wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exercise Physiology and Anatomy Quiz

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the 'Size Principle,' which motor units are recruited first?

a)

Large, high-threshold units

b)

Small, low-threshold units

c)

Intermediate units

d)

Fast-fatigable units

2.

How is 'Rate Coding' defined in neuromuscular physiology?

a)

The number of muscle fibers per neuron

b)

The speed of neural conduction

c)

The frequency of motor unit firing

d)

The thickness of the myelin sheath

3.

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by the highest contraction velocity?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx

d)

Type III

4.

What happens to force production as motor unit firing frequency increases?

a)

It decreases

b)

It remains constant

c)

It increases (Summation)

d)

It fluctuates randomly

5.

Which fiber type has the greatest resistance to fatigue?

a)

Type IIx

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type I

d)

Type IIb

6.

Which fiber type is most likely to be recruited during a maximal vertical jump?

a)

Type I only

b)

Type IIx only

c)

Both Type I and Type II

d)

None of the above

7.

Which characteristic is most associated with Type I muscle fibers?

a)

High glycolytic capacity

b)

High oxidative capacity

c)

High peak power

d)

Low myoglobin levels

8.

What determines the muscle fiber type of a specific motor unit?

a)

The load applied

b)

The alpha motor neuron

c)

The blood flow

d)

The joint angle

9.

In the context of jumping, higher rate coding primarily assists in:

a)

Increasing fatiguability

b)

Increasing rate of force development

c)

Decreasing muscle tension

d)

Improving flexibility

10.

What is a 'Motor Unit'?

a)

A single muscle fiber

b)

A group of muscles

c)

A motor neuron and all fibers it innervates

d)

A bundle of nerves

11.

Which fiber type has a high threshold of excitation?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIx

c)

Slow-twitch

d)

Small motor units

12.

As jump intensity increases from submaximal to maximal, recruitment proceeds:

a)

From Type II to Type I

b)

From Type I to Type II

c)

Simultaneously

d)

Randomly

13.

Which protein gives Type I fibers their red appearance?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Actin

d)

Myosin

14.

What is the primary cause of fatigue in Type IIx fibers during brief, high-intensity exercise?

a)

Oxygen depletion

b)

Glycogen depletion

c)

Accumulation of metabolic byproducts

d)

Dehydration

15.

Which fiber type possesses the highest mitochondrial density?

a)

Type IIx

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type I

d)

Type IIb

16.

What is the joint action at the ankle during the power phase of a jump?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantarflexion

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

17.

Which muscle is the primary agonist for hip extension during a vertical jump?

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

Gluteus maximus

d)

Gastrocnemius

18.

Which muscle group is responsible for extending the knee during takeoff?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Adductors

d)

Abductors

19.

The Gastrocnemius performs which two actions?

a)

Knee extension / plantarflexion

b)

Knee flexion / plantarflexion

c)

Hip extension / knee flexion

d)

Hip flexion / dorsiflexion

20.

A vertical jump occurs primarily in which anatomical plane?

a)

Frontal

b)

Transverse

c)

Sagittal

d)

Horizontal

21.

Which event directly allows myosin heads to bind to actin during excitation–contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?

a)

Ca2+ binding to troponin C shifting tropomyosin

b)

ATP binding to myosin causing power stroke

c)

ADP release from myosin exposing actin sites

d)

Pi binding to actin increasing affinity

22.

In the cross-bridge cycle, what is the immediate effect of ATP binding to myosin?

a)

Myosin detaches from actin

b)

Myosin performs the power stroke

c)

Myosin binds strongly to actin

d)

Troponin releases Ca2+

23.

Which structural protein primarily contributes to passive tension when a relaxed sarcomere is stretched?

a)

Titin

b)

Nebulin

c)

Troponin I

d)

Desmin

24.

For two muscles producing the same joint torque, the muscle with greater physiological cross-sectional area (PCSA) generally has:

a)

Greater maximal force capacity

b)

Greater maximal shortening velocity

c)

Lower metabolic cost at any force

d)

Higher absolute tendon strain at a given force

25.

Which change would most increase the rate of force development (RFD) in a ballistic contraction, assuming muscle size is unchanged?

a)

Higher motor unit firing rates

b)

Lower motor unit recruitment thresholds

c)

Lower tendon stiffness

d)

Lower Ca2+ sensitivity of troponin

26.

