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Key Core Competencies Overview

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which core competency primarily ensures nurses deliver effective and safe care while minimizing harm to patients?

a)

Transcultural nursing competence

b)

Safe and quality nursing care focus

c)

Social responsibility in communities

d)

Record and data management

2.

A nurse refuses a gift that could influence care decisions. Which competency is most directly demonstrated?

a)

Anatomy and physiology

b)

Collaboration and teamwork

c)

Quality improvement methods

d)

Ethico-moral responsibility

3.

Which competency most directly supports protecting patient privacy and proper documentation practices?

a)

Research utilization skills

b)

Microbiology and asepsis

c)

Transcultural nursing care

d)

Record management standards

4.

During a medication reconciliation, the nurse applies drug knowledge to prevent interactions. Which competency is being used?

a)

Social responsibility

b)

Pharmacology and Therapeutics

c)

Management of resources

d)

Positive practice environment

5.

A unit implements a handoff checklist after identifying frequent communication gaps. Which competency does this change best exemplify?

a)

Transcultural sensitivity

b)

Quality improvement processes

c)

Pathophysiology application

d)

Anatomy knowledge base

6.

Which pairing best links a competency with a PNLE-relevant ethical scenario?

a)

Anatomy — developing interprofessional policies

b)

Nutrition — managing electronic health record access

c)

Microbiology — budgeting for equipment purchases

d)

Ethico-moral responsibility — obtaining informed consent

7.

A nurse advocates for a quiet, respectful ward to reduce stress and errors. Which competency is most aligned?

a)

Record management

b)

Transcultural nursing

c)

Research and evidence synthesis

d)

Positive practice environment

8.

Which statement best defines morality in nursing practice?

a)

Legal statutes enforced by courts

b)

Religious doctrine for all patients

c)

Subjective perception of right or wrong

d)

Objective rules from professional codes

9.

Ethics in healthcare primarily involves what activity?

a)

Following hospital policies without judgment

b)

Imposing personal beliefs on patients

c)

Applying laws to punish misconduct

d)

Studying morality using standards and codes

10.

An ethical dilemma is most accurately described as a situation involving

a)

Conflict between two ethical principles

b)

Lack of clinical evidence for treatment

c)

Disagreement with physician orders

d)

Violation of a single hospital policy

11.

Which pair illustrates a common ethical dilemma in nursing?

a)

Efficiency versus cost containment

b)

Competence versus licensure

c)

Veracity versus nonmaleficence

d)

Beneficence versus documentation

12.

When confusion arises among family, patient, or care members, the recommended resource is the

a)

Legal counsel for litigation

b)

Hospital board of directors

c)

Risk management department

d)

Ethics committee for advisory guidance

13.

The ethics committee’s primary role is to

a)

Make binding legal decisions

b)

Provide advisory guidance for decision-making

c)

Discipline staff for ethical violations

d)

Authorize experimental treatments

14.

The deontological approach in ethics is best characterized as

a)

Outcome-focused and end-based

b)

Duty-based using universal codes

c)

Culture-driven and relative

d)

Preference-based and individual

15.

Ethical skepticism or relativity holds that decisions

a)

Are determined by legal statutes only

b)

Should maximize population-level happiness

c)

Depend on patient values, culture, beliefs

d)

Must follow universal professional rules

16.

A Jehovah’s Witness refusing blood transfusion exemplifies which approach?

a)

Ethical relativism based on beliefs

b)

Utilitarian cost–benefit decision

c)

Deontological rule-based decision

d)

Teleological outcome-based decision

17.

Teleological ethics focuses primarily on

a)

Alignment with religious doctrines

b)

Intentions behind the action

c)

Compliance with universal codes

d)

Consequences or outcomes of the action

18.

Utilitarianism seeks the

a)

Greatest good for the greatest number

b)

Strict adherence to duty-based rules

c)

Protection of individual autonomy only

d)

Maintenance of traditional moral codes

19.

In disaster triage guided by utilitarianism, first priority in hospital is given to

a)

Green—minor injuries

b)

Yellow—delayed care

c)

Red—life-threatening conditions

d)

Black—expectant deaths

20.

Outside the hospital during mass casualty, reverse triage emphasizes

a)

Prioritizing those with highest survival chance

b)

Providing comfort care to expectant patients

c)

First treating those with minimal injuries

d)

Treating life-threatening cases first

21.

