Font size
WorksheetsChapter 7: The Nervous System - Organization and Classification
Total questions: 86
Worksheet time: 43mins
Which statement best describes the overall role of the nervous system?
It regulates body functions solely through hormones to maintain homeostasis.
It is the master control and communication system that uses electrical impulses for quick, specific responses.
It stores nutrients and releases them during stress responses.
It primarily generates heat to maintain body temperature.
Which structures make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)?
Brain and spinal cord
Cranial and spinal nerves
Sense organs and glands
Skeletal and smooth muscles
Which option correctly matches each peripheral division with the direction it carries impulses?
Sensory (afferent): from CNS to body; Motor (efferent): from body to CNS
Sensory (afferent): from body to CNS; Motor (efferent): from CNS to effectors
Sensory (afferent): between brain and spinal cord; Motor (efferent): between glands
Sensory (afferent): only from skin; Motor (efferent): only to skeletal muscle
In the three main functions of the nervous system, which step involves deciding what action to take based on sensory information?
Sensory input
Integration
Motor output
Homeostasis
Which component is part of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) and serves as communication lines connecting the CNS to the rest of the body?
Brain and spinal cord
Cranial and spinal nerves
Skeletal muscles
Endocrine glands
Which statement distinguishes the two branches of the autonomic nervous system?
Somatic stimulates smooth muscle; autonomic stimulates skeletal muscle.
Sympathetic stimulates fight or flight; parasympathetic inhibits rest and digest.
Sympathetic controls voluntary movements; parasympathetic controls reflexes only.
Sympathetic carries impulses to the CNS; parasympathetic carries impulses away from the CNS.
A person sees a red traffic light, recognizes it means stop, and presses the brake pedal. Which sequence correctly aligns with the nervous system’s functional steps?
Motor output → Integration → Sensory input
Integration → Sensory input → Motor output
Sensory input → Integration → Motor output
Sensory input → Motor output → Integration
Which statement best describes a polarized (resting) neuron membrane?
Inside is positive relative to outside due to Na+
Inside is negative relative to outside, maintained by the Na+-K+ pump
Membrane is equally permeable to Na+ and K+
K+ concentration is higher outside than inside
During the initial local depolarization of an action potential, which ion movement is primarily responsible?
Na+ diffuses out as sodium gates open
K+ diffuses in as potassium gates open
Na+ diffuses into the cell as sodium gates open
Ca2+ enters through voltage-gated channels at the axon terminal
What property of action potentials means a neuron either fires completely or not at all when threshold is reached?
Saltatory conduction
All-or-nothing response
Refractory period
Synaptic delay
Which sequence correctly orders events at a chemical synapse after an action potential arrives at the axon terminal?
Neurotransmitter binds to receptors → vesicles fuse with membrane → Ca2+ channels open
Vesicles fuse with membrane → Ca2+ channels open → neurotransmitter binds to receptors
Ca2+ channels open → vesicles fuse with membrane and release neurotransmitter → neurotransmitter binds to receptors
Neurotransmitter binds to receptors → Ca2+ channels open → vesicles fuse with membrane
Which statement about impulse conduction is correct?
Unmyelinated fibers conduct faster via saltatory conduction
Myelinated fibers conduct faster because impulses jump from node to node
Myelinated fibers conduct slower due to continuous conduction
Conduction speed is the same in myelinated and unmyelinated fibers
Which homeostatic imbalance directly blocks action potential generation by preventing Na+ influx?
Cold exposure reducing blood flow
Pressure causing numbness
Sedatives/anesthetics blocking Na+ channels
Excess K+ outside the neuron
Which event restores the internal negativity of the neuron during repolarization?
Na+ diffuses in
K+ diffuses out
Na+-K+ pump brings 3 Na+ in and 2 K+ out
Neurotransmitter reuptake
Which component is NOT one of the five elements of a reflex arc?
Receptor
Sensory neuron
Synaptic cleft
Effector
Somatic reflexes primarily stimulate which effectors?
Smooth muscle, heart, and glands
Skeletal muscles
Cardiac muscle only
Glands only
Which brain region is described as the most superior and largest part of the brain, covering the diencephalon and upper brain stem?
Cerebellum
Cerebral hemispheres (Cerebrum)
Diencephalon
Brain stem
The primary somatic sensory area is located in which lobe and primarily interprets touch, pain, and temperature?
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Which functional area controls skeletal muscle movement and is mainly located in the frontal lobe?
Primary motor area
Primary somatic sensory area
Visual area
Gustatory area
Broca’s area is typically found in the motor speech area and primarily controls which function?
