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NSG 2410 Exam 1 Study Guide

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Thrush is a fungal infection that commonly affects which area of the body?

a)

Skin

b)

Lungs

c)

Mouth

d)

Urinary tract

2.

Which of the following is a symptom of Candida albicans oral infection?

a)

Redness and swelling of the gums

b)

White patches on the tongue and throat

c)

Vaginal itching and soreness

d)

Painful and swollen lymph nodes in the neck

3.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has a duodenal ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate. The client asks the nurse how sucralfate works. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

4 lines
4.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is starting therapy with sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Take the medication with an antacid.

b)

Take the medication 1 hr before meals.

c)

Store the medication in the refrigerator.

d)

Take as needed for pain relief.

5.

A nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 1 mg PO to an older adult client who has insomnia and who cannot swallow oral tablets. Available is lorazepam oral solution 2 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to administer? (Round to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

0.5 mL

b)

1 mL

c)

2 mL

d)

0.2 mL

6.

A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron 4 mg IM stat. The amount available is ondansetron for injection 2 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

2 mL

b)

1 mL

c)

4 mL

d)

0.5 mL

7.

Which organism or disorder is responsible for many cases of PUD?

a)

pylori infection

b)

Kidney disease

c)

Smoking

d)

Cirrhosis of the liver

8.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with magnesium-based antacid preparations?

a)
Constipation
b)

Diarrhea

c)

Nausea

d)

Headache

9.

A nurse is educating a client about starting therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with metoclopramide. The nurse explains that metoclopramide works by:

a)

Increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone

b)

Decreasing gastric acid production

c)

Stimulating gastric motility

d)

Blocking histamine receptors

10.

A client with GERD is starting therapy with metoclopramide. The nurse should educate the client about potential adverse effects of the medication. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Hypertension

c)

Weight loss

d)

Constipation

11.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about cimetidine with a client who has peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Wait at least 1 hr after taking the medication before taking an antacid.

b)

Expect breast tenderness while taking this medication.

c)

Take this medication on an empty stomach.

d)

Take ibuprofen for occasional aches and pains.

12.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of gastroesophageal disease (GERD). Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the list of foods the client should avoid?

a)

Nonfat milk

b)

Chocolate

c)

Apples

d)

Oatmeal

13.

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl) 750 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

94 mL/hr

b)

80 mL/hr

c)

100 mL/hr

d)

120 mL/hr

14.

A nurse is assisting with care of a client who has a prescription for 3,000 mL of intravenous fluids over the next 24 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round to the nearest whole number)

a)

125 mL/hr

b)

100 mL/hr

c)

150 mL/hr

d)

200 mL/hr

15.

A nurse is assisting in preparing an in-service program about preventing medication errors when transcribing a prescription. The nurse is using a dosage example of two tenths of a milligram. Which of the following transcription examples should the nurse use?

a)

2 mg

b)

0.2 mg

c)

0.20 mg

d)

2.0 mg

16.

A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. The client had one 8-oz cup of coffee, 3 oz of juice, and 12 oz of soda. The client's water pitcher had 800 mL and 200 mL remain. The client also had IV fluids infusing at 40 mL/hr via an IV pump. How many mL should the nurse document as the client's total intake for the shift?

(a)  

17.

A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650 mg PO. Available is aspirin 325 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

1 tablet

b)

2 tablets

c)

3 tablets

d)

4 tablets

18.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of cimetidine?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Headache

c)

Muscle pain

d)

Increased appetite

19.

What is the nurse's indication for administering cimetidine?

a)

To treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

b)

To prevent stress ulcers in critically ill patients

c)

To manage symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

d)

To relieve symptoms of motion sickness

20.

Which of the following is a contraindication for omeprazole use?

a)

Peptic ulcer disease

b)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

c)

Hypertension

d)

Diabetes mellitus

21.

Omeprazole is a medication commonly used to treat:

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Diabetes

c)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

d)

Asthma

22.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has been taking omeprazole for the past 4 weeks. The nurse determines that the medication is effective when the client reports relief from which of the following symptoms?

a)

Nausea

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Headache

d)

Acid indigestion

23.

What is the nurse's indication for administering famotidine?

a)

To prevent blood clots

b)

To treat high blood pressure

c)

To relieve symptoms of heartburn

d)

To manage symptoms of asthma

24.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and reports having heartburn every night. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the client's heartburn?

a)

Sleeping on a large wedge-style pillow

b)

Drinking orange juice regularly

c)

Consuming low-fat meats

d)

Eating dinner early in the evening

25.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has gastroesophageal reflux. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will avoid eating after supper.

b)

I can drink coffee throughout the day.

c)

I drink milk when I get heartburn.

d)

I should not eat foods made with chocolate.