The principle of double effect applies when an action

a)

Violates a single ethical rule

b)

Provides no measurable outcomes

c)

Has both good and bad effects

d)

Is always beneficial to all patients

22.

The ethical principle of totality stresses that care decisions should

a)

Defer to family preferences only

b)

Consider the wholeness of the person

c)

Prioritize professional convenience

d)

Focus on isolated organ outcomes

23.

Which approach best guides assessment of costs and benefits for a larger population?

a)

Teleological intention-focused model

b)

Deontological duty-based framework

c)

Utilitarianism greatest happiness principle

d)

Ethical relativism and culture-based

24.

Which statement best reflects patient autonomy in nursing practice?

a)

Selecting treatment without patient input

b)

Obtaining informed consent before procedures

c)

Prioritizing staff convenience over choice

d)

Delaying decisions until family agrees

25.

A nurse supports a patient’s refusal of chemotherapy and documents the signed refusal. Which principle is primarily upheld?

a)

Justice and equal allocation

b)

Autonomy and self-determination

c)

Paternalism for patient safety

d)

Fidelity to institutional policy

26.

Which action most exemplifies beneficence?

a)

Treating all patients equally

b)

Avoiding shortcuts in procedures

c)

Informing a patient of risks

d)

Organizing a vaccination outreach

27.

Raising side rails for a confused patient is best justified under which concept?

a)

Beneficence as prudent action

b)

Justice as equal treatment

c)

Veracity as honest disclosure

d)

Fidelity as kept promise

28.

Which scenario demonstrates non-maleficence?

a)

Prioritizing one patient over another

b)

Declining to perform unfamiliar procedures

c)

Choosing a costly but effective therapy

d)

Sharing all details with the family

29.

“Primum non nocere” most closely relates to which principle?

a)

Non-maleficence: do no harm

b)

Justice: fair distribution

c)

Fidelity: keep promises

d)

Beneficence: do good acts

30.

Treating patients equally regardless of socioeconomic status exemplifies which principle?

a)

Justice in fair treatment

b)

Advocacy for autonomy

c)

Veracity in disclosure

d)

Paternalism in control

31.

A nurse promises to return after administering medications and comes back in five minutes. Which principle is demonstrated?

a)

Fidelity through kept promises

b)

Advocacy through speaking up

c)

Veracity through truth telling

d)

Justice through equal time

32.

A nurse provides truthful testimony in court about a patient incident. Which principle is most relevant?

a)

Veracity and honesty

b)

Beneficence and welfare

c)

Autonomy and consent

d)

Justice and equity

33.

Which is an essential element of autonomy in clinical decisions?

a)

Ability to set personal goals

b)

Guarantee of financial support

c)

Physician-directed choices

d)

Presence of a legal guardian

34.

Which nursing action best reflects advocacy?

a)

Balancing resources across units

b)

Speaking to protect patient preferences

c)

Selecting treatment without consent

d)

Withholding complex information

35.

A competent adult declines surgery after being informed of risks and alternatives. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Call ethics committee immediately

b)

Respect refusal and document

c)

Proceed under implied consent

d)

Convince family to persuade

36.

Which situation most clearly violates non-maleficence?

a)

Consulting the care team

b)

Shortcuts that increase risk

c)

Teaching before discharge

d)

Offering supportive counseling

37.

When a nurse chooses actions that promote overall patient welfare, which principle guides the decision?

a)

Beneficence as core motive

b)

Justice as distribution rule

c)

Veracity as disclosure duty

d)

Fidelity as promise-keeping

38.

Which example aligns with justice in nursing?

a)

Extra time for paying patients

b)

Different consent for VIPs

c)

Preferential access for donors

d)

Fair triage regardless status

39.

Benevolent deception is best described as which practice?

a)

Temporarily withholding distressing information

b)

Always telling the complete truth

c)

Allocating resources equally

d)

Choosing for safety without consent

40.

Paternalism in healthcare most closely involves which behavior?

a)

Keeping detailed promises to patients

b)

Providing information transparently

c)

Ensuring equal access for all groups

d)

Overriding patient choices for safety

41.

Which pair correctly matches principle to typical action?

a)

Veracity—accurate disclosure of facts

b)

Justice—promises kept on time

c)

Autonomy—staff decide treatments

d)

Beneficence—avoiding any harm

42.