Vision processing
Sounding of words and word formation
Taste perception
Auditory memory
Which brain lobe is primarily responsible for hearing, memory, and understanding language, behaviors, and emotions?
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe
Which structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres and is composed of commissural fibers?
Internal capsule
Corpus callosum
Basal nuclei
Cerebral aqueduct
Basal nuclei are best described as which of the following?
White matter tracts that connect the cerebrum to the spinal cord
Gray matter islands within white matter that regulate voluntary motor activities
Glands that secrete cerebrospinal fluid
Sensory relay centers in the thalamus
Damage to basal nuclei is associated with which disorder characterized by movement problems?
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s and Huntington’s disease
Multiple sclerosis
Epilepsy
Which diencephalic structure acts as a sensory relay to the cortex and contributes to crude awareness of pleasant or unpleasant sensations?
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Epithalamus
Pituitary gland
The hypothalamus regulates body temperature, water balance, metabolism, hunger, thirst, and emotions. It also controls which endocrine structure?
Pineal gland
Pituitary gland
Adrenal cortex
Thyroid gland
Which part of the brain stem contains pyramidal tract crossover and nuclei that control heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata
Cerebellum
The midbrain extends from the mammillary bodies to the pons and contains which structure that connects the third to the fourth ventricle?
Cerebral peduncles
Cerebral aqueduct
Corpora quadrigemina
Lateral ventricles
Which brain structure coordinates muscle movement and balance, ensures smooth precise motion, and compares intended versus actual body movement?
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Reticular formation
A patient exhibits clumsy, uncoordinated movements and loss of balance, especially with eyes closed. Which condition is most consistent with these signs?
Aphasia
Ataxia
Coma
Epilepsy
Association fibers, commissural fibers, and projection fibers run through the cerebrum and lower CNS. Which set specifically connects the two hemispheres?
Association fibers
Commissural fibers
Projection fibers
Reticular fibers
Which meningeal layer is described as the innermost, delicate membrane that closely adheres to the brain and spinal cord surfaces?
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
Epidural membrane
Subdural membrane
What structure allows cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to be absorbed into the dural venous sinuses?
Choroid plexus
Arachnoid granulations
Central canal
Median aperture
Lateral ventricles
Which statement best describes a key function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Carries oxygen to brain tissue
Provides cushion that reduces trauma and helps the brain float
Forms the blood-brain barrier to block toxins
Transmits motor impulses to muscles
Produces neurotransmitters like dopamine
Select the correct sequence for the main CSF circulation pathway before absorption into blood.
Fourth ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → third ventricle → lateral ventricles
Lateral ventricles → third ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space
Subarachnoid space → fourth ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → third ventricle
Central canal → fourth ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → lateral ventricles
Arachnoid granulations → subarachnoid space → fourth ventricle → choroid plexus
Which feature is characteristic of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
Highly permeable capillaries without tight junctions
Permits only water, glucose, and essential amino acids while blocking most proteins and drugs
Allows fats and fat-soluble molecules only by diffusion of proteins
Primary protection is by astrocyte feet creating complete impermeability
Blocks all respiratory gases from crossing
Meningitis can be diagnosed by obtaining a CSF sample from which location?
Lateral ventricles
Cerebral aqueduct
Subarachnoid space
Dural venous sinuses
Central canal
Hydrocephalus involves CSF accumulation. Which intervention is noted for treatment and post-procedure care?
Administer L-DOPA; encourage immediate ambulation
Place a shunt; after lumbar puncture, patient lies flat 6–12 hours to avoid spinal headache
Give acetylcholinesterase inhibitors; elevate head of bed
Perform craniotomy; restrict fluids for 24 hours
Administer beta-blockers; no position restrictions
Which neurotransmitter deficit and brain region degeneration are most associated with Parkinson’s disease?
Low acetylcholine due to hippocampal loss
Low dopamine due to substantia nigra neuron loss
Low serotonin due to cerebellar atrophy
High dopamine due to amygdala overactivity
High acetylcholine due to basal nuclei hyperactivity
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by which combination of cause and pathology?
High dopamine; Lewy bodies
Low acetylcholine; beta-amyloid plaques and tau neurofibrillary tangles
Low serotonin; demyelination
High acetylcholine; neurulation defects
Low GABA; prion plaques
Which statement best describes the function of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
It processes and integrates information within the brain and spinal cord.
It includes nerves and ganglia that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.
It produces cerebrospinal fluid within the central canal of the spinal cord.
It is limited to cranial nerves that control head and neck only.
Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds each individual nerve fiber within a peripheral nerve?
