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UNIT 2- PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Red bone marrow:

a)

makes red and white blood cells and is found in the epiphyses of long bones

b)

stores triglycerides in adipocytes and is found in the epiphyses of long bones

c)

makes red and white blood cells and is found in the diaphysis of long bones

d)

stores triglycerides in adipocytes and is found in the diaphysis of long bones

2.

Which bone is correctly paired with its shape?

a)

sternum-long bone

b)

vertebra-sesamoid bone

c)

scaphoid-short bone

d)

patella-flat bone

3.

“Spongy bone is found in the diaphyses of long bones.”

a)
True
b)
False
4.

Which bone cell type is correctly paired with its description?

a)

osteogenic cells-multinucleated cells that break down bone, releasing calcium

b)

osteoblasts-form new bone, secreting collagen fibers and crystallized salts

c)

osteoclasts-most common type of bone cell and are found in lacunae

d)

osteocytes-undifferentiated cells with high mitotic activity that become other cells

5.

Which osteon structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

lamellae-at the center of the osteon and contains blood vessels and nerves

b)

lacunae-concentric, calcified rings that surround the central canal

c)

canaliculi-small channels connecting lacunae to each other and the central canal

d)

Haversian canal-space in which osteocytes reside

6.

Intramembranous ossification is bone development involving:

a)

a connective tissue membrane and forms the clavicles and skull’s facial bones

b)

hyaline cartilage and forms the humerus and femur

c)

a connective tissue membrane and forms the humerus and femur

d)

hyaline cartilage and forms the clavicles and skull’s facial bones

7.

“Bone density increases until the late 20s and then decreases.”

a)
True
b)
False
8.

Which fracture type is correctly paired with its description?

a)

greenstick-one bone fragment is driven into another

b)

open-bone fragments are out of alignment

c)

hairline-small crack or bone bruise often found in athletes from repetitive stress

d)

displaced-one end of the bone tears through the skin, increasing infection risk

9.

Which type of fracture involves a ligament or tendon being torn and taking off a small piece of bone?

a)

spiral

b)

segmental

c)

compression

d)

avulsion

10.

Parathyroid hormone is produced by:

a)

the 4 parathyroid glands when blood serum calcium is low, raising serum calcium

b)

the thyroid gland when blood serum calcium is low, raising serum calcium

c)

the 4 parathyroid glands when blood serum calcium is high, lowering calcium

d)

the thyroid gland when blood serum calcium is high, lowering calcium

11.

A nurse discovers that a patient’s blood serum calcium level is 8 mg/dL. Assuming a normal albumin level, which sign or symptom may be due to this calcium level?

a)

lethargy

b)

blood cannot clot

c)

sluggish reflexes

d)

constipation

12.

“Closed reduction involves performing surgery to expose the fracture and reset the bone.”

a)
True
b)
False
13.

Which bone condition is correctly paired with its description?

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta-dysfunctional osteoclasts cause bone to be too dense

b)

osteoporosis-overactive osteoclasts cause holes and bone density decreases

c)

osteopetrosis-infection of bone, commonly by bacterium Staphylococcus aureus

d)

osteomyelitis-collagen deficit makes bones brittle, bruising easy, and sclerae blue

14.

Which bone condition is correctly paired with its description?

a)

achondroplasia-cartilage does not become bone, making arms and legs short

b)

acromegaly-too much growth hormone before growth plates fuse, making tall

c)

giantism-too much growth hormone after growth plates fuse, making hands large

d)

Paget’s disease-low vitamin D causes misshapen bones in elderly people

15.

Which cranial bone is correctly paired with its description?

a)

frontal-forms the upper sides of the cranium and is adjacent to sagittal suture

b)

parietal-forms the lower back side of the cranium and is next to lambdoid suture

c)

occipital-forms the forehead and is adjacent to coronal suture

d)

temporal-forms the lower sides of the cranium and hair turns gray here first

16.

“The pterion is an H-shaped suture line region at the intersection of the parietal bone, temporal bone, frontal bone, and sphenoid bone."

a)
True
b)
False
17.

Which bone is located in the neck?

a)

sternum

b)

coccyx

c)

ossicle

d)

hyoid

18.

Which cranial structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

cribriform plate-tunnel that allows passage of nerve from retina to brain

b)

foramen magnum-flat area in midline of ethmoid bone that has olfactory foramina

c)

sella turcica-space in midline of sphenoid bone that houses pituitary gland

d)

optic canal-spinal cord passes through this structure on way out of skull

19.

Which structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

hard palate-anterior portion of roof of mouth

b)

mandible-upper jaw

c)

maxilla-posterior portion of roof of mouth

d)

soft palate-lower jaw

20.

Which statement about teeth is TRUE?

a)

Adults have more premolars and molars than kids

b)

The four types of teeth are incisors, canines, premolars, and bicuspids

c)

Kids have 32 teeth

d)

Some primary teeth are retained in adulthood

21.

