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Physio - endo (Worksheet MCQs)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which category of chemical messenger primarily targets the same cell that secreted it, typically utilizing a local feedback mechanism?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Autocrine

d)

Neurotransmitter

2.

A patient is treated with a hormone-based medication for a chronic inflammatory condition. If this medication is a lipid-soluble messenger, its receptor is most likely located:

a)

On the external surface of the plasma membrane

b)

Within the cell cytoplasm or nucleus

c)

Embedded within the lysosomal membrane

d)

In the mitochondrial matrix

3.

Peptide hormones (e.g., Insulin, ADH) are water-soluble and cannot easily cross the cell membrane. Their action inside the cell is typically mediated by the activation of:

a)

Nuclear receptors that directly bind to DNA

b)

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) or enzyme-linked receptors

c)

Ribosomes for immediate protein synthesis

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum for calcium storage

4.

The synthesis of second messengers, such as cyclic AMP (cAMP), is the characteristic signaling pathway for which class of membrane receptors?

a)

Tyrosine Kinase receptors

b)

G protein-coupled receptors (Gs subunit)

c)

Ligand-gated ion channels

d)

Intracellular reticulum for calcium storage

5.

Which type of chemical signaling involves a substance being released into the synaptic cleft by a neuron to affect a neighboring nerve, muscle, or gland cell?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Neurocrine (Neurotransmission)

c)

Juxtacrine

d)

Autocrine

6.

Cortisol and Thyroid hormones both exert their primary actions by regulating gene expression. What key characteristic allows these hormones to utilize intracellular receptors?

a)

They are synthesized from amino acids

b)

They are transported freely (unbound) in the blood

c)

They are lipid-soluble

d)

They have very short half-lives

7.

A drug is developed that inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase. This drug would be expected to prolong the effect of hormones that primarily use which second messenger?

a)

IP3 (Inositol Triphosphate)

b)

DAG (Diacylglycerol)

c)

cAMP (Cyclic AMP)

d)

Ca2+ (Calcium Ion)

8.

The duration of action of lipid-soluble hormones, compared to water-soluble peptide hormones, is typically:

a)

Shorter, due to rapid enzymatic degradation

b)

Shorter, due to faster renal excretion

c)

Longer, due to plasma protein binding and genomic action

d)

The same, as both are cleared by the liver

9.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical messenger acting via a paracrine mechanism?

a)

Insulin acting on distant muscle cells

b)

Thyroid hormone acting on liver cell receptors

c)

Somatostatin inhibiting insulin release from adjacent pancreatic cells

d)

Testosterone binding to its receptor within the same Leydig cell that secreted it

10.

A receptor that, upon ligand binding, directly catalyzes the phosphorylation of intracellular proteins is classified as a(n):

a)

G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)

b)

Ion Channel receptor

c)

Enzyme-linked receptor (e.g., Tyrosine Kinase)

d)

Intracellular receptor

11.

A 40-year-old patient with undiagnosed primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) is hospitalized. Which electrolyte imbalance, resulting from mineralocorticoid deficiency, is critical to monitor?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypophosphatemia

12.

A patient presents with signs of Cushing's syndrome (Cortisol excess). A key metabolic consequence of this condition is:

a)

Decreased gluconeogenesis and hypoglycemia

b)

Increased protein synthesis and muscle mass

c)

Increased blood glucose and insulin resistance

d)

Decreased FFA mobilization from adipose tissue

13.

In a case of severe, uncorrected hypothyroidism, the body's Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is significantly lowered. This reduction is primarily due to the decreased synthesis of which cellular components normally promoted by thyroid hormones?

a)

Na+–K+ ATPase and other metabolic enzymes

b)

Structural proteins like collagen

c)

Cell membrane phospholipids

d)

Nuclear DNA

14.

A pituitary tumor causes panhypopituitarism. The deficiency of which hormone leads to the inability to concentrate urine and severe polyuria/polydipsia?

a)

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

b)

Growth Hormone (GH)

c)

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

d)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) / Vasopressin

15.

Chronic stress causes sustained high levels of Cortisol. This elevated Cortisol acts as a potent negative feedback signal primarily on which two anatomical structures?

a)

Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

b)

Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

c)

Posterior pituitary and thyroid gland

d)

Kidney tubules and liver

16.

A high concentration of Iodine in the blood can temporarily inhibit the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones. This mechanism is known as the:

a)

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

b)

Reverse T3 effect

c)

T4 conversion blockade

d)

TSH receptor desensitization

17.

The acute effect of Cortisol excess on circulating white blood cells includes:

a)

Increased eosinophils and lymphocytes

b)

Decreased neutrophils and monocytes

c)

Decreased eosinophils and lymphocytes

d)

Increased erythrocytes

18.

