wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biochem Block 4 – Worksheet Questions (Extracted)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old female presents with dry mouth and difficulty swallowing. Biopsy shows lymphocytic infiltration of salivary glands. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Sialolithiasis

b)

Xerostomia

c)

Achlorhydria

d)

Gastritis

2.

A patient with chronic gastritis is found to have no hydrochloric acid in their gastric juice (achlorhydria). This condition would most significantly impair the activation of which enzyme?

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Trypsinogen

c)

Pepsinogen

d)

Lingual lipase

3.

A 50-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. Serum amylase and lipase are elevated. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Cholelithiasis

b)

Acute pancreatitis

c)

Gastric ulcer

d)

Lactose intolerance

4.

A child with foul-smelling, fatty stools (steatorrhea) and recurrent respiratory infections is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. The primary biochemical defect involves which of the following?

a)

Sodium channels

b)

Chloride channels (CFTR)

c)

Bicarbonate secretion

d)

Potassium pumps

5.

During the secretion of HCl in parietal cells, which ion is pumped into the gastric lumen in exchange for potassium (K+)?

a)

Na+

b)

Cl−

c)

H+

d)

HCO3−

6.

A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals. An ultrasound reveals gallstones. This condition (cholelithiasis) is often due to an imbalance in the concentration of which substances?

a)

Bile salts and cholesterol

b)

Bilirubin and albumin

c)

Pepsin and gastrin

d)

Amylase and lipase

7.

Which enzyme in the succus entericus is responsible for activating pancreatic zymogens by converting trypsinogen to trypsin?

a)

Aminopeptidase

b)

Lactase

c)

Enteropeptidase

d)

Maltase

8.

A 20-year-old student experiences bloating, gas, and diarrhea after consuming dairy products. The deficiency of which enzyme is responsible?

a)

Sucrase

b)

Lactase

c)

Isomaltase

d)

Maltase

9.

Which glucose transporter (GLUT) is insulin-dependent and found primarily in muscle and adipose tissue?

a)

GLUT-1

b)

GLUT-2

c)

GLUT-3

d)

GLUT-4

10.

The SGLT-1 transporter moves glucose into intestinal mucosal cells against a concentration gradient using the energy from which source?

a)

ATP hydrolysis directly

b)

Sodium (Na+) gradient

c)

Potassium (K+) gradient

d)

Facilitated diffusion

11.

In aerobic glycolysis, the net yield of ATP per molecule of glucose is:

a)

2 ATP

b)

5 or 7 ATP (depending on shuttle)

c)

30 or 32 ATP

d)

38 ATP

12.

A patient presents with chronic hemolytic anemia. Biochemical analysis shows a deficiency in a glycolytic enzyme that converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. Which enzyme is deficient?

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase-1

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Aldolase

13.

Which hormone increases during fasting to stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Thyroxine

14.

The rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis is:

a)

Glucokinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Enolase

15.

In anaerobic conditions (like exercising muscle), pyruvate is reduced to lactate by NADH. This reaction is essential to regenerate which molecule?

a)

FAD

b)

NAD+

c)

ATP

d)

Glucose

16.

Which complex is responsible for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA?

a)

Pyruvate carboxylase

b)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Succinate dehydrogenase

17.

How many molecules of NADH are produced during one turn of the TCA (Krebs) cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

18.

The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis requires which cofactor?

a)

Thiamine (B1)

b)

Biotin (B7)

c)

Niacin (B3)

d)

Pyridoxine (B6)

19.

The Cori cycle involves the transport of lactate from muscle to the liver, where it is converted back to which compound?

a)

Alanine

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Pyruvate

20.

Which substrate provides the carbon skeleton for glucose synthesis during prolonged starvation via the glucose–alanine cycle?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Muscle protein (alanine)

c)

Acetyl-CoA

d)

Lactate only

21.

Which enzyme in the TCA cycle is also a part of the electron transport chain (Complex II)?

a)

Citrate synthase

b)

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

c)

Succinate dehydrogenase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

22.

Fluoroacetate is a potent inhibitor of the TCA cycle. It inhibits which enzyme?

a)

Aconitase

b)

Fumarase

c)

Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

23.

High levels of acetyl-CoA act as an allosteric activator for which gluconeogenic enzyme?

a)

PEP carboxykinase (PEPCK)

b)

Pyruvate carboxylase

c)

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

d)

Glucose 6-phosphatase

24.

Arsenic poisoning affects the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase by binding to which cofactor?

a)

Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

b)

Lipoic acid

c)

FAD

d)

NAD+

25.

A 6-month-old infant presents with hepatomegaly and severe fasting hypoglycemia. A liver biopsy shows an inability to dephosphorylate glucose-6-phosphate (Von Gierke's disease). This is glycogen storage disease (GSD) type:

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V

26.

Which glycogen storage disease is characterized by painful muscle cramps during exercise and the absence of muscle phosphorylase (McArdle’s disease)?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type IV

d)

Type V

27.

