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Upper Limb

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many bones are found in each hand and wrist?

a)

24

b)

26

c)

27

d)

28

2.

What are the most distal bones of the hand?

a)

Metacarpals

b)

Carpals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Tarsals

3.

Digits 2-5 consist of how many phalanges?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

4.

The thumb consists of how many phalanges?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

5.

Which of the following are not a part of each phalanx?

a)

Head

b)

Shaft

c)

Base

d)

Tubercle

6.

The base of a metacarpal articulates with which bones?

a)

Phalanges

b)

Carpals

c)

Radius

d)

Ulna

7.

The 1st metacarpal is considered part of which digit?

a)

Index finger

b)

Middle finger

c)

Ring finger

d)

Thumb

8.

Which joint is between the proximal and distal phalanx of the thumb?

a)

MCP

b)

CMC

c)

IP

d)

PIP

9.

The joint between the metacarpal and proximal phalanx is the:

a)

DIP

b)

MCP

c)

PIP

d)

CMC

10.

The joint between the middle and distal phalanx is the:

a)

PIP

b)

MCP

c)

DIP

d)

IP

11.

How many carpals are in the wrist?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

12.

Which carpal is the largest in the proximal row?

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Triquetrum

d)

Pisiform

13.

Which carpal is moon-shaped?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Pisiform

c)

Lunate

d)

Hamate

14.

Which carpal is pyramidal in shape?

a)

Triquetrum

b)

Capitate

c)

Trapezoid

d)

Hamate

15.

Which carpal has a hook-like process called the hamulus?

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Triquetrum

16.

The first metacarpal articulates with which carpal?

a)

Trapezoid

b)

Trapezium

c)

Capitate

d)

Hamate

17.

The second metacarpal articulates with the:

a)

Capitate

b)

Trapezium

c)

Trapezoid

d)

Hamate

18.

The third metacarpal articulates with the:

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Trapezium

d)

Pisiform

19.

The fourth and fifth metacarpals articulate with the:

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Trapezoid

d)

Lunate

20.

The radial styloid process is located on which side of the wrist?

a)

Medial

b)

Ulnar

c)

Lateral

d)

Posterior

21.

Which bone is longer in the forearm?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Scaphoid

22.

The ulnar head is located at which end of the ulna?

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

23.

The proximal radioulnar joint consists of the radial notch of the ulna and the:

a)

Radial neck

b)

Radial head

c)

Capitulum

d)

Trochlea

24.

The distal radioulnar joint consists of the ulnar notch of the radius and the:

a)

Radial head

b)

Radial neck

c)

Ulnar head

d)

Olecranon

25.

During pronation, the radius:

a)

Moves away from the ulna

b)

Crosses over the ulna

c)

Rotates under the ulna

d)

Remains parallel to the ulna

26.

Which process of the ulna forms the posterior elbow?

a)

Coronoid

b)

Radial notch

c)

Olecranon

d)

Capitulum

27.

The trochlear notch articulates with the:

a)

Capitulum

b)

Radius

c)

Distal humerus

d)

Radial head

28.

The trochlea articulates with the:

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Capitate

29.

The capitulum articulates with the:

a)

Ulna

b)

Olecranon

c)

Radius

d)

Coronoid

30.

The medial epicondyle is:

a)

Smaller than lateral

b)

Larger than lateral

c)

Not part of humerus

d)

On the radius

31.

The interphalangeal joints are classified as:

a)

Ellipsoidal

b)

Sellar

c)

Plane

d)

Ginglymus

32.

The MCP joints (2-5) are classified as:

a)

Plane

b)

Ellipsoidal

c)

Sellar

d)

Ginglymus

33.

The first CMC joint is classified as:

a)

Plane

b)

Ginglymus

c)

Sellar

d)

Ellipsoidal

34.

Intercarpal joints are classified as:

a)

Plane

b)

Ginglymus

c)

Ellipsoidal

d)

Sellar

35.

The radiocarpal joint is classified as:

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilaginous

c)

Synovial

d)

Saddle

36.

The mobility type of the radiocarpal joint is:

a)

Amphiarthrodial

b)

Synarthrodial

c)

Diarthrodial

d)

Cartilaginous

37.

The movement type of the radiocarpal joint is:

a)

Plane

b)

Ginglymus

c)

Sellar

d)

Ellipsoidal

38.

During ulnar deviation, which carpal is best visualized?

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Capitate

d)

Hamate

39.

During radial deviation, which carpals are best visualized?

a)

Scaphoid only

b)

Capitate and hamate

c)

Lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, hamate

d)

Trapezium

40.