Which hypothalamic hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of Growth Hormone (GH) from the somatotropes of the anterior pituitary?

a)

Somatostatin (Growth Hormone Inhibitory Hormone)

b)

Prolactin-Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

c)

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH)

d)

Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH)

19.

A patient with hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease) often presents with increased heart rate and palpitations. This is attributed to the synergistic action of thyroid hormone with:

a)

Glucocorticoids, enhancing ADH receptors

b)

Catecholamines (Epinephrine/Norepinephrine), increasing β-adrenergic receptors

c)

Aldosterone, enhancing sodium channels

d)

Insulin, promoting glucose metabolism

20.

The production of Catecholamines (Epinephrine and Norepinephrine) in the adrenal medulla is primarily regulated by:

a)

Hypothalamic releasing hormones

b)

Direct sympathetic nervous system stimulation

c)

Circulating levels of ACTH

d)

Negative feedback from Cortisol

21.

In an individual with a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase (a common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia), there will be inadequate synthesis of Cortisol and Aldosterone. This leads to the shunting of precursors toward the overproduction of:

a)

ADH

b)

Glucagon

c)

Sex steroids (Androgens)

d)

PTH

22.

Which part of the adrenal cortex is responsible for synthesizing Aldosterone, the mineralocorticoid?

a)

Zona Fasciculata

b)

Zona Reticularis

c)

Zona Glomerulosa

d)

Adrenal Medulla

23.

The function of the TBG (Thyroxine-Binding Globulin) protein in thyroid hormone transport is to:

a)

Decrease the half-life of T4 and T3

b)

Decrease the free (active) fraction of the hormones

c)

Protect the hormones from breakdown and maintain a stable reservoir

d)

Both B and C

24.

The secretion of Prolactin from the anterior pituitary is primarily under the tonic inhibitory control of which hypothalamic substance?

a)

Prolactin-Releasing Peptide (PRP)

b)

Dopamine (PIH)

c)

TRH

d)

Oxytocin

25.

ADH (Vasopressin) acts on the principal cells of the renal collecting tubules to increase water reabsorption. Its mechanism of action involves the insertion of which water channel into the luminal membrane?

a)

ENaC (Epithelial Na+ Channel)

b)

Na+–K+ ATPase

c)

Aquaporin-2

d)

SGLT2 (Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2)

26.

The excessive secretion of Growth Hormone (GH) in an adult (Acromegaly) causes significant growth of bones, but primarily in the thickness of the bones rather than the length. This is because GH and IGF-1 stimulate the growth of:

a)

Articular cartilage

b)

Epiphyseal plates (which are closed in adults)

c)

Membranous bone and soft tissues

d)

Periosteal bone

27.

ACTH primarily stimulates the adrenal cortex. However, high levels of ACTH can also lead to hyperpigmentation of the skin due to the co-secretion of which related peptide?

a)

β-Lipotropin (β-LPH)

b)

Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

c)

Endorphins

d)

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH)

28.

A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism. The feedback loop would show:

a)

Low TSH, Low T4

b)

High TSH, Low T4

c)

High TSH, High T4

d)

Normal TSH, Low T4

29.

The most potent stimulus for the release of Aldosterone is:

a)

A decrease in plasma Sodium concentration

b)

An increase in plasma Potassium concentration

c)

The presence of Angiotensin I

d)

Direct neural stimulation from the hypothalamus

30.

Which of the following is an effect of Thyroid Hormone on the cardiovascular system?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Decreased cardiac output

c)

Increased sensitivity to catecholamines

d)

Decreased strength of heart contraction

31.

In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), the lack of insulin leads to enhanced lipolysis in adipose tissue. This primary metabolic shift results in the liver producing large quantities of:

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Urea

c)

Glycogen

d)

Ketone bodies

32.

The process of insulin secretion from the pancreatic β cell is initiated when glucose enters the cell and is metabolized, leading to the closing of which channel?

a)

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel

b)

ATP-sensitive K+ channel

c)

Na+–K+ ATPase

d)

Chloride channel

33.

Glucagon, the hormone secreted by α cells, increases blood glucose concentration primarily by stimulating which two hepatic processes?

a)

Glycogenolysis and glycolysis

b)

Glycolysis and lipolysis

c)

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

d)

Fatty acid synthesis and amino acid uptake

34.

In Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), a major characteristic is insulin resistance. At the cellular level, this resistance is most closely associated with the impaired translocation of which glucose transporter to the cell membrane?

a)

GLUT1

b)

GLUT2

c)

GLUT3

d)

GLUT4

35.

A key difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes is the presence of endogenous insulin secretion. Which measurable substance is often used clinically to assess the residual secretion of insulin by the β cells?

a)

HbA1c

b)

Glucagon

c)

C-peptide

d)

Proinsulin

36.

