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NSG2340 Exam 3 Content Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with SIADH has a serum sodium of 120. Which action is the priority?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Apply seizure precautions

c)

Increase dietary potassium

d)

Place client on bedrest

2.

A client with diabetes insipidus has urine output of 600 mL/hr. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Desmopressin

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

PTU

3.

A client with Addison’s disease is at risk for which complication during stress?

a)

Hypertensive crisis

b)

Thyroid storm

c)

Addisonian crisis

d)

Hypoglycemic coma

4.

A client with Cushing’s syndrome is most likely to have which lab finding?

a)

Low sodium

b)

Low glucose

c)

Elevated cortisol

d)

Elevated calcium

5.

A client with hyperthyroidism reports chest pain and palpitations. Priority action?

a)

Check thyroid labs

b)

Administer propranolol

c)

Apply warm compress

d)

Encourage ambulation

6.

Which instruction is appropriate for a client taking levothyroxine?

a)

Take with food

b)

Take in morning before breakfast

c)

Take at bedtime

d)

Skip dose if pulse >80

7.

A client post-thyroidectomy develops tingling around the mouth. This indicates:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hyponatremia

8.

Which finding indicates possible thyroid storm?

a)

HR 160

b)

Temperature 98.0°F

c)

BP 110/70

d)

Lethargy

9.

The nurse suspects SIADH when which assessment is noted?

a)

Excessive urination

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Dry mucous membranes

d)

Weight loss

10.

A client with DI will have which lab abnormality?

a)

Low specific gravity

b)

Elevated sodium

c)

Decreased potassium

d)

Low calcium

11.

Client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for:

a)

Tetany

b)

Kidney stones

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypoglycemia

12.

Client with Addison’s disease is prescribed hydrocortisone. Teaching includes:

a)

Increase dose during illness

b)

Take before bed

c)

Stop if swelling decreases

d)

Avoid sodium

13.

Which condition should receive IV calcium gluconate?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hypoparathyroidism

c)

Cushing syndrome

d)

Diabetes insipidus

14.

A client with SIADH should receive which intervention?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Encourage water

c)

Increase potassium

d)

Insert Foley catheter

15.

A client with acromegaly will likely exhibit:

a)

Heat intolerance

b)

Enlarged hands and feet

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Moon face

16.

The nurse expects which symptoms in Cushing’s syndrome?

a)

Hyperpigmentation

b)

Weight loss

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

17.

A client on long-term steroid therapy must be monitored for:

a)

Infection

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Bradycardia

18.

A client receiving radioactive iodine must avoid:

a)

Using plastic utensils

b)

Close contact with pregnant women

c)

Eating high-iodine foods

d)

Drinking warm fluids

19.

A client with Addisonian crisis will have which finding?

a)

Severe hypertension

b)

BP 70/40

c)

HR 50

d)

Elevated glucose

20.

Which medication is appropriate for hyperthyroidism?

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

PTU

c)

Desmopressin

d)

Prednisone

21.

The nurse monitors for which finding in DI?

a)

Fluid overload

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Edema

d)

Weight gain

22.

A client shows Chvostek’s sign. Which condition is suspected?

a)

Hyperparathyroidism

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypernatremia

23.

The nurse suspects hypoglycemia when the client reports:

a)

Polyuria

b)

Shakiness

c)

Increased thirst

d)

Abdominal pain

24.

A client with adrenal insufficiency must take hydrocortisone:

a)

Only on weekends

b)

Lifelong

c)

Only when symptomatic

d)

Before meals

25.

Which symptom indicates hyperthyroidism?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Cold intolerance

c)

Tremors

d)

Dry skin

26.

A client receiving IV insulin must be monitored for:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

27.

A patient with DI requires priority assessment of:

a)

Lung sounds

b)

Daily weight

c)

Abdominal girth

d)

Pulse oximetry

28.

A client with Cushing syndrome is most at risk for:

a)

Infection

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Bradycardia

29.

Teaching for hypothyroidism includes:

a)

Avoid heating pads

b)

Take medication at same time daily

c)

Increase fiber slowly

d)

Avoid all activity

30.

Which finding in SIADH indicates improvement?

a)

Increased weight

b)

Increased sodium

c)

Decreased urine specific gravity

d)

Increased thirst

31.

A client with thyroidectomy is at risk for airway obstruction due to:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Laryngeal edema

c)

Medication effects

d)

Excess fluids

32.

Which finding requires immediate action in hyperthyroidism?

a)

Fine tremors

b)

Temperature 104°F

c)

Fatigue

d)

Increased appetite

33.

A client with Addison disease should increase:

a)

Potassium

b)

Fluid intake

c)

Sodium

d)

Calcium

34.

Which symptom is expected in hypothyroidism?

a)

Heat intolerance

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Increased appetite

35.

Which hormone deficiency results in DI?

a)

TSH

b)

PTH

c)

ADH

d)

Cortisol

36.

Addisonian crisis can be triggered by:

a)

Overhydration

b)

Stress or infection

c)

Exercise

d)

IV fluids

37.

A client with DI is treated with desmopressin. Improvement is indicated by:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Decreased urine output

c)

Elevated sodium

d)

Low potassium

38.

A client with Cushing syndrome has thinning skin due to:

a)

High calcium

b)

Poor protein metabolism

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Excess sodium

39.

