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GIT / RENAL EMBRYO HISTO

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

A newborn presents with a small hole in the midline of the abdominal wall, through which abdominal viscera protrude, not covered by peritoneum. This is:

a)

Omphalocele

b)

Gastroschisis

c)

Umbilical hernia

d)

Meckel's diverticulum

2.

During the 6th week of development, the midgut normally undergoes:

a)

Physiological herniation

b)

90-degree clockwise rotation

c)

Immediate return to the cavity

d)

Descent into the pelvis

3.

The "Apple-peel" atresia of the bowel is typically caused by:

a)

Failure of recanalization

b)

Ischemic injury (vascular accident)

c)

Abnormal neural crest migration

d)

Chromosomal trisomy

4.

A child presents with a painless out-pouching of the ileum located 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve. This remnant is derived from:

a)

Allantois

b)

Vitelline duct

c)

Urorectal septum

d)

Dorsal mesentery

5.

Projectile non-bilious vomiting in a 3-week-old infant is a classic sign of:

a)

Duodenal atresia

b)

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

c)

Annular pancreas

d)

Malrotation

6.

The double-bubble sign on an X-ray of a neonate with bilious vomiting indicates:

a)

Pyloric stenosis

b)

Duodenal atresia

c)

Esophageal atresia

d)

Volvulus

7.

Failure of the ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds to fuse properly can result in:

a)

Annular pancreas

b)

Pancreas divisum

c)

Ectopic pancreas

d)

Accessory pancreatic duct

8.

The urorectal septum divides the cloaca into the urogenital sinus and the:

a)

Proctodeum

b)

Anal canal (upper part)

c)

Allantois

d)

Urachus

9.

Hirschsprung disease (congenital megacolon) is caused by the failure of migration of:

a)

Endodermal cells

b)

Mesodermal cells

c)

Neural crest cells

d)

Angioblasts

10.

A "Horseshoe kidney" is prevented from ascending to its adult position by which artery?

a)

Superior mesenteric

b)

Inferior mesenteric

c)

Celiac trunk

d)

Common iliac

11.

Potter sequence is primarily associated with which condition?

a)

Polyhydramnios

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Excessive fetal movement

d)

Macrosomia

12.

The ureteric bud gives rise to all the following EXCEPT which structure?

a)

Ureter

b)

Major calyces

c)

Nephron (glomerulus to DCT)

d)

Collecting ducts

13.

Metanephric blastema gives rise to which of the following?

a)

Collecting tubules

b)

Renal pelvis

c)

Proximal convoluted tubules

d)

Ureter

14.

A patient has urine leaking from the umbilicus. This is a patent which structure?

a)

Vitelline duct

b)

Urachus

c)

Allantois

d)

Round ligament

15.

Which structure is derived from the foregut?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Ascending colon

c)

Stomach

d)

Appendix

16.

The total rotation of the midgut during development is what magnitude and direction?

a)

90 degrees clockwise

b)

270 degrees counter-clockwise

c)

180 degrees counter-clockwise

d)

360 degrees clockwise

17.

Exstrophy of the bladder is often associated with which condition?

a)

Imperforate anus

b)

Epispadias

c)

Renal agenesis

d)

Gastroschisis

18.

The liver primordium appears in the middle of the 3rd week as an outgrowth of which tissue?

a)

Foregut endoderm

b)

Midgut mesoderm

c)

Septum transversum

d)

Ectoderm

19.

The lesser omentum is derived from the:

a)

Dorsal mesogastrium

b)

Ventral mesogastrium

c)

Mesocolon

d)

Pleuroperitoneal membrane

20.

Accessory renal arteries are common because:

a)

The kidney loses lower vessels as it ascends

b)

The kidney carries all its embryonic vessels

c)

It is a sign of renal dysplasia

d)

They arise from the gonadal arteries

21.

Multicystic dysplastic kidney is usually the result of:

a)

Abnormal induction of metanephric blastema by ureteric bud

b)

Failure of the urachus to close

c)

Ischemia of the renal artery

d)

Maternal diabetes

22.

The cloacal membrane is composed of:

a)

Ectoderm and Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm and Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm and Mesoderm

d)

Pure Ectoderm

23.

The definitive kidney (metanephros) becomes functional at approximately:

a)

4 weeks

b)

10 weeks

c)

20 weeks

d)

Birth

24.