Severe hypoglycemia triggers the release of several counter-regulatory hormones. Which combination represents the most potent hormones mobilized to raise blood glucose quickly?

a)

Somatostatin and GH

b)

Insulin and Glucagon

c)

Glucagon, Epinephrine, and GH

d)

Cortisol and TSH

37.

The paracrine action of Somatostatin within the Islets of Langerhans primarily serves to:

a)

Stimulate the release of PP (Pancreatic Polypeptide)

b)

Promote blood flow to the α and β cells

c)

Dampen/inhibit the secretion of both insulin and glucagon

d)

Enhance the GLUT4 translocation in β cells

38.

The severe dehydration seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) in T2DM is caused by the osmotic diuretic effect of glucose, which leads to excessive water loss in the:

a)

Proximal tubule of the kidney

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Collecting duct of the kidney

d)

Glomerulus

39.

Insulin promotes the net storage of energy substrates. Its effect on the liver includes:

a)

Increasing the activity of phosphorylase

b)

Inhibiting the enzyme glucokinase

c)

Promoting the conversion of excess glucose to fatty acids

d)

Stimulating glucose output

40.

Chronic, untreated insulin deficiency (as in T1DM) leads to the wasting of body tissues and weight loss, primarily because:

a)

Fatty acid synthesis is stimulated

b)

Amino acid transport into cells is inhibited, leading to protein catabolism

c)

Glucose uptake in the brain is impaired

d)

Glucagon secretion is completely suppressed

41.

What is the primary stimulus for the release of insulin from the pancreatic beta cells?

a)

Decreased blood glucose concentration

b)

Increased blood fatty acid concentration

c)

Increased blood amino acid concentration

d)

Increased blood glucose concentration

42.

Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose into most cells of the body. Which major cell type is NOT significantly dependent on insulin for glucose uptake?

a)

Skeletal muscle cells

b)

Adipocytes (fat cells)

c)

Brain cells (neurons)

d)

Hepatocytes (liver cells)

43.

The primary effect of glucagon secretion is to raise blood glucose concentration. Which of the following is the most potent mechanism by which glucagon achieves this?

a)

Increasing peripheral glucose uptake

b)

Stimulating gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver

c)

Inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue

d)

Promoting glucose storage as glycogen

44.

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is primarily characterized by:

a)

Insulin resistance in target tissues

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic alpha cells

c)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

d)

Excessive secretion of counter-regulatory hormones

45.

In an uncontrolled diabetic patient, the increased mobilization of fats for energy leads to a metabolic state known as ketoacidosis. This is primarily caused by an excess production of:

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Ketone bodies

d)

Amino acids

46.

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the pancreatic delta cells and acts to inhibit the secretion of both insulin and glucagon?

a)

Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP)

b)

Amylin

c)

Gastrin

d)

Somatostatin

47.

The rise in blood glucose following a meal is initially buffered by the liver. Insulin’s role in this buffering action is primarily to promote the uptake of glucose and its subsequent conversion into:

a)

Lactate

b)

Pyruvate

c)

Glycogen

d)

Amino acids

48.

A major metabolic effect of insulin is to promote the storage of fat. Insulin achieves this by:

a)

Inhibiting lipoprotein lipase

b)

Increasing the conversion of glucose into fatty acids in the liver

c)

Decreasing glucose transport into fat cells

d)

Promoting the breakdown of triglycerides

49.

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus often begins with a phase characterized by:

a)

Absolute lack of insulin secretion

b)

Extreme hypoglycemia

c)

Decreased target tissue sensitivity to the effects of insulin

d)

Pancreatic alpha cell hyperplasia

50.

In the long-term progression of Type 2 Diabetes, what can happen to the beta cells due to chronic overstimulation by high blood glucose and fatty acid levels?

a)

It causes beta cell hypertrophy and increased insulin production indefinitely.

b)

It leads to beta cell “exhaustion” and eventual decrease in insulin secretion.

c)

It results in autoimmune attack on the beta cells.

d)

It permanently increases the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin.

51.

The hormone most responsible for mobilizing stored nutrients (glucose, fatty acids, amino acids) during periods of fasting or stress is:

a)

Insulin

b)

Somatostatin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Amylin

52.

In the liver, insulin promotes the synthesis of proteins by:

a)

Inhibiting the transcription of mRNA for protein synthesis.

b)

Stimulating the active transport of amino acids into liver cells.

c)

Increasing the rate of breakdown of existing proteins.

d)

Promoting the conversion of protein into glucose.

53.

A severe metabolic event in diabetes, particularly Type 2 in elderly patients, involving extremely high blood glucose and dehydration but often without significant ketoacidosis, is known as:

a)

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)

b)

Insulin shock

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Diabetic nephropathy

54.