Compared with a parallel-fiber muscle of equal volume, a highly pennate muscle typically has:

a)

Higher maximal force and lower maximal shortening velocity

b)

Lower maximal force and higher maximal shortening velocity

c)

Higher maximal force and higher maximal shortening velocity

d)

Lower maximal force and lower maximal shortening velocity

27.

If sarcomere length is increased beyond optimal on the descending limb, maximal isometric force decreases primarily because:

a)

Myosin ATPase activity slows

b)

Actin–myosin overlap decreases

c)

Titin stiffness decreases

d)

Motor neuron firing rate decreases

28.

The 'toe region' of a tendon stress–strain curve primarily reflects:

a)

Uncrimping and alignment of collagen fibers

b)

Irreversible microfailure of collagen

c)

Maximum stiffness of aligned collagen

d)

Viscous damping due to fluid flow only

29.

Young’s modulus (stiffness) is best described as the:

a)

Slope of the stress–strain curve in the linear elastic region

b)

Area under the stress–strain curve to failure

c)

Stress at the yield point

d)

Strain at ultimate tensile strength

30.

The yield point on a ligament stress–strain curve indicates the onset of:

a)

Permanent (plastic) deformation

b)

The toe region

c)

Maximum elastic recoil

d)

Zero strain

31.

Viscoelastic 'creep' refers to:

a)

Increasing strain over time under constant stress

b)

Decreasing stress over time under constant strain

c)

A sudden increase in stiffness at high strain rates

d)

Elastic rebound after unloading

32.

Stress relaxation refers to:

a)

Decreasing stress over time under constant strain

b)

Increasing strain over time under constant stress

c)

Increasing stiffness with repeated loading

d)

A reduction in ultimate tensile strength

33.

Hysteresis in a loading–unloading cycle indicates:

a)

Energy loss as heat (area between loading and unloading curves)

b)

Increased energy storage

c)

Higher Young’s modulus

d)

No dependence on loading rate

34.

At higher strain rates, tendons and ligaments generally become:

a)

Stiffer and less compliant

b)

More compliant and less stiff

c)

Weaker but more compliant

d)

Unaffected due to purely elastic behavior

35.

Compared with ligaments, tendons typically have a higher proportion of:

a)

Type I collagen aligned in the direction of force transmission

b)

Type II collagen for compressive load tolerance

c)

Elastin arranged randomly

d)

Ground substance that dominates tensile behavior

36.

Ultimate tensile strength (UTS) is the:

a)

Maximum stress reached on the stress–strain curve before failure

b)

Stress where the toe region ends

c)

Stress at which plastic deformation begins

d)

Strain at which stiffness is maximal

37.

In Henneman’s size principle, recruitment order is primarily determined by:

a)

Motor neuron size and excitability (input resistance)

b)

Muscle fiber length

c)

Joint angle at onset

d)

Tendon stiffness

38.

Rate coding contributes to force production primarily by:

a)

Temporal summation leading to unfused/fused tetanus

b)

Increasing the number of recruited motor units

c)

Increasing sarcomere length

d)

Increasing muscle temperature

39.

Compared with low-threshold motor units, high-threshold motor units generally have:

a)

Higher recruitment thresholds and faster, more forceful twitch characteristics

b)

Lower recruitment thresholds and slower twitch characteristics

c)

Lower firing rates at a given force

d)

Greater fatigue resistance

40.

As contraction intensity increases toward maximal, the relative contribution typically shifts toward:

a)

More motor unit recruitment early, then greater reliance on rate coding to further increase force

b)

Less recruitment and less rate coding

c)

Only synchronization with no firing rate changes

d)

Only reflex activity with no voluntary drive

41.

During fatigue at a constant force output, the CNS typically compensates by:

a)

Increasing neural drive: higher firing rates and/or additional motor unit recruitment

b)

Decreasing recruitment to conserve ATP

c)

Reducing antagonist co-contraction only

d)

Eliminating rate coding to prevent tetanus

42.

In a ballistic movement (e.g., maximal jump), the earliest phase of force rise is most strongly associated with:

a)

Initial motor unit discharge rate and recruitment speed

b)

Mitochondrial density

c)

Capillary-to-fiber ratio

d)

Slow-twitch fiber predominance

43.