A nurse refrains from performing a procedure they are not competent to do. This primarily reflects which principle?

a)

Non-maleficence preventing harm

b)

Justice ensuring equal access

c)

Fidelity honoring a promise

d)

Paternalism guiding decisions

43.

During an emergency outside the hospital, a nurse provides prudent aid without compensation. Which ethical concept is illustrated?

a)

Good Samaritan beneficence

b)

Selective veracity

c)

Strict procedural justice

d)

Mandatory paternalism

44.

Which body serves as the primary authority for the Code of Ethics for Nurses in the Philippines?

a)

Board of Nursing

b)

Professional Regulation Commission

c)

Department of Health

d)

Philippine Nurses Association

45.

In what year was the Code of Ethics for Nurses first formulated in Iloilo City?

a)

1980

b)

1982

c)

1992

d)

2003

46.

What date is noted as the final formulation of the Code of Ethics for Nurses?

a)

June 12, 1998

b)

September 2, 1922

c)

July 14, 2004

d)

October 23, 2003

47.

Which organization coordinates closely with the Board of Nursing in relation to the Code of Ethics?

a)

Department of Education

b)

World Health Organization

c)

Philippine Nurses Association

d)

American Hospital Association

48.

The legal basis for the Code of Ethics is identified as which Board of Nursing resolution?

a)

Resolution No. 100 series of 2002

b)

Resolution C 150 series of 1999

c)

Resolution H 220 series of 2004

d)

Resolution A 315 series of 2005

49.

Which principal basis is highlighted alongside the Code of Good Governance in shaping nursing ethics?

a)

Nuremberg Code

b)

Belmont Report

c)

Declaration of Helsinki

d)

Code of Hammurabi

50.

According to the hallmarks of nursing responsibility, which action reflects accountability?

a)

Accepting gifts from patients

b)

Delegating all tasks to aides

c)

Accurate documentation of actions

d)

Advocating for higher pay

51.

Altruism in the nursing profession is best described as

a)

Strict adherence to policy

b)

Authority over decisions

c)

Selfless concern for others

d)

Technical skill proficiency

52.

When a patient has a valid Do-Not-Resuscitate order, performing CPR would most likely constitute

a)

Negligence

b)

Autonomy

c)

Battery

d)

Informed consent

53.

Under Article 3, Section 10, how should nurses respond to gifts with high intrinsic monetary value?

a)

Accept if given by family

b)

Decline to maintain professionalism

c)

Donate them to the unit fund

d)

Accept discreetly to avoid offense

54.

Which behavior exemplifies a violation of the nursing Code of Ethics related to dress code?

a)

Using a plain name badge

b)

Wearing a miniskirt with plunging neckline

c)

Keeping hair tied back

d)

Wearing clean scrubs daily

55.

Which action is listed as a violation involving commission against the profession?

a)

Reporting medication errors

b)

Appearing in demeaning commercials

c)

Declining a patient’s tip

d)

Educating families thoroughly

56.

Which statement best characterizes the Patient’s Bill of Rights?

a)

Not legally binding but important

b)

Issued by the World Health Organization

c)

Legally binding statute nationwide

d)

Only applicable to private hospitals

57.

Which organization introduced the Patient’s Bill of Rights in 1973?

a)

Board of Nursing

b)

American Hospital Association

c)

Philippine Nurses Association

d)

International Council of Nurses

58.

Which right emphasizes self-determination in healthcare decision-making?

a)

Services

b)

Education

c)

Autonomy

d)

Privacy

59.

Which statement best defines an advance directive in healthcare?

a)

Instructions made ahead of time by patients

b)

Orders written after hospitalization by physicians

c)

Insurance policy chosen during enrollment

d)

Consent obtained during each procedure

60.

When is an advance directive typically made and when does it take effect?

a)

Made by proxy; effective after two witnesses

b)

Made during admission; effective immediately

c)

Made when incapacitated; effective after recovery

d)

Made while competent; effective when incapacitated

61.

What is the primary purpose of a health care proxy or surrogate?

a)

Assigns a decision-maker if incapacitated

b)

Selects preferred hospital for treatment

c)

Requests specific medications for pain

d)

Authorizes release of billing information

62.

Which feature characterizes a durable power of attorney for health care?

a)

Remains valid even if the patient loses capacity

b)

Expires once the patient becomes incapacitated

c)

Applies only to financial transactions

d)

Requires court appointment of a guardian

63.