The nurse suspects hyperparathyroidism when labs show:

a)

Low calcium

b)

High calcium

c)

Low sodium

d)

Low glucose

40.

A client with thyroid storm should receive which intervention first?

a)

Warm blankets

b)

Cooling measures

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

High-calorie meal

41.

Before giving pre-op sedatives, the nurse must:

a)

Verify consent signed

b)

Check bowel sounds

c)

Insert Foley

d)

Give antibiotic

42.

In PACU, the priority assessment is:

a)

Incision site

b)

Airway patency

c)

Temperature

d)

Pulse

43.

A patient recovering from anesthesia begins snoring loudly. The best action?

a)

Increase O2

b)

Reposition head

c)

Call anesthesia

d)

Apply oral airway

44.

Which finding indicates respiratory depression?

a)

RR 16

b)

RR 10

c)

O2 sat 97

d)

BP 130/70

45.

A patient’s wound dressing becomes saturated. First action?

a)

Remove dressing

b)

Reinforce dressing

c)

Apply warm pack

d)

Irrigate wound

46.

A client has a JP drain with no output for 3 hours. First action?

a)

Notify surgeon

b)

Check for kinks

c)

Strip the tubing vigorously

d)

Remove drain

47.

After spinal anesthesia, which finding is most concerning?

a)

Lower extremity numbness

b)

Decreased BP

c)

Back pain

d)

Headache

48.

A patient reports a “pop” at the incision site. First action?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Cover with NS gauze

c)

Remove suture

d)

Document

49.

Malignant hyperthermia includes which finding?

a)

Hypotonia

b)

Muscle rigidity

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypothermia

50.

Treatment for malignant hyperthermia includes:

a)

Naloxone

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Atropine

d)

Lasix

51.

Best intervention to prevent atelectasis postop?

a)

Leg exercises

b)

Incentive spirometry

c)

Warm blankets

d)

Clear liquid diet

52.

Priority postop complication?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Constipation

d)

Nausea

53.

Which client should the nurse see first?

a)

Pain 8/10

b)

O2 sat 88%

c)

No BM x2 days

d)

Dressing with serous drainage

54.

Aldrete score determines:

a)

Level of pain

b)

Readiness for PACU discharge

c)

Fluid deficit

d)

Medication needs

55.

A postop patient has HR 130, cool clammy skin. This suggests:

a)

Shock

b)

Infection

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Pain

56.

Pre-op teaching includes:

a)

Avoid deep breathing exercises

b)

Practice incentive spirometry

c)

Avoid coughing

d)

Increase protein only

57.

A patient becomes confused postop. First action?

a)

Check oxygen saturation

b)

Give pain medication

c)

Notify provider

d)

Reorient

58.

Which sign indicates internal hemorrhage?

a)

Bounding pulses

b)

Hypotension & tachycardia

c)

Warm, dry skin

d)

Low temperature

59.

Which client is ready to advance diet?

a)

No bowel sounds

b)

Passing flatus

c)

Nausea

d)

Abdominal rigidity

60.

Which postoperative finding requires immediate action?

a)

Temp 99.5°F

b)

BP 98/60

c)

Stridor

d)

Serous drainage

61.

Best position to prevent aspiration?

a)

Supine

b)

Side-lying

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

62.

Before surgery, which item must be removed?

a)

Socks

b)

Jewelry

c)

Surgical cap

d)

Gown

63.

Postop urine output is 25 mL/hr. Action?

a)

Encourage fluids

b)

Notify provider

c)

Document

d)

Ambulate

64.

Which action prevents VTE postop?

a)

Warm blanket

b)

Early ambulation

c)

High-protein diet

d)

Pain control only

65.

A postop patient with abdominal surgery should use which technique?

a)

Shallow breathing

b)

Splinting while coughing

c)

Avoid coughing

d)

Side-lying only

66.

First action for postop nausea?

a)

Encourage warm liquids

b)

Reduce environmental stimuli

c)

Ambulate

d)

Give meal tray

67.

After general anesthesia, the nurse keeps the patient in what position?

a)

Supine

b)

Side-lying

c)

Prone

d)

Semi-Fowler’s

68.

A postoperative client with absent bowel sounds at 4 hours indicates:

a)

Expected finding

b)

Ileus

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Shock

69.

Which is an expected finding after spinal anesthesia?

a)

Paralysis

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Stridor

70.

Which action decreases risk of dehiscence?

a)

Splint the incision with a pillow when coughing or moving

b)

Encourage coughing without support to clear secretions

c)

Remove the abdominal binder early to improve mobility

d)

Begin lifting heavy objects as soon as pain allows

71.

A patient after abdominal surgery reports increasing pain and rigid abdomen. This indicates:

a)

Gas pain

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Peritonitis

d)

Constipation

72.

After surgery, when should the Foley catheter be removed?

a)

Immediately

b)

As ordered, usually within 6–8 hrs

c)

After 3 days

d)

After first bowel movement

73.

Which client is highest priority for PACU transfer delay?

a)

Pain rated 9

b)

O2 saturation 89%

c)

Temperature 99°F

d)

Blood pressure 130/80

74.

Continuous bladder irrigation with decreased outflow indicates:

a)

Normal finding

b)

Catheter blockage

c)

Dehydration

d)

Urinary retention

75.

Which lab finding increases perioperative risk?

a)

K+ 5.8

b)

Na+ 140

c)

Glucose 95

d)

Hgb 13

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