Epineurium
Perineurium
Endoneurium
Myelin sheath
All spinal nerves are classified as which nerve type?
Sensory (afferent) only
Motor (efferent) only
Mixed (both sensory and motor)
Autonomic only
Which landmark marks the superior extent of the spinal cord as described?
Foramen magnum
Conus medullaris
Cauda equina
L1–L2 vertebral level
Damage to which spinal cord structure leads to flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy due to lack of stimulation?
Dorsal horn
Ventral root
Dorsal column
Lateral column
A patient with a spinal cord transection exhibits spastic paralysis. Which explanation best accounts for this finding?
Voluntary motor pathways are intact, allowing controlled movement.
Reflex arcs stimulate muscles without voluntary control, producing involuntary movements.
All sensory input is preserved below the injury, increasing muscle tone.
Peripheral nerves degenerate completely, eliminating all movement.
Which cranial nerve is correctly matched with its primary function?
III Oculomotor — hearing and balance
VIII Vestibulocochlear — vision
X Vagus — heart, lungs, and digestion
XI Accessory — tongue movement
Which pair of cranial nerves primarily mediates facial sensation and chewing versus facial expression and anterior tongue taste, respectively?
V Trigeminal and VII Facial
VII Facial and V Trigeminal
IX Glossopharyngeal and XII Hypoglossal
IV Trochlear and VI Abducens
How many pairs of spinal nerves are formed from the dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal cord?
12 pairs
24 pairs
31 pairs
33 pairs
42 pairs
Which branch of a spinal nerve forms plexuses or intercostal nerves?
Dorsal ramus
Ventral ramus
Dorsal root
Meningeal branch
Sympathetic chain
Damage to which nerve from the cervical plexus can cause respiratory paralysis leading to death if untreated?
Axillary nerve
Phrenic nerve
Radial nerve
Femoral nerve
Sciatic nerve
Which plexus gives rise to the axillary, radial, median, musculocutaneous, and ulnar nerves that serve the upper limbs?
Cervical plexus (C1–C5)
Brachial plexus (C5–T1)
Lumbar plexus (L1–L4)
Sacral plexus (L4–S4)
Coccygeal plexus
Injury to the radial nerve most characteristically results in which deficit?
Clawhand (can’t spread fingers)
Wristdrop (can’t extend wrist)
Footdrop (can’t dorsiflex foot)
Loss of hand/finger flexion
Inability to adduct thigh
A patient cannot extend the leg or flex the hip and has loss of sensation over the anterior/medial thigh. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Obturator nerve
Common fibular nerve
Femoral nerve
Tibial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Which statement best explains the functional advantage of organizing spinal nerves into plexuses?
Plexuses increase the total number of spinal nerves.
Plexuses prevent any single nerve from innervating multiple muscles.
If one spinal nerve is damaged, other nerves in the plexus can still send signals to the same area.
Plexuses reduce the need for sensory neurons.
Plexuses eliminate reflex arcs.
Damage to which nerve leads to an inability to plantar flex or invert the foot, producing a shuffling gait?
Common fibular nerve
Tibial nerve
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Median nerve
Which major nerve of the sacral plexus is the largest in the body and splits into the common fibular and tibial nerves?
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Sciatic nerve
Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
The median nerve primarily innervates which region/function?
Deltoid and skin of shoulder
Triceps and extensor muscles of the posterior upper limb
Flexor and hand muscles; skin of anterior hand and fingers 2–3
Wrist and hand muscles; skin of medial hand
Adductor thigh muscles
Which deficit most closely matches damage to the common fibular nerve?
Can’t adduct thigh
Paralysis/atrophy of deltoid
Footdrop (can’t dorsiflex foot)
Loss of hand/finger flexion
Decreased elbow flexion
Which nerve injury is most associated with inability to adduct the thigh?
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Superior gluteal nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system controls involuntary activities of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands to maintain homeostasis?
Somatic nervous system
Autonomic nervous system
Central nervous system
Enteric nervous system
In the somatic nervous system, how many neurons are in the motor pathway to reach the effector?
One motor neuron
Two-neuron chain (preganglionic and postganglionic)
Three-neuron chain
Varies depending on the effector
Which statement best describes the parasympathetic division’s effect on the digestive system?
Decreases activity and constricts sphincters
Has no effect
Increases peristalsis and gland secretion
Releases glucose from the liver
During a stressful event, which physiological change is most consistent with sympathetic activation?
Decreased heart rate and force
Constriction of bronchioles
Dilation of pupils and increased metabolic rate
Relaxation of bladder sphincters
Which neurotransmitter pairing correctly matches the autonomic pathway levels?
