wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharmacology Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which suffix is commonly found in the names of tetracycline antibiotics?

a)

-cycline

b)

-sulf-

c)

-caine

d)

-navir

2.

What prefix or suffix is associated with antiviral drugs that are protease inhibitors?

a)

-navir

b)

-vir, -vir

c)

-clovir

d)

-vudine

3.

Which medication class typically ends with the suffix "-azole"?

a)

Antifungals

b)

Antivirals

c)

Opioids

d)

Barbiturates

4.

What is the suffix for local anesthetics?

a)

-caine

b)

-zepam

c)

-barbital

d)

-profene

5.

Which of the following medication classes is associated with the suffix "-done" or "-one"?

a)

Opioids

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Antifungals

d)

Beta2-agonists

6.

Which suffix is used for selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

a)

-oxetine, -talopram, -zodone

b)

-triptyline, -pramine

c)

-caine

d)

-phylline

7.

A medication ending in "-terol" is most likely used for which condition?

a)

Bronchodilation in lower respiratory conditions

b)

Antiviral therapy

c)

Pain management

d)

Antifungal infections

8.

If a drug name contains the prefix "cef-" or "ceph-", what class does it belong to?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Penicillins

c)

Sulfonamides

d)

Aminoglycosides

9.

Which suffix is associated with benzodiazepines, a class of anxiolytics?

a)

-zolam, -zepam

b)

-caine

c)

-cycline

d)

-navir

10.

A medication ending in "-zumab" or "-lukast" is most likely used for which purpose?

a)

Immunomodulation or leukotriene modification in lower respiratory conditions

b)

Antiviral therapy

c)

Antidepressant therapy

d)

Local anesthesia

11.

Which suffix is commonly found in the names of thiazolidinediones, a class of antidiabetic medications?

a)

-glitazone

b)

-pril

c)

-olol

d)

-sartan

12.

Priya is brought to the emergency room after accidentally taking a large amount of acetaminophen (Tylenol). What is the antidote for her overdose?

a)

Acetylcysteine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Atropine

d)

Digibind

13.

Which class of antihypertensive drugs typically ends with the suffix "-pril"?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Beta blockers

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Loop diuretics

14.

A patient is prescribed a medication ending in "-sartan." What type of medication is this most likely to be?

a)

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

b)

Beta blocker

c)

Thiazide diuretic

d)

Alpha-1 blocker

15.

Which antidote should be administered in the case of opioid or narcotic overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Vitamin K

16.

If a patient is experiencing toxicity from calcium channel blockers, which of the following is NOT an appropriate antidote?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

Calcium

17.

A medication with the suffix "-prazole" is most likely used to treat which condition?

a)

Gastrointestinal disorders (as a proton pump inhibitor)

b)

Hypertension (as a beta blocker)

c)

Diabetes (as a DPP-4 inhibitor)

d)

High cholesterol (as a statin)

18.

Which of the following medication classes is matched with the correct suffix?

a)

Beta blockers – -olol

b)

Thiazide diuretics – -pril

c)

ACE inhibitors – -olol

d)

Alpha-1 blockers – -sartan

19.

Mason is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive, and it is determined that he has overdosed on benzodiazepines. Which antidote should be administered?

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Atropine

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Deferoxamine

20.

Which of the following is the correct antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Digibind

c)

Oxygen

d)

Physostigmine

21.

A patient is prescribed a medication ending in "-statin." What is the primary therapeutic use of this medication?

a)

Lowering cholesterol (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor)

b)

Treating hypertension (ACE inhibitor)

c)

Managing diabetes (DPP-4 inhibitor)

d)

Reducing stomach acid (H2 blocker)

22.

Which of the following medications would require the administration of protamine sulfate as an antidote in case of overdose?

a)

Heparin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Digoxin

d)

Opioids

23.

Avery is found unconscious in a garage with the car engine running, and carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected. What is the appropriate antidote?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Atropine

c)

Naloxone

d)

Vitamin K

24.

Which suffix is associated with loop diuretics?

a)

-ide, -semide

b)

-olol

c)

-pril

d)

-thiazide

25.

Lily is brought to the emergency room after being exposed to smoke in a house fire. She is showing signs of cyanide poisoning. Which antidote should be administered?

a)

Hydroxocobalamin

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Digibind

d)

Calcium gluconate

26.

What is the maximum volume recommended for a deltoid intramuscular injection?

a)

1 mL

b)

2 mL

c)

3 mL

d)

4 mL

27.