. “The anterior part of the nasal septum is cartilage and the posterior part is bone.”

a)
True
b)
False
22.

Which vertebral type is correctly paired with its number?

a)

cervical vertebrae-5

b)

thoracic vertebrae-12

c)

lumbar vertebrae-7

d)

sacral vertebrae-4

23.

Which spine structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

atlas-another name for C2 vertebra

b)

axis-gel-like center of intervertebral disc

c)

dens-upward projection from body of C2 vertebra

d)

nucleus pulposus-another name for C1 vertebra

24.

Which structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

median nerve-compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

ulnar nerve-torn in whiplash

c)

anterior longitudinal ligament-commonly injured in a FOOSH

d)

scaphoid bone-bumped in “funny bone” injuries

25.

“The two primary curvatures of the vertebral column are the lumbar and cervical curvatures.”

a)
True
b)
False
26.

Floating ribs:

a)

are true ribs that attach to the sternum via their own costal cartilages

b)

are false ribs that attach to the sternum via the costal cartilages of other ribs

c)

are false ribs that do not attach to the sternum

d)

are neither true ribs nor false ribs

27.

How many phalanges are there in each hand?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

14

d)

15

28.

“Disc herniation most commonly occurs in the lumbar region.”

a)
True
b)
False
29.

Which pelvic structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

acetabulum-structure that connects 2 hip bones in the front of the pelvis

b)

pelvic brim-opening of pelvis through which baby head travels in vaginal delivery

c)

pubic symphysis-structure that forms a hole on each side of inferior pelvis

d)

obturator foramen-cavity on pelvis where femur attaches

30.

Which pelvic description is correctly paired with its gender?

a)

female-lesser pelvic cavity is narrower and longer

b)

female-subpubic angle is greater than 80 degrees

c)

male-pelvis is lighter with thinner bones

d)

male-pelvic brim is oval-shaped

31.

Runner’s knee (patellofemoral syndrome) is caused by:

a)

a weak patellar ligament

b)

an inflamed prepatellar bursa

c)

an improper balance between sides of quadriceps femoris

d)

tears in tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

32.

“The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse to form each hip bone during the late teenage years.”

a)
True
b)
False
33.

The second longest bone of the body is the:

a)

femur

b)

tibia

c)

humerus

d)

ulna

34.

Plantar fasciitis is inflammation of a ligament that connects:

a)

the calcaneus to the bases of the phalanges

b)

the talus to the bases of the phalanges

c)

the calcaneus to the bases of the metatarsals

d)

the talus to the bases of the metatarsals

35.

The ball of the foot is made from the:

a)

calcaneus

b)

metatarsals

c)

phalanges

d)

talus

36.

The shoulder joint is a:

a)

diarthrosis that has high stability

b)

synarthrosis that has high stability

c)

diarthrosis that has low stability

d)

synarthrosis that has low stability

37.

“Sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses are fibrous joints.”

a)
True
b)
False
38.

Which joint structure is correctly paired with its description?

a)

fibrous membrane-covers epiphyses of long bones in joint

b)

synovial membrane-tough layer that forms outside of articular capsule

c)

articular cartilage-forms inside of articular capsule and produces synovial fluid

d)

joint cavity-space that contains synovial fluid

39.

Which synovial joint type is correctly paired with examples?

a)

ball-and-socket: intercarpal, intertarsal, acromioclavicular, facet joints

b)

hinge: elbow, knee, ankle, interphalangeal joints

c)

plane: carpometacarpal and sternoclavicular joints

d)

saddle: glenohumeral (shoulder) and acetabulofemoral (hip) joints

40.

Which arthritis type is correctly paired with its description?

a)

gouty arthritis-infection of joint, most often by bacterium Staphylococcus aureus

b)

osteoarthritis-uric acid crystals deposited in joints

c)

rheumatoid arthritis-synovial membrane attacked and pain worse with inactivity

d)

septic arthritis-worn articular cartilage and pain worse with activity

41.

Which motion type is correctly paired with its description?

a)

abduction-movement up to the sides and away from the midline

b)

adduction-movement anteriorly or that decreases a joint angle

c)

extension-movement down from the sides and towards the midline

d)

flexion-movement posteriorly or that increases a joint angle

42.

Which motion is shown below?

a)

rotation

b)

flexion

c)

extension

d)

circumduction

43.

Which motion type is correctly paired with its description?

a)

pronation-ball of foot positioned superiorly to heel of foot

b)

supination-forearm with palms of hands facing upward

c)

supination-forearm with palms of hands facing upward

d)

dorsiflexion-ball of foot positioned inferiorly to heel of foot

44.

“The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis are rotator cuff muscles.”

a)
True
b)
False
45.