Which example reflects a revocable, ambulatory nature of a proxy document?

a)

Patient changes proxy from wife to daughter

b)

Hospital ethics board mandates CPR

c)

Family refuses all nutrition and fluids

d)

Nurse countersigns physician’s DNR order

64.

Which statement best describes a living will?

a)

Form assigning financial power of attorney

b)

Policy outlining hospital code team procedures

c)

Document stating desired treatments to accept or refuse

d)

Contract guaranteeing resuscitation in all arrests

65.

Which phrase correctly explains a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?

a)

Resuscitation is never attempted in cardiac or respiratory arrest

b)

Resuscitation attempted only by physicians on duty

c)

Resuscitation delayed until family arrives

d)

Resuscitation performed unless patient is unconscious

66.

Which interventions are generally still appropriate for a patient with a DNR order?

a)

Intubation solely to obtain consent

b)

Defibrillation during respiratory arrest

c)

CPR, code blue activation, crash team

d)

Antibiotics, antivirals, dialysis, IV fluids

67.

A nurse performs CPR on a patient with a valid DNR order. What legal risk is most likely?

a)

Battery for unwanted physical contact

b)

Malpractice for documentation errors

c)

Negligence for delayed response

d)

False imprisonment for room restriction

68.

Which situation correctly shows when a proxy’s authority becomes active?

a)

Patient signs consent for minor procedure

b)

Patient disagrees with physician’s recommendation

c)

Patient expresses mild fatigue after surgery

d)

Patient deemed incapacitated by clinician

69.

Which action should nursing staff avoid for a patient with DNR status during arrest?

a)

Calling code blue and initiating CPR

b)

Administering scheduled antibiotics

c)

Providing IV fluids and nutrition

d)

Monitoring for infection symptoms

70.

Which statement distinguishes DNR from overall medical care limitations?

a)

DNR applies only in non-hospital settings

b)

DNR cancels all ongoing therapies and evaluations

c)

DNR restricts resuscitation only, not routine treatments

d)

DNR authorizes family to dictate medication doses

71.

Which statement best describes a Last Will and Testament?

a)

A consent form for hospital procedures

b)

A financial contract between family members

c)

A legal document directing property disposition

d)

A medical order for end-of-life care

72.

When does a Last Will and Testament take effect?

a)

At the maker’s eighteenth birthday

b)

After a witness signs it

c)

When drafted by an attorney

d)

Upon the testator’s death

73.

Which condition is REQUIRED for a person to make a valid will?

a)

Currently hospitalized and sedated

b)

Sound mind without undue influence

c)

Owning real property and assets

d)

Married with legal dependents

74.

What is the minimum age to make a valid will and to witness one?

a)

Twenty-one years old exactly

b)

No age limit specified

c)

Sixteen years old or above

d)

Eighteen years old or above

75.

Which individual is legally qualified to witness a will?

a)

Able to read and write, not blind or deaf

b)

A close heir with direct interest

c)

A minor with parental consent

d)

A notary without literacy

76.

Which statement about oral (non-cupative) wills is accurate?

a)

Always valid if two witnesses sign

b)

Valid only for soldiers on duty

c)

Not valid though a common practice

d)

Valid when recorded by a physician

77.

What makes a holographic will valid?

a)

Filed with the local courthouse

b)

Entirely written, dated, and signed by the maker

c)

Typed by a lawyer and notarized

d)

Witnessed by three hospital staff

78.

Match each term to its correct role in inheritance.

a)

Testator

b)

Heir

c)

Devisee

d)

Legatee

79.

Who is a devisee in estate terminology?

a)

One who inherits real property

b)

Maker of the will document

c)

One who inherits personal property

d)

Court-appointed estate administrator

80.

Active euthanasia is best characterized by which action?

a)

Allowing natural disease progression

b)

Bringing about death through direct action

c)

Withdrawing life-sustaining therapy

d)

Withholding antibiotics and fluids

81.

Which example illustrates passive euthanasia?

a)

Administering a lethal injection

b)

Turning off a respirator per wishes

c)

Providing continuous vasopressor support

d)

Starting new curative chemotherapy

82.

Which statement aligns with the legal status noted for active euthanasia?

a)

Mandatory when suffering is severe

b)

Always permitted by living wills

c)

Conditionally legal in all states

d)

Invalid and prohibited by law