During high-intensity exercise, what is the primary immediate buffer of ATP concentration in skeletal muscle?

a)

Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Phosphocreatine via the creatine kinase reaction

c)

Anaerobic glycolysis via lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Hepatic gluconeogenesis

44.

Which step of glycolysis is considered the major rate-limiting (committed) step in skeletal muscle during exercise?

a)

Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate

b)

Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (PFK-1)

c)

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

d)

Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

45.

In the creatine kinase reaction (PCr + ADP + H+ ↔ Cr + ATP), an accumulation of H+ during intense exercise tends to shift the equilibrium in which direction?

a)

Toward ATP production

b)

Toward PCr resynthesis

c)

No effect; H+ is not involved

d)

Toward Cr + ADP

46.

Using contemporary P/O ratios (NADH ≈ 2.5 ATP, FADH2 ≈ 1.5 ATP), the net ATP yield from complete oxidation of palmitate (C16:0) is closest to:

a)

84 ATP

b)

96 ATP

c)

106 ATP

d)

129 ATP

47.

Which pair of reactions in glycolysis produces ATP directly via substrate-level phosphorylation?

a)

Hexokinase and phosphoglucose isomerase

b)

PFK-1 and aldolase

c)

Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase

d)

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase and enolase

48.

What is the single best explanation for why RER can exceed 1.0 during severe exercise?

a)

Fat oxidation produces more CO2 than O2 consumed

b)

Increased protein oxidation elevates CO2

c)

Bicarbonate buffering of H+ generates additional CO2 independent of mitochondrial oxidation

d)

O2 uptake is capped, forcing anaerobic CO2 release from lactate

49.

The lactate produced in fast-twitch fibers is best described as:

a)

A metabolic dead-end that must be excreted

b)

A substrate that can be oxidized in other tissues and fibers

c)

A toxin that directly inhibits actin-myosin binding

d)

The primary cause of delayed-onset muscle soreness

50.

A decrease in mitochondrial coupling efficiency during exercise most directly implies:

a)

Less O2 consumption for the same ATP production

b)

More ATP produced per NADH oxidized

c)

More O2 consumption for the same ATP production due to proton leak

d)

Complete inhibition of the TCA cycle

51.

Which regulatory change most directly increases carbohydrate oxidation at a given workload during acute exercise?

a)

Inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)

b)

Activation (dephosphorylation) of PDH

c)

Inhibition of glycogen phosphorylase

d)

Inhibition of PFK-1 by AMP

52.

When oxygen delivery is suddenly reduced at a fixed workload, which variable typically changes first to maintain ATP resynthesis?

a)

Mitochondrial density

b)

Rate of ATP utilization

c)

Contribution from anaerobic glycolysis

d)

Hemoglobin concentration

53.

Skeletal muscle GLUT4 translocation is increased mainly via:

a)

Insulin signaling only (PI3K-Akt)

b)

Contraction-mediated pathways involving AMPK and Ca2+ signaling

c)

Cortisol receptor activation

d)

Thyroid hormone receptor activation

54.

Which hormone is most directly responsible for counterregulation of falling blood glucose during prolonged exercise (especially in individuals with type 1 diabetes)?

a)

Leptin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Aldosterone

55.

IL-6 released from contracting skeletal muscle is best characterized as:

a)

An adipokine that suppresses lipolysis

b)

A myokine that can increase hepatic glucose output and lipolysis

c)

A neurotransmitter that reduces ventilation

d)

A steroid hormone from the adrenal cortex

56.

The baroreflex 'resetting' observed during exercise is most consistent with:

a)

Complete inactivation of baroreceptors

b)

A shift of the operating point to defend a higher arterial pressure

c)

Loss of sympathetic control of HR

d)

Permanent reduction in vascular resistance post-exercise

57.

Cortisol’s acute metabolic role during prolonged exercise is best described as:

a)

Promoting glycogen synthesis in muscle

b)

Supporting gluconeogenesis and mobilization of amino acids and fats

c)

Blocking hepatic glucose output

d)

Directly increasing muscle protein synthesis

58.