Somatic motor neuron uses norepinephrine
Autonomic preganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine; postganglionic may release norepinephrine or acetylcholine
Autonomic preganglionic neuron releases norepinephrine; postganglionic releases acetylcholine only
Somatic system uses both acetylcholine and norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction
A patient experiences excessive sympathetic stimulation. Which condition is NOT listed as a potential consequence or exacerbation?
Heart disease
High blood pressure
Ulcers
Diabetes mellitus
Which memory aid correctly matches the division with its functions?
Parasympathetic is the "E" division: Exercise, Excitement, Emergency, Embarrassment
Sympathetic is the "D" division: Digestion, Defecation, Diuresis
Parasympathetic is the "D" division: Digestion, Defecation, Diuresis
Sympathetic controls rest and digest exclusively
Regarding brain development, which statement is most accurate based on the material?
The nervous system begins forming during adolescence
Maternal infection such as German measles (rubella) can cause deafness and CNS damage in the developing fetus
Brain development is unaffected by maternal illness during pregnancy
The first signs of nervous system development appear in the third trimester
Which factor directly kills neurons due to the high metabolic rate of nervous tissue?
Smoking
Oxygen deprivation
Radiation
Aging
The hypothalamus is one of the last CNS areas to mature and is responsible for which function that requires careful monitoring in premature babies?
Memory consolidation
Body temperature regulation
Language development
Pain perception
During development, myelination improves neuromuscular control and progresses in which general sequence?
Distal to proximal
Inferior to superior
Proximal to distal
Superior to inferior, then proximal to distal
Which statement best describes brain changes after young adulthood?
The brain continuously increases in weight and neuron number.
The brain reaches maximum weight in young adulthood, then gradually declines in size and neurons.
Neuron loss prevents any new learning after midlife.
Brain weight remains stable but neurons increase.
Aging reduces the efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system, leading to which condition upon standing due to slow sympathetic reaction?
Orthostatic hypotension
Hyponatremia
Hyperthermia
Synaptic fatigue
Which is identified as a main cause of nervous system deterioration with aging?
Autoimmune destruction of neurons
Circulatory system problems
Excess neuron production
Hyperplasia of glial cells
True senility affects approximately what proportion of people over age 65?
More than 50%
About 25%
Around 10%
Less than 5%
Cerebral palsy is primarily associated with which underlying event?
Genetic mutation of myelin proteins
Temporary lack of oxygen during difficult deliveries causing brain damage
Prenatal viral infection leading to demyelination
Autoimmune attack on the cerebrum after birth
In spina bifida, which finding characterizes the severe form?
Small dimple or tuft of hair with no neurological issues
Meninges, nerve roots, and spinal cord protrude causing paralysis and bladder/bowel control loss
Only vertebral arch failure without neural involvement
Cerebrum fails to develop
Anencephaly results in which outcome for the infant?
Poor temperature regulation but normal sensory processing
Seizure disorder with normal lifespan
Inability to see, hear, or process sensory information; fatal shortly after birth
Hydrocephalus requiring shunt placement
Which EEG pattern is associated with deep sleep?
Alpha waves
Beta waves
Theta waves
Delta waves
Which brain imaging technique is best matched with its primary use: detecting multiple sclerosis plaques and brain abnormalities?
CT (Computed Tomography)
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
PET (Positron Emission Tomography)
Cerebral angiography
A patient with suspected epileptic focus is most appropriately evaluated by which imaging technique that localizes seizure lesions?
PET (Positron Emission Tomography)
Ultrasound imaging
CT scan
DaTscan
Which test records electrical activity of the brain via electrodes on the scalp and face and produces an electroencephalogram?
Reflex testing
MRI
EEG
CT
Which statement about EEG patterns is correct?
Too slow suggests epileptic seizures or drug overdose.
Too fast indicates sleep or coma.
Too fast suggests epileptic seizures or drug overdose.
Alpha waves indicate an alert, active state.
Which imaging modality uses dye to visualize arteries and clots and can deliver drugs via catheter?
MRI
Cerebral angiography
Ultrasound imaging
DaTscan
Hydrocephalus is characterized by which underlying mechanism?
Lack of myelination in infancy
CSF buildup increasing brain pressure
Prenatal exposure to radiation
Autoimmune attack on the meninges
DaTscan is most useful for aiding diagnosis of which type of disorder?
Seizure disorders by locating lesions
Dopamine-related disorders such as Parkinson’s disease
Vascular malformations
Congenital neural tube defects
