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mental health Rn nursing midterm study guide

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a 'milieu'?

a)

A) A type of medication for mental health disorders

b)

B) Therapy focused on modifying/controlled environment to develop life and social skills disrupted by mental health disorder

c)

C) A legal term for patient rights

d)

D) A type of physical exercise

2.

Which of the following is NOT a component of milieu therapy?

a)

A) Orient patient to physical setting

b)

B) ID rules and boundaries

c)

C) Safe environment

d)

D) Administering medication

3.

Nonmaleficence means _________.

a)

do no harm

b)

do good always

c)

respect autonomy

d)

seek justice

4.

Which ethical principle refers to being truthful and authentic?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Fidelity

c)

Veracity

d)

Beneficence

5.

Intentional tort implies that the person knowingly performed unsafe, unlawful actions or an act of omission.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following is an example of assault in nursing?

a)

Physical harm to a client

b)

Verbal harm that causes fear or anxiety

c)

Breaking confidence

d)

Confinement without legal grounds

7.

Battery in nursing does NOT require which of the following?

a)

A) A threat

b)

B) Physical contact

c)

C) Client awareness of contact

d)

D) Offensive or unwanted contact

8.

False imprisonment is the confinement of a client when there are no legal grounds to do so.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Invasion of privacy in nursing can include breaking confidence by sharing photos without patient permission.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Negligence is defined as _________.

a)

providing inadequate care in a professional setting

b)

following all professional guidelines

c)

delivering exceptional care consistently

d)

ensuring patient safety at all times

11.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five elements of malpractice?

a)

Breach of duty

b)

Cause in fact

c)

Damages

d)

Informed consent

e)

Duty

12.

What is informed consent in mental health care?

a)

Voluntary agreement to treatment or procedures, must know treatment description, risk vs benefit, consequences of no treatment and alternatives.

b)

A legal document signed by the patient before any treatment.

c)

A mandatory procedure for all patients regardless of their understanding.

d)

A verbal agreement between patient and doctor without any explanation.

13.

What does parity mean in the context of health insurance?

a)

Equal coverage for mental and physical health accessibility to health insurance.

b)

Coverage only for physical health conditions.

c)

A discount on health insurance premiums.

d)

Insurance that only covers prescription drugs.

14.

Which of the following is NOT a type of involuntary admission?

a)

Danger to self

b)

Request of client

c)

Danger to others

d)

Unable to meet basic self-care needs

15.

What is the purpose of psychiatric advanced directives?

a)

Legal documents that allow clients with mental illness to state treatment preferences ahead of time in case they lose decision-making capacity.

b)

A form of therapy used to treat severe depression.

c)

A medication regimen for managing schizophrenia.

d)

A support group for individuals with anxiety disorders.

16.

Who makes decisions for a person with loss of capacity according to the health care power of attorney?

a)

The health care power attorney portion person (health care proxy).

b)

The person's neighbor.

c)

The hospital janitor.

d)

The local police officer.

17.

What is the difference between capacity and competency in mental health care?

a)

Capacity is understanding information and consequences assessed by provider; competency is determined in a court of law and providers do not determine competency.

b)

Capacity is a legal term, while competency is a medical diagnosis made by providers.

c)

Capacity and competency are both determined solely by mental health providers.

d)

Competency is about understanding treatment options, while capacity is about following provider instructions.

18.

Which of the following is a release criterion for restraint use?

a)

Continuous monitoring

b)

Release based on client's response

c)

Restraints removed by registered nurses

d)

All of the above

19.

Who is responsible for diagnosing and managing medications in a psychiatric interdisciplinary team?

a)

Psychiatrist

b)

Psychologist

c)

Social Worker

d)

Occupational Therapist

20.

Which professional is responsible for coordinating care discharge planning and community resources?

a)

Psychologist

b)

Social worker

c)

Occupational therapist

d)

Psychiatric pharmacist

21.

What is one of the responsibilities of a mental health RN?

a)

Conduct assessment

b)

Prescribe medication

c)

Perform surgery

d)

Diagnose physical illnesses

22.

Fill in the blank: The scope of practice of a mental health RN includes conducting assessment, monitoring safety, administering medication, providing therapeutic communication, teaching coping strategies, and ________ responses.

a)

documenting

b)

ignoring

c)

delaying

d)

exaggerating

23.

A nurse should assist or advocate for a client who is angry and demanding by:

a)

Listening actively and addressing concerns respectfully.

b)

Ignoring the client's complaints to avoid escalation.

c)

Telling the client to calm down and wait their turn.

d)

Responding with equal anger to show authority.

24.

Parity means equal coverage for mental and physical health in accessibility to health insurance for clients who have mental illness or substance use related illness.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

According to the Affordable Care Act, can insurance companies deny coverage or charge higher rates for pre-existing conditions, including mental illness?

a)

Yes

b)

No

26.

Compassion fatigue is:

a)

a state of emotional exhaustion from caring for others

b)

a physical injury caused by overwork

c)

a type of contagious disease

d)

a method of stress management

27.