Which second messenger is most directly increased by beta-adrenergic receptor activation in muscle and liver?

a)

cAMP

b)

IP3

c)

cGMP

d)

NADPH

59.

According to the Fick principle, whole-body VO2 equals:

a)

HR × SV

b)

Q × (CaO2 − CvO2)

c)

MAP ÷ TPR

d)

SV ÷ HR

60.

At maximal exercise, the largest contributor to increased cardiac output in untrained individuals is typically:

a)

Increased stroke volume only

b)

Increased heart rate only

c)

Equal increases in HR and SV across all intensities

d)

Reduced preload

61.

The primary mechanism for increased venous return during rhythmic dynamic exercise is:

a)

Reduced skeletal muscle pump

b)

Increased blood viscosity

c)

Skeletal muscle pump and respiratory pump

d)

Decreased sympathetic venoconstriction

62.

Functional sympatholysis refers to:

a)

Sympathetic activation causing vasodilation in skin

b)

Local metabolic vasodilation blunting sympathetic vasoconstriction in active muscle

c)

Parasympathetic dominance at high intensities

d)

Complete loss of vasomotor tone after exercise

63.

Which local factor is most directly associated with exercise-induced vasodilation in active skeletal muscle?

a)

Endothelin-1

b)

Adenosine and increased K+ / H+ / CO2

c)

Increased angiotensin II

d)

Decreased nitric oxide

64.

During steady-state submaximal exercise, mean arterial pressure (MAP) typically:

a)

Decreases substantially due to vasodilation

b)

Remains unchanged because Q and TPR do not change

c)

Increases modestly because Q rises more than the fall in TPR

d)

Falls to the level of diastolic pressure

65.

The increase in a-vO2 difference during incremental exercise is primarily due to:

a)

Lower arterial O2 content

b)

Greater O2 extraction by working muscles (lower venous O2 content)

c)

Reduced hemoglobin concentration

d)

Reduced capillary density

66.

A key reason stroke volume can plateau at higher intensities is:

a)

Increased preload time due to longer diastole

b)

Reduced venous return from muscle pump

c)

Reduced ventricular filling time from high HR (shortened diastole)

d)

Elimination of sympathetic inotropy

67.

With upright dynamic exercise, cutaneous blood flow generally:

a)

Falls continuously as intensity increases

b)

Increases early, then may plateau or fall at very high intensities

c)

Is unchanged because skin is not active tissue

d)

Always exceeds muscle blood flow

68.

The 'crossover concept' in exercise metabolism refers to:

a)

Switching from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism at VO2max

b)

A shift from predominantly fat oxidation to predominantly carbohydrate oxidation with increasing intensity

c)

The point at which lactate equals pyruvate concentration

d)

The transition from type I to type II fiber recruitment only

69.

At the same absolute workload, endurance-trained individuals generally exhibit a lower RER because of:

a)

Higher reliance on amino acid oxidation

b)

Greater fat oxidation and reduced carbohydrate reliance

c)

Lower mitochondrial content

d)

Reduced capillary density

70.

Glycogen depletion during prolonged exercise most strongly contributes to fatigue by:

a)

Blocking lipolysis in adipose tissue

b)

Reducing the rate of carbohydrate-derived ATP resynthesis at higher intensities

c)

Increasing blood pH

d)

Preventing oxygen from binding hemoglobin

71.

Which scenario most increases net lactate appearance in blood during incremental exercise?

a)

Increased lactate clearance with unchanged production

b)

Unchanged production with increased clearance

c)

Production rises faster than clearance capacity

d)

Clearance rises faster than production

72.

The fast component of EPOC is most closely related to:

a)

Resynthesis of phosphocreatine and re-oxygenation of myoglobin/hemoglobin

b)

Muscle fiber hypertrophy

c)

Long-term increases in mitochondrial enzymes

d)

Glycogen supercompensation

73.

The 'fatmax' intensity is best defined as the exercise intensity at which:

a)

Total fat mass decreases fastest

b)

Absolute rate of fat oxidation is maximal

c)

RER equals 0.85 exactly

d)

Lactate begins to accumulate

74.

During prolonged endurance exercise, a rise in circulating free fatty acids (FFA) typically causes:

a)

Increased PDH activity and carbohydrate oxidation

b)

Decreased carbohydrate oxidation via Randle cycle mechanisms

c)

Complete inhibition of beta-oxidation

d)

Immediate depletion of liver glycogen

75.