When an individual consumes a protein-rich meal with very few carbohydrates, which of the following is the most likely hormonal response?

a)

Increased insulin only.

b)

Increased glucagon only.

c)

Increased insulin and increased glucagon.

d)

Decreased both insulin and glucagon.

55.

Which is the primary mechanism by which insulin decreases blood fatty acid concentration?

a)

By stimulating lipolysis in adipose tissue.

b)

By inhibiting hormone-sensitive lipase.

c)

By increasing the rate of fatty acid oxidation.

d)

By promoting the release of free fatty acids from the liver.

56.

The primary mechanism by which the ingestion of glucose causes a greater release of insulin than an intravenous infusion of glucose, even at the same blood glucose level, is:

a)

Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

b)

Direct stimulation of beta cells by gastrointestinal hormones like GLP-1 and GIP.

c)

Inhibition of somatostatin release.

d)

Increased blood flow to the pancreas.

57.

Which counter-regulatory hormone has the fastest and most potent effect on increasing hepatic glucose output?

a)

Growth Hormone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Glucagon

58.

A key physiological consequence of chronic hyperglycemia in diabetes is the damaging effect on blood vessels. This damage is often linked to:

a)

Excessive proteolysis

b)

Increased renal glucose reabsorption

c)

Glycosylation of proteins, which alters their structure and function

d)

Inhibition of glycogen synthesis

59.

Insulin’s action on skeletal muscle primarily involves:

a)

Promoting glucose uptake via the GLUT4 transporter, especially after a meal or exercise.

b)

Inhibiting amino acid transport.

c)

Stimulating the breakdown of muscle protein.

d)

Increasing glucose-6-phosphatase activity.

60.

Which electrolyte abnormality is often associated with the initiation of insulin therapy in a patient with severe diabetic ketoacidosis due to the shifting of this electrolyte into cells?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypophosphatemia

61.

The most important long-term regulator of plasma calcium concentration in the body is:

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

c)

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (active Vitamin D)

d)

Estrogen

62.

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) acts on the kidneys to:

a)

Increase calcium excretion and decrease phosphate reabsorption.

b)

Decrease calcium reabsorption and increase phosphate reabsorption.

c)

Increase both calcium and phosphate reabsorption.

d)

Increase calcium reabsorption and decrease phosphate reabsorption.

63.

The most biologically active form of Vitamin D is synthesized primarily in the kidney. This process is strongly stimulated by:

a)

High plasma calcium concentration

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

d)

High plasma phosphate concentration

64.

Calcitonin primarily acts to:

a)

Increase intestinal absorption of calcium.

b)

Increase bone resorption.

c)

Inhibit osteoclast activity, thereby decreasing bone resorption.

d)

Increase calcium reabsorption in renal tubules.

65.

A characteristic effect of hypocalcemia on nerve and muscle tissue is:

a)

Increased neuromuscular excitability leading to tetany.

b)

Generalized muscle paralysis with loss of deep tendon reflexes.

c)

Marked decrease in neuronal excitability causing profound sedation.

d)

Reduced nerve conduction velocity without changes in excitability.

66.

Sertoli cells produce which hormone that regulates FSH secretion?

a)

LH

b)

Testosterone

c)

Inhibin

d)

Prolactin

67.

Leydig cells are stimulated by which hormone to produce testosterone?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

GH

d)

Prolactin

68.

The hormone responsible for triggering ovulation is:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

69.

The primary hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Inhibin

d)

Relaxin

70.

Corpus luteum is maintained in pregnancy by:

a)

hPL

b)

hCG

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Prolactin

71.

Progesterone causes which endometrial change?

a)

Shedding

b)

Proliferation

c)

Secretory development

d)

Reduced blood flow

72.

Testosterone inhibits secretion of:

a)

GnRH and FSH/LH

b)

Only FSH

c)

Only GnRH

d)

Inhibin

73.

After first trimester, estrogen and progesterone are produced by:

a)

Ovary

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Placenta

d)

Pituitary

74.

Hormone responsible for milk letdown is:

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

hPL

d)

Estrogen

75.

Hormone responsible for ductal growth of breast is:

a)

Prolactin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Estrogen

d)

Oxytocin

76.

Cause of menopause is:

a)

Exhaustion of ovarian follicles

b)

Pituitary failure

c)

Increased inhibin

d)

Anti-estrogen antibodies

77.

Main target cell of PTH in bone is:

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteoclast

d)

Chondrocyte

78.

PTH stimulates bone resorption by:

a)

Direct osteoclast stimulation

b)

Inhibiting osteoblasts

c)

Activating osteoclasts via osteoblast-derived factors

d)

Increasing calcitonin

79.

Hormone responsible for male secondary sexual characteristics:

a)

FSH

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Testosterone

80.

Increase in receptors of which hormone initiates labor?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Relaxin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

hCG