The primary purpose of the hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt is to produce:

a)

ATP and NADH

b)

NADPH and pentose sugars

c)

Glucose and fructose

d)

Lactate and pyruvate

28.

A patient with G6PD deficiency develops hemolytic anemia after taking primaquine (an antimalarial). This occurs because red blood cells cannot maintain adequate levels of which molecule?

a)

Oxidized glutathione

b)

Reduced glutathione

c)

ATP

d)

Oxygen

29.

Which enzyme in the HMP shunt requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and is used clinically to assess thiamine status?

a)

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

b)

Transketolase

c)

Transaldolase

d)

Lactonase

30.

Which pathway is responsible for the formation of cataracts in diabetic patients due to accumulation of sorbitol?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Polyol (sorbitol) pathway

c)

Uronic acid pathway

d)

Glycogenesis

31.

In the uronic acid pathway, humans cannot synthesize vitamin C (ascorbic acid) because they lack which enzyme?

a)

Uronic acid reductase

b)

L-gulonolactone oxidase

c)

Xylitol dehydrogenase

d)

Glucuronidase

32.

Glycogenolysis in the liver is stimulated by glucagon via which second messenger?

a)

cAMP

b)

IP3

c)

Ca2+

d)

cGMP

33.

Chronic ethanol consumption leads to a high NADH/NAD+ ratio. This favors the conversion of pyruvate to:

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Lactate

d)

Acetyl-CoA

34.

Fatty liver (steatosis) in alcoholics occurs because high NADH inhibits:

a)

Fatty acid synthesis

b)

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Protein synthesis

35.

The component of the electron transport chain that is a mobile electron carrier between Complex III and IV is:

a)

Ubiquinone (CoQ)

b)

Cytochrome c

c)

FMN

d)

Cytochrome a3

36.

Cyanide and carbon monoxide (CO) inhibit the electron transport chain by binding to:

a)

Complex I

b)

Complex II

c)

Complex III

d)

Complex IV (Cytochrome oxidase)

37.

An uncoupler like 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) causes:

a)

Inhibition of electron flow

b)

Decreased oxygen consumption

c)

Increased heat production and decreased ATP synthesis

d)

Inhibition of Complex V only

38.

Oligomycin inhibits ATP synthesis by:

a)

Dissipating the proton gradient

b)

Blocking the F_o pore of ATP synthase (Complex V)

c)

Inhibiting Complex III

d)

Binding to cytochrome c

39.

Which shuttle system for reducing equivalents yields more ATP (approximately 2.5 per NADH)?

a)

Glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle

b)

Malate-aspartate shuttle

c)

Citrate-malate shuttle

d)

Lactate-pyruvate shuttle

40.

The chemiosmotic hypothesis states that ATP is produced as H+ ions flow from the:

a)

Matrix to intermembrane space

b)

Intermembrane space to matrix

c)

Cytosol to matrix

d)

Inner membrane to outer membrane

41.

A child presents with edema, thinned hair, and a "flaky paint" dermatosis, despite having a relatively normal caloric intake but very low protein. This is:

a)

Marasmus

b)

Kwashiorkor

c)

Scurvy

d)

Rickets

42.

A 1-year-old child appears "skin and bones" with severe muscle wasting and no edema. This is characteristic of:

a)

Kwashiorkor

b)

Marasmus

c)

Cachexia

d)

Obesity

43.

A BMI (Body Mass Index) of 32 kg/m232 \ \text{kg/m}^2 is classified as:

a)

Overweight

b)

Obese (Class I)

c)

Morbidly obese

d)

Underweight

44.

Which type of obesity is associated with a higher risk of metabolic syndrome and cardiovascular disease?

a)

Gynoid (lower body)

b)

Android (upper body/central)

c)

Peripheral

d)

Subcutaneous

45.

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is generally higher in:

a)

Females than males

b)

Older adults than children

c)

People with higher lean muscle mass

d)

Hypothyroid patients

46.

What is the energy content of 1 gram of alcohol?

a)

4 kcal

b)

7 kcal

c)

9 kcal

d)

0 kcal

47.

A patient with gluten enteropathy (celiac disease) must avoid:

a)

Milk

b)

Wheat, barley, and rye

c)

Fructose

d)

Meat

48.

During pregnancy, the daily caloric requirement typically increases by approximately how many kcal in the second trimester?

a)

100 kcal

b)

340 kcal

c)

1000 kcal

d)

No increase is needed

49.

Dietary fiber is recommended in patients with hemorrhoids because it:

a)

Increases cholesterol excretion

b)

Softens stools and reduces straining

c)

Slows glucose absorption

d)

Increases BMR

50.

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Iron

c)

Fat

d)

Zinc

51.

The committed step in purine synthesis is catalyzed by:

a)

PRPP synthetase

b)

PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase

c)

Xanthine oxidase

d)

HGPRT

52.