Fill in the blank: Incivility includes rude or disrespectful, disruptive ________ behavior.

a)

dismissive

b)

encouraging

c)

supportive

d)

cooperative

28.

When should policy/procedure be discussed with patients?

a)

At the end of the stay

b)

At the beginning of the stay to set boundaries

c)

Only if there is a problem

d)

Never

29.

It is a best practice to inform clients on admission about the seclusion and restraint policy to avoid any misunderstandings.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What is a physical restraint?

a)

A drug used to calm a patient

b)

Manual/mechanical device that reduces movement ability or arm legs or body

c)

Involuntary confinement

d)

A type of comfort measure

31.

What is seclusion?

a)

Giving medication to a patient

b)

Involuntary confinement preventing the client from leaving (only to be used in case of self/ or other directed harm)

c)

Allowing the patient to leave the facility

d)

Setting boundaries at the beginning of the stay

32.

Fill in the blank: Least restrictive measures include ________, distraction, comfort measures, PRN meds.

a)

verbal de-escalation

b)

physical restraints

c)

seclusion

d)

chemical sedation

33.

Which of the following is an example of an adaptive behavior?

a)

Exercise

b)

Panic

c)

Seclusion

d)

Restraint

34.

Maladaptive behaviors are those that prevent coping with a situation.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

An anxiety response that matches the situation is called ________.

a)

Justified

b)

Irrational

c)

Excessive

d)

Unrelated

36.

An anxiety response that is disproportionate to the situation is called ________.

a)

Unjustified

b)

Expected

c)

Mild

d)

Temporary

37.

What are some neurophysiologic manifestations of anxiety?

a)

Increased adrenaline, dry mouth, sweating, increased heart rate and respiratory rate

b)

Fatigue, exhaustion, difficulty concentrating

c)

GI disturbance, sleep disruptions, fight or flight response, sleep troubles

d)

All of the above

38.

The role of vulnerability gene in anxiety can be genetic, biological, physiological, cognitive, and personality, making individuals predisposed to mental health disorders like anxiety.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Panic level anxiety is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Feels terror, exhausted, no longer responding to stimuli

b)

Panic attacks occur unexpectedly for no apparent reason

c)

Fight, flight, freeze, fawn

d)

All of the above

40.

Transdiagnostic anxiety refers to psychological processes or vulnerabilities that are common across multiple mental health disorders. Which of the following sets of disorders share these features?

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Major Depressive Disorder, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

b)

Schizophrenia, Anorexia Nervosa, Tourette's Syndrome

c)

Bipolar Disorder, Autism Spectrum Disorder, Narcolepsy

d)

Dissociative Identity Disorder, Insomnia, Conduct Disorder

41.

What are adverse childhood experiences?

a)

Adverse childhood experiences

b)

Positive childhood experiences

c)

Neutral childhood experiences

d)

Supportive childhood experiences

42.

What are positive childhood experiences? (Does not cancel out ACE but can be protective)

a)

Positive childhood experiences

b)

Adverse childhood experiences

c)

Negative peer influences

d)

Chronic stress in childhood

43.

Identify two protective factors for adverse/positive childhood experiences.

a)

Supportive family relationships and community involvement

b)

Lack of supervision and social isolation

c)

Exposure to violence and neglect

d)

Unstable housing and frequent relocations

44.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for anxiety related disorders?

a)

Family history

b)

Male gender

c)

No social support

d)

Inconsistent discipline

45.

What is generalized anxiety disorder? Fill in the blank: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry most days for ___ months, difficult to control, and symptoms such as restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance.

a)

6+ months

b)

1 month

c)

3 months

d)

12 months

46.

What is selective mutism? Fill in the blank: Selective mutism is the __________, and not being able to speak during school even when spoken to, which affects achievement academically or socially and interferes with regular communication.

a)

consistent failure to speak in some social situations

b)

inability to understand language

c)

tendency to speak excessively in all situations

d)

desire to avoid all social contact

47.

Which of the following is a characteristic of phobia?

a)

A) Fear/anxiety upon exposure to a specific object or situation

b)

B) Excessive grooming

c)

C) Pulling one's hair

d)

D) Setting clear boundaries

48.

What is separation anxiety? Fill in the blank: Separation anxiety is excessive fear/anxiety without their person/people, often resulting in ____.

a)

nightmares

b)

hunger

c)

laughter

d)

excitement

49.

What is body dysmorphia? Fill in the blank: Body dysmorphia is the preoccupation with perceived defects or flaws in appearance, often leading to behaviors such as mirror checking, excessive grooming, skin picking, reassurance seeking, and _____?

a)

eating disorder

b)

increased sleep

c)

improved memory

d)

better vision

50.

What is trichotillomania? Fill in the blank: Trichotillomania is a pattern of behavior by serially or intentionally pulling one's hair, often due to boredom or anxiety, resulting in reduced tension, gratification, pleasure, or a sense of _____

a)

release

b)

confusion

c)

anger

d)

dizziness

51.

Which of the following best describes a nurse/patient boundary violation?

a)

A) Setting clear boundaries

b)

B) Avoiding misunderstandings

c)

C) Crossing established boundaries between client and nurse

d)

D) Using best current evidence

52.