Joint effusion indicates:

a)

Normal anatomy

b)

No injury

c)

Possible joint injury

d)

Muscle strain

41.

Bone metastases are:

a)

Benign tumors

b)

Primary bone cancers

c)

Spread of cancer form another organ

d)

Infection of bone

42.

Osteolytic lesions involve:

a)

New bone formation

b)

Bone densification

c)

Bone destruction

d)

Joint calcification

43.

Bursitis is:

a)

Bone infection

b)

Joint effusion

c)

Inflammation of bursae

d)

Ligament rupture

44.

Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of which nerve?

a)

Ulnar

b)

Radial

c)

Median

d)

Sciatic

45.

A comminuted fracture is defined as:

a)

Bone bent but not broken

b)

Bone shattered into pieces

c)

Bone driven into itself

d)

Bone partially dislocated

46.

A colles' fracture is:

a)

anterior displacement of distal radius

b)

Posterior displacement of distal radius

c)

Fracture of ulna only

d)

Fracture of the carpals

47.

A smiths fracture is:

a)

posterior displacement of distal radius

b)

anterior displacement of distal radius

c)

Fracture-dislocation of posterior radius

d)

Fracture of scaphoid

48.

A barton's fracture is:

a)

Transverse fracture of ulna

b)

Fracture-dislocation of posterior lip of distal radius

c)

Avulsion fracture of thumb

d)

Greenstick fracture

49.

A bennett's fracture involves:

a)

Fifth metacarpal neck

b)

Distal ulna

c)

base of first metacarpal with dislocation

d)

Radius and ulna

50.

A boxer's fracture occurs at the:

a)

Base of the thumb

b)

Neck of the fifth metacarpal

c)

Distal radius

d)

Ulna styloid

51.

Skiers thumb is an injury to the:

a)

Radial collateral ligament

b)

Ulnar collateral ligament

c)

Median nerve

d)

Flexor tendon

52.

A greenstick fracture is seen in:

a)

Elderly patients

b)

Athletes

c)

Infants and children

d)

Diabetics

53.

Osteoarthritis is also known as:

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

DJD

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Osteopetrosis

54.

Osteomyelitis is:

a)

Bone cancer

b)

Bone infection

c)

Bone degeneration

d)

Bone atrophy

55.

Osteopetrosis is characterized by:

a)

Loss of bone density

b)

Abnormally dense bone

c)

Joint erosion

d)

Ligament rupture

56.

Osteoporosis is:

a)

Increase in bone mass

b)

Bone infection

c)

Reduction of bone tissue

d)

Bone malignancy

57.

Paget's disease involves:

a)

Bone infection

b)

Bone metastases

c)

Disrupted bone remodeling

d)

Ligament injury

58.

Rheumatoid arthritis is:

a)

Degenerative joint disease

b)

Chronic inflammatory disease

c)

Bone infection

d)

Benign tumor

59.

The most common primary malignant bone tumor is:

a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Ewing's sarcoma

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Chondrosarcoma

60.

Osteosarcoma most commonly affects which age group?

a)

Infants

b)

Children 10-20

c)

Adults over 60

d)

Newborns

61.

Ewing's sarcoma has what radiographic appearance?

a)

Sunburst

b)

Punched-out

c)

Onion-peel

d)

Soap-bubble

62.

The most common benign bone tumor is:

a)

Enchondroma

b)

Osteochondroma

c)

Cchondrosarcoma

d)

Myeloma

63.

Enchondromas are most commonly found in:

a)

Long bones

b)

Spine

c)

Hands and feet

d)

Skull

64.

Arthrography is used to evaluate:

a)

Bone density

b)

Joint soft tissues

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Fracture alignment

65.

Arthrography involves injection of:

a)

Saline

b)

Oil

c)

Contrast

d)

Steroids

66.

Nuclear medicine assesses:

a)

Anatomy

b)

Bone length

c)

Physiology

d)

Joint alignment

67.

Nuclear medicine is useful for detecting:

a)

osteoarthritis

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Ligament tears

d)

Dislocations

68.

CT and MRI are useful for evaluating:

a)

Bone length

b)

Soft tissue and skeletal involvement

c)

Joint angles

d)

Bone density only

69.

A fiberglass cast requires how much kV increase?

a)

  • 1-2 kV

b)

  • 3-4 kV

c)

  • 5-7 kV

d)

  • 8-10 kV

70.

A wet plaster cast requires how much kV increase?

a)

  • 3-4 kV

b)

  • 5-7 kV

c)

  • 8-10 kV

d)

  • 10-12 kV

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