Which metabolic pathway is primarily responsible for producing glucose from lactate during recovery?

a)

Glycogenolysis

b)

Cori cycle (hepatic gluconeogenesis)

c)

Pentose phosphate pathway

d)

Ketogenesis

76.

Ammonia accumulation during high-intensity exercise is most directly linked to:

a)

Deamination during amino acid transamination only

b)

ATP breakdown and AMP deamination (purine nucleotide cycle)

c)

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids

d)

Lactate oxidation in mitochondria

77.

The carnitine shuttle is essential for:

a)

Transport of glucose into muscle fibers

b)

Transport of long-chain fatty acyl-CoA into the mitochondrial matrix

c)

Export of lactate from muscle to blood

d)

Transport of pyruvate into mitochondria

78.

Which signaling kinase is a key energy sensor activated by increases in AMP/ATP ratio during exercise?

a)

mTORC1

b)

AMPK

c)

JNK

d)

PKA

79.

A primary downstream transcriptional coactivator associated with endurance training-induced mitochondrial biogenesis is:

a)

PGC-1α

b)

NFAT

c)

p53 (tumor suppressor) only

d)

HIF-2α

80.

Mechanical tension from resistance exercise most directly activates protein synthesis through:

a)

AMPK inhibition of mTORC1

b)

mTORC1 activation via mechanosensitive pathways (e.g., phosphatidic acid)

c)

Inhibition of insulin receptor substrate

d)

Activation of glycogen phosphorylase

81.

The acute rise in epinephrine during exercise primarily promotes:

a)

Increased insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells

b)

Increased muscle glucose uptake independent of GLUT4

c)

Hepatic glycogenolysis and adipose lipolysis

d)

Suppression of heart rate

82.

The primary extracellular buffer system for H+ during exercise is:

a)

Phosphate buffer

b)

Hemoglobin buffer

c)

Bicarbonate buffer

d)

Protein buffer in muscle only

83.

During heavy exercise, the largest immediate source of metabolic acidosis in muscle is best attributed to:

a)

Lactate directly releasing H+

b)

ATP hydrolysis and associated reactions increasing H+ availability

c)

Ketone body production

d)

Urea cycle activation

84.

A progressive rise in core temperature during exercise in the heat is most likely to cause:

a)

Decreased skin blood flow

b)

Increased sweating and cutaneous vasodilation

c)

Increased plasma volume

d)

Reduced heart rate at fixed workload

85.

Cardiovascular drift during prolonged exercise in the heat is characterized by:

a)

Decreasing HR and increasing SV

b)

Increasing HR and decreasing SV at a constant workload

c)

Increasing SV and Q with stable HR

d)

No change in HR or SV

86.

Exercise-associated hyponatremia is most commonly caused by:

a)

Too little sweating

b)

Excessive intake of hypotonic fluid relative to sodium loss

c)

Too much sodium intake

d)

High altitude exposure

87.

During repeated high-intensity contractions, extracellular K+ can rise. The immediate functional consequence most associated with this is:

a)

Improved membrane excitability indefinitely

b)

Reduced action potential propagation and force production

c)

Increased myosin ATPase activity

d)

Increased calcium sensitivity of troponin

88.

The most direct mechanism for maintaining plasma osmolality during dehydration is increased secretion of:

a)

Insulin

b)

Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Erythropoietin

89.

Metabolic heat production during exercise is primarily determined by:

a)

Mechanical efficiency and total metabolic rate

b)

Only ambient temperature

c)

Only sweat rate

d)

Only body fat percentage

90.

If ventilation increases disproportionately to VO2 during incremental exercise, this most directly reflects:

a)

A reduced need to eliminate CO2

b)

Increased buffering of H+ producing additional CO2 and stimulating ventilation

c)

A sudden drop in arterial O2 content at low workloads

d)

A decrease in chemoreceptor sensitivity

91.

The primary immediate defense against hypoglycemia during prolonged exercise in healthy individuals is:

a)

Increased insulin secretion

b)

Reduced hepatic glucose output

c)

Increased hepatic glucose production via glucagon and catecholamines

d)

Increased renal glucose excretion