What is evidence-based practice? Fill in the blank: Evidence-based practice involves using best current evidence, clinical experience, and ____ values.

a)

client

b)

financial

c)

organizational

d)

technological

53.

Which of the following are considered priority assessment findings in mental health nursing? (Select all that apply)

a)

Suicidal ideation

b)

Homicidal ideation

c)

Psychosis

d)

Withdrawal symptoms

e)

Severe anxiety/panic

54.

What does the 'O' stand for in the ADPIE framework of the 6 Standards of Practice?

a)

Outcome identification

b)

Observation

c)

Order entry

d)

Objective assessment

55.

Client-centered care planning includes which of the following?

a)

Accessibility

b)

Collaboration

c)

Quality across patient goals

d)

Preference and culture/decision making

e)

All of the above

56.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the trauma-informed care framework?

a)

Safety

b)

Compassion and trustworthiness

c)

Empowerment

d)

Medication management

57.

Holistic care involves treating the client as a whole in all areas of ADPIE. Which of the following is NOT one of these areas?

a)

A) Physical

b)

B) Emotional and psychological

c)

C) Financial

d)

D) Spiritual

58.

Therapeutic relationships in mental health nursing should include which of the following?

a)

Use of empathy

b)

Active listening

c)

Avoiding judgement

d)

Asking open-ended questions

e)

All of the above

59.

Therapeutic communication should be conducted in a way that benefits clients' mental health.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Name two techniques used in building trusting therapeutic communication.

a)

Empathy and active listening

b)

Judgment and criticism

c)

Interrupting and ignoring

d)

Sarcasm and confrontation

61.

Neurotransmission involves which of the following?

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Enzymes

d)

Vitamins

62.

What is a neurotransmitter? Fill in the blank: A neurotransmitter is a chemical messenger that sends signals from one nerve cell/neuron to another or to muscles and gland cells.

a)

A chemical messenger that sends signals from one nerve cell/neuron to another or to muscles and gland cells.

b)

A type of electrical impulse that travels through the bloodstream.

c)

A protein that provides structural support to neurons.

d)

A hormone that regulates blood sugar levels.

63.

What is the process called when neurotransmitters send signals from one neuron to another?

a)

Neurotransmission

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Transcription

64.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with mood, sleep, appetite, and sexual desire, and decreases in depression and anxiety?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

GABA

65.

Dopamine is involved in which of the following?

a)

Reward

b)

Movement

c)

Memory

d)

Learning

66.

Fill in the blank: Norepinephrine is associated with ______ and arousal. Decrease in depression, increase in anxiety/mania.

a)

fight/flight

b)

digestion

c)

sleep

d)

memory

67.

Acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic activation and is decreased in which diseases?

a)

Alzheimer’s, Huntington’s, Parkinson’s

b)

Multiple sclerosis, ALS, Myasthenia gravis

c)

Schizophrenia, Bipolar disorder, Depression

d)

Diabetes, Hypertension, Asthma

68.

GABA has a calming effect, while Glutamate is associated with excitation.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

How does genetics affect mental illness and medication response? Fill in the blank: Genetics affect what medications, receptor densities, and metabolism in the liver. Some meds work for some people and others don’t; meds are _______.

a)

individual

b)

universal

c)

predictable

d)

identical

70.

What is a key teaching point for benzodiazepine use regarding dependency?

a)

Do not use chronically for more than 6 months as high rates of dependency make it near impossible to get people off them long term.

b)

Benzodiazepines are not associated with any risk of dependency.

c)

Benzodiazepines can be stopped abruptly without any withdrawal symptoms.

d)

Long-term use of benzodiazepines is recommended for all patients with anxiety.

71.

What is a dangerous manifestation of alcohol withdrawal?

a)

Manifestations of withdrawal symptoms are lethal.

b)

Mild headache and fatigue are always fatal.

c)

Increased appetite is the most dangerous symptom.

d)

Improved sleep quality is a warning sign.

72.

What are some symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

a)

Seizures

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Tremors

d)

Diaphoresis

e)

Tachycardia

73.

Fill in the blank: Early alcohol withdrawal symptoms can include shaking headaches, which stop as ________ is released before alcohol is consumed.

a)

dopamine

b)

serotonin

c)

adrenaline

d)

cortisol

74.

Opiate withdrawal: When do acute physical symptoms typically develop after the last dose?

a)

1-2 hours

b)

12-24 hours

c)

2-3 days

d)

1 week

75.

Fill in the blank: Post-acute (protracted) opiate withdrawal can last for _______ after the last dose.

a)

2 weeks or months

b)

2-3 days

c)

24 hours

d)

6-8 hours

76.

Fill in the blank: Methadone is a _______ acting opioid agonist used in opiate withdrawal.

a)

long

b)

short

c)

rapid

d)

intermediate

77.

Fill in the blank: Naltrexone is used to prevent _______ and block opioid effects.

a)

relapse

b)

infection

c)

withdrawal

d)

addiction