Which of the following is a best practice when administering a transdermal patch?

a)

Place patch on wet skin

b)

Cut the patch to adjust the dose

c)

Rotate the application site with each use

d)

Apply patch over previous patch

28.

Why should you never crush enteric-coated (EC) or extended-release (ER, XR) medications?

a)

It makes them taste bitter

b)

It can cause rapid release and absorption of the drug

c)

It increases their effectiveness

d)

It prevents absorption

29.

Which of the following is a correct best practice for administering subcutaneous (SubQ) injections?

a)

Massage the site after injection

b)

Inject into the abdomen, 2 inches away from the umbilicus

c)

Inject into the dorsogluteal site

d)

Use only the upper thigh

30.

When administering eye “ophthalmic” drops, what is the correct procedure to prevent systemic absorption?

a)

Ask the patient to blink rapidly

b)

Ask the patient to close eyes gently and press inner canthus for 1-2 minutes

c)

Instill drops directly onto the cornea

d)

Have the patient look up and away

31.

A patient is prescribed a rectal suppository. Which position is recommended for administration?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral or Sims’ position

d)

Trendelenburg

32.

What is the most common site for intradermal (ID) injection?

a)

Upper arm

b)

Abdomen

c)

Inner forearm

d)

Thigh

33.

Which of the following is a best practice when applying a transdermal patch?

a)

Apply to a hairy area

b)

Wear gloves to prevent medication absorption through your skin

c)

Cut the patch to fit the area

d)

Place over an open wound

34.

Harper is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a patient. Which site should Harper choose for the IV?

a)

The site that is most convenient for the nurse

b)

The site that will least impede patient activity

c)

The site closest to the heart

d)

The site with the largest vein

35.

What does the abbreviation "AC" stand for in medical terminology?

a)

After meals

b)

Before meals

c)

As needed

d)

By mouth

36.

Which abbreviation means "by mouth"?

a)

IV

b)

SL

c)

PO

d)

IM

37.

What is the correct meaning of the abbreviation "QID"?

a)

Four times a day

b)

Three times a day

c)

Twice a day

d)

Every night at bedtime

38.

If a medication is to be given "PR", how should it be administered?

a)

By mouth

b)

Per rectum

c)

Intravenous

d)

Subcutaneous

39.

Which abbreviation should be used for "milligram"?

a)

mL

b)

Mg

c)

Mcg

d)

TAB

40.

According to the "Do Not Use" list, what should be written instead of "U" for unit?

a)

IU

b)

unit

c)

mg

d)

mL

41.

Why should "Q.D., QD, q.d., qd" not be used in medical documentation?

a)

They are too long to write

b)

They can be mistaken for each other

c)

They are not recognized by pharmacists

d)

They are outdated terms

42.

What is the recommended way to write a dosage to avoid missing the decimal point?

a)

X mg

b)

X.0 mg

c)

X mg or 0.X mg

d)

X0 mg

43.

Which abbreviation could be confused for both morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate?

a)

MS

b)

Mg

c)

Mcg

d)

Rx

44.

What is the potential problem with using "IU" for International Unit?

a)

It is not a standard abbreviation

b)

It can be mistaken for "IV" or "10"

c)

It is too similar to "mg"

d)

It is not recognized internationally

45.

If a prescription says "STAT", what does it mean?

a)

As needed

b)

Immediately

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

At bedtime

46.

What does "NPO" mean in medical instructions?

a)

By mouth

b)

Nothing by mouth

c)

After meals

d)

Before meals

47.

Which abbreviation is used for "extended-release" medication?

a)

CAP

b)

XR/ER

c)

TAB

d)

TOP

48.

What is the correct alternative to using "MSO₄" or "MgSO₄"?

a)

morphine sulfate

b)

magnesium sulfate

c)

milligram

d)

microgram

49.

Which abbreviation means "three times a day"?

a)

BID

b)

QID

c)

TID

d)

QHS

50.

Jackson is about to administer digoxin to an adult patient. What should he do before giving the medication?

a)

Check the apical pulse for 1 minute and withhold if pulse is less than 60 bpm

b)

Administer the medication immediately

c)

Check the patient’s temperature

d)

Give the medication with food

51.

Which of the following is a key monitoring parameter when administering diltiazem?

a)

Monitor intake and output (I&O) and daily weights

b)

Monitor blood glucose levels

c)

Monitor respiratory rate only

d)

Monitor vision changes

52.