26.

Which of the following ingredients commonly found in over-the-counter mouthwashes provides a breath-freshening action?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Fluoride

c)

Hydrogen Peroxide

d)

Chlorhexidine

27.

The nurse knows that thrush can occur in which of these patient populations ?

a)


Infants

b)

Elderly adults with dentures

c)

Teenagers

d)

Pregnant women

e)

Patients with diabetes

28.

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who has a gastric ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori. The nurse should anticipate that in addition to cimetidine and sucralfate, the provider will prescribe which of the following?

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Mexiletine

c)

Desmopressin

d)

Clarithromycin

29.

A nurse is caring for a client who has gastroesophageal disease and a prescription for metoclopramide. For which of the following adverse effects should the monitor?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Sedation

30.

A nurse is preparing to administer liquid famotidine 20 mg PO every 6 hr for GERD. Available is famotidine 40 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

a)

2.5 mL

b)

4 mL

c)

1.5 mL

d)

5 mL

31.

Which of the following drugs is recommended for severe abdominal pain that occurs approximately 45 to 60

minutes after eating?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Ibuprofen

32.

A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has GERD. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

Spaghetti with red sauce

b)

Lemon pepper fish

c)

Corned beef brisket

d)

Baked turkey breast

33.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Elevate the head of your bed by 18 inches.

b)

Avoid snacking between meals.

c)

Use a straw to consume liquids.

d)

Avoid wearing constricting clothing.

34.

Which adverse effect should a nurse monitor for in a patient using Abreva?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Excessive bleeding

c)

Skin rash or irritation

d)

Urinary retention

35.

Nurses use Glycerin mouth swabs primarily on which type of patient?

a)

Patients with dry mouth

b)

Patients with high blood pressure

c)

Patients with pneumonia

d)

Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding

36.

When administering viscous Lidocaine, the nurse should prioritize which of the following actions?

a)

Evaluating the patient's level of pain relief after administration

b)

Monitoring the patient's blood pressure every 15 minutes

c)

Administering the medication with food to prevent stomach upset

d)

Assessing the patient's respiratory rate before administration

37.

Aphthasol is a medication commonly used in nursing for the treatment of aphthous ulcers. These ulcers are painful sores that can develop on the inside of the mouth. Which of the following is the correct nursing indication for Aphthasol?

a)

Prevention of pressure ulcers

b)

Treatment of diabetic foot ulcers

c)

Management of venous leg ulcers

d)

Treatment of aphthous ulcers

38.

Aphthasol is a medication commonly used to treat which of the following conditions?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Recurrent aphthous ulcers

39.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Mycostatin (Nystatin)?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Constipation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

H

40.

Which of the following is a common mode of transmission for herpes simplex type 1?

a)

Sharing utensils or drinks

b)

Mosquito bites

c)

Airborne droplets

d)

Sexual contact

41.

What is the purpose of using viscous lidocaine for mucositis in clients with cancer?

a)

To provide pain relief by numbing the affected area

b)

To treat the underlying bacterial infection causing mucositis

c)

To reduce inflammation and swelling in the affected area

d)

To stimulate the healing process of the mucosal tissues

42.

Which of the following is a common complication of mucositis in clients with cancer?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Weight gain

c)

Improved taste sensation

d)

Increased salivary gland function

43.

What is the recommended use of Aphthasol canker sore treatment?

a)

For immediate pain relief

b)

To numb the area

c)

To reduce inflammation and promote healing of canker sores

d)

To prevent the occurence of canker sores

44.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a gray to whitish yellow lesion, commonly known as a canker sore?

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Oral thrush

c)

Aphthous stomatitis

d)

Oral lichen planus

45.

The only over-the-counter medication, approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), that is clinically proven to shorten healing time and the duration of symptoms such as tingling, pain, burning, and itching is?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Docosanol

d)

Aspirin

46.

The nurse reassesses a patient’s oral cavity, after receiving oral care, and notices a white, milk curd-appearing plaque attached to the oral mucosa. The nurse understands that the patient suffers from which condition?

a)

Oral thrush

b)

Leukoplakia

c)

Oral lichen planus

d)

Oral herpes

47.

What is the primary cause of cold sores?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Fungal infection

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Viral Infection

48.

Which of the following interventions can help manage anticipatory nausea and vomiting?

a)

Administer an antiemetic medication after the onset of symptoms.

b)

Encourage deep breathing exercises and relaxation techniques before the treatment.

c)

Increase the dosage of the chemotherapy medication to prevent nausea and vomiting.

d)

Restrict fluid intake before the treatment to minimize the risk of nausea and vomiting.