The parent purine nucleotide from which both AMP and GMP are derived is:

a)

XMP

b)

IMP

c)

OMP

d)

TMP

53.

A 5-year-old boy shows self-mutilation (biting lips/fingers), hyperuricemia, and intellectual disability. He likely lacks which enzyme?

a)

Adenosine deaminase

b)

HGPRT (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome)

c)

Xanthine oxidase

d)

APRT

54.

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is most commonly associated with a deficiency in:

a)

HGPRT

b)

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

c)

UMP synthase

d)

Ribonucleotide reductase

55.

Gout is caused by the accumulation of crystals of:

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Monosodium urate

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Urea

56.

Allopurinol treats gout by inhibiting which enzyme?

a)

PRPP synthetase

b)

Xanthine oxidase

c)

HGPRT

d)

Adenosine deaminase

57.

Orotic aciduria (Type I) results from a deficiency in UMP synthase. It is characterized by megaloblastic anemia and is a disorder of:

a)

Purine synthesis

b)

Pyrimidine synthesis

c)

Urea cycle

d)

HMP shunt

58.

The drug methotrexate inhibits which enzyme, thereby reducing the availability of THF for nucleotide synthesis?

a)

Dihydrofolate reductase

b)

Thymidylate synthase

c)

Xanthine oxidase

d)

Ribonucleotide reductase

59.

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analog that primarily inhibits:

a)

Ribonucleotide reductase

b)

Thymidylate synthase

c)

PRPP amidotransferase

d)

Dihydrofolate reductase

60.

Which enzyme reduces ribose to deoxyribose for DNA synthesis and is inhibited by hydroxyurea?

a)

PRPP synthetase

b)

Ribonucleotide reductase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Dihydrofolate reductase

61.

CPS-II (Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II) is involved in pyrimidine synthesis and is located in the:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cytosol

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

62.

Mycophenolic acid acts as an immunosuppressant by inhibiting the synthesis of:

a)

AMP

b)

GMP

c)

CTP

d)

UTP

63.

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with Kussmaul breathing and a blood pH of 7.25. This is:

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

64.

The primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis is:

a)

Renal excretion of bicarbonate

b)

Hyperventilation to blow off carbon dioxide

c)

Hypoventilation

d)

Increased ammonium production in the liver

65.

Which of the following causes respiratory acidosis?

a)

High altitude

b)

Anxiety attack

c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

d)

Excessive vomiting

66.

A patient with severe prolonged vomiting is likely to develop:

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

67.

The anion gap is calculated as:

a)

[Na+] − ([Cl−] + [HCO3−])

b)

[Na+] + [K+]

c)

[Cl−] − [HCO3−]

d)

[HCO3−] − [H+]

68.

In a patient with alkalosis, the decrease in ionized calcium levels can lead to:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Tetany (increased neuromuscular excitability)

c)

Jaundice

d)

Diarrhea

69.

Hyperventilation due to a panic attack leads to which acid–base disturbance?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

70.

The normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in blood at pH 7.4 is:

a)

10:1

b)

20:1

c)

1:20

d)

1:1

71.

A chronic alcoholic presents with hypoglycemia. The high NADH/NAD+ ratio inhibits gluconeogenesis by pushing which reaction toward the product?

a)

Pyruvate → Lactate

b)

Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate

c)

Alanine → Pyruvate

d)

PEP → Pyruvate

72.

A patient has pCO2 = 60 mmHg (normal ≈ 40) and pH = 7.2. This is:

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

73.

In the malate–aspartate shuttle, which amino acid is used to transport nitrogen back to the cytosol?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Aspartate

c)

Alanine

d)

Glycine

74.

Which enzyme deficiency causes a "mousy odor" to urine and intellectual disability?

a)

Tyrosinase

b)

Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PKU)

c)

Lactase

d)

Arginase

75.

A patient is diagnosed with high-altitude sickness. The body compensates for the resulting respiratory alkalosis by:

a)

Increasing carbon dioxide retention

b)

Excreting bicarbonate in urine

c)

Producing more lactic acid

d)

Decreasing respiratory rate

76.

Which of the following is an inhibitor of Complex I of the electron transport chain?

a)

Rotenone

b)

Antimycin A

c)

Azide

d)

Malonate

77.

A patient with a high-protein diet will have increased activity of which cycle to dispose of nitrogen?

a)

TCA cycle

b)

Urea cycle

c)

Cori cycle

d)

Glucose–alanine cycle

78.

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency follows what inheritance pattern?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

Mitochondrial

79.

What is the effect of insulin on glycogen synthase?

a)

Inhibits it by phosphorylation

b)

Activates it by dephosphorylation

c)

Has no effect

d)

Degrades it

80.

In pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) deficiency, the buildup of pyruvate leads to its conversion into:

a)

Ethanol

b)

Lactate (causing lactic acidosis)

c)

Glucose

d)

Fatty acids