Jackson, a nurse in the emergency department, needs to administer adenosine to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia. What is the correct procedure for administering adenosine?

a)

Give rapid IV push and connect to defibrillator and cardiac monitor

b)

Administer slowly over 30 minutes

c)

Give orally with food

d)

Apply as a topical ointment

53.

Why should gloves be worn when administering nitroglycerin ointment?

a)

To prevent the medication from being absorbed through your skin

b)

To keep hands clean from dirt

c)

To avoid staining clothes

d)

To prevent allergic reactions

54.

Which of the following is a risk associated with furosemide administration?

a)

Ototoxicity with rapid IV administration

b)

Bradycardia with oral administration

c)

Severe constipation

d)

Increased appetite

55.

A patient receiving sublingual nitroglycerin should be in which position?

a)

Lying on a stretcher or in bed

b)

Standing up

c)

Sitting in a chair

d)

Walking around

56.

What is an important step in the management for administering cardiac medications?

a)

Verify electrolyte levels, BP, lab values, and HR prior to administration

b)

Administer all medications at the same time

c)

Avoid monitoring the patient’s history

d)

Only use one IV site for all cardiac patients

57.

Why is it important to rotate sites when administering nitroglycerin patches?

a)

To prevent skin irritation

b)

To increase medication absorption

c)

To reduce medication cost

d)

To avoid confusion

58.

Which medication requires assessment for allergies to sulfonamides before administration?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Digoxin

c)

Diltiazem

d)

Adenosine

59.

What should all cardiac patients have regarding IV access?

a)

At least 2 patent IV sites

b)

Only one IV site

c)

No IV access required

d)

IV access only during emergencies

60.

Which medication is considered a rescue inhaler for acute asthma attacks?

a)

Albuterol (SABA)

b)

Salmeterol (LABA)

c)

Fluticasone

d)

Acetylcysteine

61.

What is a key side effect to monitor for when administering acetylcysteine?

a)

Bronchospasms

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Insomnia

d)

Constipation

62.

Why should patients rinse their mouth after using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone?

a)

To prevent oral thrush

b)

To avoid tachycardia

c)

To reduce insomnia

d)

To prevent constipation

63.

Which pain medication is considered the gold standard for severe pain but carries a risk for respiratory depression?

a)

Morphine

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Oxycodone

64.

What is the maximum recommended daily dose of acetaminophen for adults?

a)

3,000 mg/day

b)

1,000 mg/day

c)

5,000 mg/day

d)

500 mg/day

65.

Which medication should be avoided in patients with kidney disease due to its nephrotoxic effects?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Morphine

d)

Acetaminophen

66.

Samuel is prescribed a transdermal patch for pain management that must be rotated every 72 hours. Which medication is this?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Oxycodone

c)

Morphine

d)

Ibuprofen

67.

What is an important management step when administering pain medications to prevent constipation?

a)

Encourage fiber and fluids

b)

Monitor for tachycardia

c)

Rotate transdermal patch sites

d)

Rinse mouth after use

68.

Which medication is used to reverse opioid overdose?

a)

Naloxone (Narcan)

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Ibuprofen

69.

What is a common side effect of long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Insomnia

c)

Nausea

d)

Constipation

70.

Olivia, who has a history of asthma, visits the clinic for pain relief. Which pain medication should she avoid due to the risk of bronchospasms?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Acetaminophen

71.

What is the primary reason for encouraging hydration when administering mucolytic medications?

a)

To thin mucus

b)

To prevent insomnia

c)

To reduce constipation

d)

To avoid tachycardia

72.

Which medication is used to treat acetaminophen overdose?

a)

Acetylcysteine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Salmeterol

73.

What is a major concern when administering fentanyl for pain management?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Bronchospasms

d)

Insomnia

74.

Why should benzodiazepines and opioids be avoided together?

a)

High risk for overdose

b)

Increased risk of constipation

c)

May cause tachycardia

d)

Can cause nephrotoxicity

75.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended management step when administering respiratory medications?

a)

Monitor respiratory status before, during, and after administration

b)

Encourage hydration for mucolytics

c)

Avoid monitoring for side effects

d)

Ensure proper technique for inhalers and nebulizers

76.

A patient is prescribed sumatriptan for her new diagnosis of migraines. Which statement made by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

This medication relieves my HA by dilating my blood vessels

b)

I do not need to watch my blood pressure before taking this medication

c)

I need to take this medication daily to prevent migraines

d)

I should take this medication at the first symptom of a migraine