NOT treat _______ on their own as it will prolong/worsen the condition when using macrolides.
diarrhea
fever
cough
headache
Which of the following is a precaution when using macrolides?
No drug interactions
Cardiac dysrhythmias, QT prolongation
No need to monitor liver function
Can be used with any other drug
Fill in the blank: Concurrent use of drugs that compete _______ (CYP – 450) / protein-bound is a precaution for macrolides.
hepatically
renally
gastrically
neurally
Macrolides can be used concurrently with some antihistamines and antifungal agents.
True
False
What is a nursing action when administering macrolides?
Ignore GI effects
Ensure reason for use – antimicrobial vs. gastrointestinal stimulant
Do not educate patient
Administer with any food
Which of the following is NOT an example of a macrolide?
Biaxin (clarithromycin)
Dificid (fidaxomicin)
Erythromycin
Amoxicillin
Fill in the blank: _______ is used for GI stimulation among macrolides.
Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Roxithromycin
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones (quinolones)?
Potent bacteriocidal
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Disruption of protein synthesis
Interference with folic acid metabolism
What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
Inhibits activity of DNA gyrase
Inhibits protein synthesis
Inhibits folic acid synthesis
Which of the following is a black boxed side effect of quinolones?
Nausea
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Tendonitis/tendon rupture
Photosensitivity
Quinolones are primarily indicated for infections caused by which type of bacteria?
A) Gram positive
B) Gram negative
C) Both Gram positive and Gram negative
D) Anaerobic bacteria
Fill in the blank: Quinolones are indicated for UTI, infectious diarrhea, prostatitis, anthrax, sinusitis, bronchitis, CAP (community-acquired pneumonia), acute otitis externa (drops), and ______ infections.
ocular
dermal
gastrointestinal
cardiac
Which of the following is a precaution when administering quinolones?
Liver disease
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Diabetes
Hypertension
Fill in the blank: The concurrent use of class IA and III antidyshythmic agents is a ______ for quinolones.
contraindication
precaution
indication
requirement
Which drug interaction decreases the absorption of quinolones?
NSAIDs
Iron, antacids, sucralfate
Theophylline
Alcohol
NSAIDs increase the risk of seizures when taken with quinolones.
True
False
Fill in the blank: Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial biosynthesis of ______ acid, leading to cell death.
folic
ascorbic
hydrochloric
citric
Sulfonamides are indicated for which types of infections?
Only Gram positive
Only Gram negative
Both Gram positive and Gram negative
Only viral infections