Which joint is correctly paired with its description?

a)

atlanto-occipital: allows you to shake your head “Yes”

b)

atlantoaxial: allows limited motion throughout spine

c)

zygapophysial (facet): allows for opening and closing of the mouth

d)

temporomandibular: allows you to shake your head “No”

46.

Which joint is correctly paired with its description?

a)

shoulder: largest joint in the body

b)

elbow: joint with largest range of motion

c)

knee: injury may require Tommy John surgery

d)

ankle: most commonly injured joint

47.

“The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) prevents the tibia from sliding too far forward from the femur.”

a)
True
b)
False
48.

Which knee and ankle injury pairs are correct?

a)

medial knee blow-lateral meniscus tear; ankle inversion-lateral ligament injury

b)

medial knee blow-medial meniscus tear; ankle inversion-lateral ligament injury

c)

medial knee blow-lateral meniscus tear; ankle inversion-medial ligament injury

d)

medial knee blow-medial meniscus tear; ankle inversion-medial ligament injury

49.

“Tearing of the tibiofibular tendons causes a high ankle sprain.”

a)
True
b)
False
50.

Which pairing is correct for the RICE technique for treating ankle sprains?

a)

R-Rest

b)

I-Independence

c)

C-Cold

d)

E-Eating

51.

The most superficial layer of the epidermis is the:

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum granulosum

d)

stratum spinosum

52.

In comparison to thin skin, thick skin has more:

a)

arrector pili muscles

b)

hair follicles

c)

layers of stratum corneum

d)

sebaceous glands

53.

“The deep layer of the dermis is the reticular dermis.”

a)
True
b)
False
54.

“The palm of the hand typically has a higher density of sweat glands than the forearm, causing most people to sweat more on the hands.”

a)
True
b)
False
55.

Which skin layer is labeled “X”?

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum lucidum

c)

stratum spinosum

d)

papillary dermis

56.

“Henna tattoos do not last as long as permanent tattoos because the dye in henna tattoos is put into the epidermis while the dye in permanent tattoos is put into the dermis.”

a)
True
b)
False
57.

Which of the tissue types listed has the greatest strength and is found in the knee joint menisci and in intervertebral discs?

a)

adipose tissue

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

hyaline cartilage

58.

Baking a bone fragment destroys:

a)

collagen and makes the fragment brittle (breaks easily)

b)

collagen and makes the fragment soft and flexible

c)

calcium salts and makes the fragment brittle (breaks easily)

d)

calcium salts and makes the fragment soft and flexible

59.

The phalanx is a:

a)

long bone and part of the axial skeleton

b)

long bone and part of the appendicular skeleton

c)

short bone and part of the axial skeleton

d)

short bone and part of the appendicular skeleton

60.

Which osteon structure is labeled “X”?

a)

canaliculi

b)

central canal

c)

lacuna

d)

lamella

61.

Which long bone structure is labeled “X”?

a)

compact bone

b)

epiphyseal line

c)

medullary cavity

d)

spongy bone

62.

“Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant type of cartilage.”

a)
True
b)
False
63.

The axial skeleton includes the:

a)

femur

b)

hip bones

c)

humerus

d)

thoracic cage

64.

Which bone is an irregular bone that looks like a bird or bat and crosses the interior of the brain cavity?

a)

frontal bone

b)

occipital bone

c)

parietal bone

d)

sphenoid bone

65.

Which structure is labeled “X”?

a)

intervertebral foramina

b)

transverse processes

c)

spinous processes

d)

intervertebral discs

66.

Which vertebral structure is labeled “X”?

a)

body

b)

spinous process

c)

transverse process

d)

vertebral foramen

67.

“Older people become shorter because water is lost from the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs.”

a)
True
b)
False
68.

Which structure is labeled “X”?

a)

costal cartilage

b)

false ribs

c)

floating ribs

d)

true ribs

69.

“The patella is a sesamoid bone that is found within the quadriceps tendon.”

a)
True
b)
False
70.

The lateral end of the spine of the scapula where the clavicle articulates is the:

a)

acromion

b)

coracoid process

c)

glenoid cavity

d)

medial epicondyle

71.

In contrast to the pectoral girdle, the pelvic girdle:

a)

weighs less

b)

has more flexibility

c)

is designed for weight-bearing

d)

has insecure limb attachments

72.

Which structure is labeled “X” on the X-ray below?

a)

acromion

b)

coracoid process

c)

glenoid cavity

d)

surgical neck of humerus

73.

Which structure is labeled “X” on the X-ray below?

a)

body of humerus

b)

medial epicondyle

c)

olecranon process

d)

radius

74.

Which structure is labeled “X” on the X-ray below?

a)

calcaneus

b)

hallux

c)

talus

d)

tibia

75.

“FOOSH stands for FALL ON OUTSTRETCHED HAND.”

a)
True
b)
False