49.

Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist commonly used for the treatment of nausea?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Amitriptyline

c)

Diazepam

d)

Metoclopramide

50.

Which of the following medications is most likely to have anticholinergic and sedative effects?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Ibuprofen

51.

Dexamethasone is commonly used in combination with other antiemetics to relieve which of the following symptoms?

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Fever

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Headache

52.

A client is experiencing nausea as an adverse effect of diazepam (Valium) therapy. Which nursing intervention is appropriate to manage the client's nausea?

a)

Administer an antiemetic medication.

b)

Increase the dose of diazepam.

c)

Encourage the client to eat a large meal

d)

Provide the client with a hot beverage

53.

Which of the following medications is commonly used for vomiting?

a)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

b)

Diazepam (Valium)

c)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

d)

Loperamide (Imodium)

54.

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of nabilone (Cesamet)?

a)

Treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

b)

Treatment of bacterial infections

c)

Management of hypertension

d)

Relief of musculoskeletal pain

55.

Aprepitant (Emend) is a medication commonly used in the prevention of:

a)

Nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Pain relief

56.

A patient is experiencing mild nausea and vomiting associated with anesthesia and surgery. Which type of drug does the nurse expect to be administered?

a)

Analgesic

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antiemetic

d)

Anticoagulant

57.

A patient is experiencing severe persistent vomiting that interferes with nutritional, fluid, and electrolyte balance. The nurse understands that this patient may be experiencing:

a)
Gastroenteritis
b)

Appendicitis

c)

Gallstones

d)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

58.

Which drug class is usually present in the GI tract to inhibit gastric acid and pepsin secretion to protect the stomach against ulceration, as well as induce uterine contractions?

a)

Antacids

b)

Proton pump inhibitors

c)

Histamine2- receptor antagonists

d)

Mucosal protectants

59.

A patient complains of a chalky taste in his mouth. The nurse knows that this is a common adverse effect of which medication?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Metformin

d)

Calcium carbonate

60.

Which side effect can the nurse expect from a patient who consumes large amounts of calcium carbonate or aluminum hydroxide?

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Headache

d)

Nausea

61.

Dronabinol is a medication used to treat which of the following conditions?

a)

Chronic pain

b)

Nausea and vomiting associated with chemotheraphy

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Anxiety disorder

62.

A patient recently diagnosed with GERD is complaining of gastric irritation. The nurse understands that medications from which drug class will aid in lowering the acidity of gastric secretions and is commonly used to treat heartburn, excessive eating and drinking, and PUD?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone ( GnRH) Agonists

c)

Leuprolide (Lupron)

d)

Antacids

63.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse expects the provider to order which group of drugs for maintenance to prevent ulcer recurrence?

a)

Antacids

b)

H2 receptor antagonists

c)

Proton pump inhibiotors (PPIs)

d)

A

64.

Which cause is the most common associated to tooth, gum, and periodontal disease?

a)

Poor oral hygiene

b)

Genetics

c)

Smoking

d)

Diet

65.

Which condition is treated by saliva substitutes?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Head lice

c)

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease

d)

Bronchitis

66.

Which adverse effect is associated with the use of a corticosteroid inhaler?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Oral thrush

c)

Muscle Weakness

d)

W

67.

Which medication is administered as a coating agent to provide protective covering over ulcer craters?

a)

Sucralfate

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Metformin

d)

L

68.

Scopolamine is a medication commonly used to prevent motion sickness and reduce nausea and vomiting associated with anesthesia and surgery. It belongs to a class of drugs known as anticholinergic agents. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient receiving scopolamine?

a)

Encouraging the patient to engage in deep breathing exercises

b)

Providing the patient with a clear liquid diet

c)

Administering the medication on an empty stomach

d)

Administering the medication on an empty stomach

69.

Promethazine is commonly used for which of the following?

a)

Relieving allergies

b)

Treating motion sickness

c)

Managing insomnia

d)

Treating nausea and vomiting

70.

.Promethazine is a medication commonly used for the treatment of allergies, motion sickness, and nausea. Which of the following is a potential side effect of promethazine?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Muscle cramps

71.

What is an important side effect to monitor for when administering promethazine?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Hypertension

d)

Muscle spasms

72.

Which of the following is a nursing implication for the use of Ondansetron in treating nausea?

a)

Monitoring for potential adverse effects such as headache and constipation.

b)

Encouraging the patient to consume large meals to prevent nausea.

c)

Administering Ondansetron on an empty stomach for better absorption.

d)

Discontinuing Ondansetron abruptly without tapering the dose.

73.

Scopolamine is commonly used in nursing to manage which of the following conditions?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Pain management