Failure of the esophagus to recanalize leads to:

a)

Esophageal atresia

b)

Tracheoesophageal fistula

c)

Achalasia

d)

Hiatal hernia

25.

The ligamentum teres hepatis is the remnant of the:

a)

Umbilical artery

b)

Umbilical vein

c)

Ductus venosus

d)

Ductus arteriosus

26.

Which of the following is a derivative of the hindgut?

a)

Descending colon

b)

Distal 1/3rd of transverse colon

c)

Rectum (upper part)

d)

All of the above

27.

"Internal hernia" of the abdomen usually involves the bowel being trapped in:

a)

The omental bursa (lesser sac)

b)

The inguinal canal

c)

The pleuroperitoneal canal

d)

The pelvic cavity

28.

The spleen develops from:

a)

Foregut endoderm

b)

Mesoderm of the dorsal mesogastrium

c)

Septum transversum

d)

Hindgut mesoderm

29.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) involves a deficiency in enzymes producing:

a)

Insulin

b)

Cortisol

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

30.

The pectinate line in the anal canal represents the junction between:

a)

Foregut and Midgut

b)

Endoderm and Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm and Ectoderm

d)

Midgut and Hindgut

31.

The common bile duct is formed from the:

a)

Ventral pancreatic bud

b)

Narrowing of the connection between the hepatic diverticulum and foregut

c)

Dorsal mesentery

d)

Cystic duct only

32.

Meckel's diverticulum may contain heterotopic tissue of:

a)

Lung

b)

Gastric mucosa or pancreatic tissue

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Splenic tissue

33.

The kidneys initially develop in the:

a)

Thoracic region

b)

Pelvic region

c)

Lumbar region

d)

Cervical region

34.

Ascites in a fetus with posterior urethral valves is usually due to:

a)

Liver failure

b)

Rupture of the urinary tract (urinary ascites)

c)

Heart failure

d)

Infection

35.

The mesentery of the ascending colon disappears because:

a)

It is absorbed by the liver

b)

It fuses with the parietal peritoneum (retroperitonealization)

c)

It never develops

d)

It becomes the greater omentum

36.

Wilms tumor is a congenital kidney cancer associated with mutations in:

a)

WT1 gene

b)

SRY gene

c)

Shh gene

d)

Hox genes

37.

The anal pit (proctodeum) is lined by:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Neural crest

38.

Biliary atresia is characterized by:

a)

Patent bile ducts

b)

Obliteration of extrahepatic biliary ducts

c)

Excess bile production

d)

Failure of liver to develop

39.

The greater omentum is a derivative of the:

a)

Ventral mesogastrium

b)

Dorsal mesogastrium

c)

Falciform ligament

d)

Transverse mesocolon

40.

The nephric system that forms the vestigial "excretory units" in the cervical region is the:

a)

Pronephros

b)

Mesonephros

c)

Metanephros

d)

Paramesonephros

41.

The epithelium of the esophagus is:

a)

Simple columnar

b)

Keratinized stratified squamous

c)

Non-keratinized stratified squamous

d)

Pseudostratified ciliated

42.

Parietal (oxyntic) cells of the stomach are characterized by:

a)

Basophilic cytoplasm

b)

Intracellular canaliculi and mitochondria

c)

Zymogen granules

d)

Secretion of mucous

43.

Which cell type in the gastric glands secretes Pepsinogen?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Chief (Zymogenic) cells

c)

Mucous neck cells

d)

G-cells

44.

The presence of Brunner’s glands in the submucosa is diagnostic for:

a)

Ileum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Esophagus

45.

Peyer’s patches are predominantly found in the lamina propria and submucosa of the:

a)

Stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Ileum

d)

Colon

46.

The "Space of Disse" in the liver is located between:

a)

Two hepatocytes

b)

Hepatocytes and sinusoids

c)

Bile duct and portal vein

d)

Sinusoids and central vein

47.

Kupffer cells are specialized:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Macrophages

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Epithelial cells

48.

Paneth cells, which secrete lysozymes, are found in the:

a)

Gastric pits

b)

Base of Crypts of Lieberkühn

c)

Islets of Langerhans

d)

Esophageal glands

49.

The functional unit of the liver that explains the zonal effect of toxins and hypoxia is the:

a)

Hepatic lobule

b)

Portal lobule

c)

Hepatic acinus (of Rappaport)

d)

Portal triad

50.

The epithelium of the gallbladder is:

a)

Simple cuboidal

b)

Simple columnar with microvilli

c)

Stratified squamous

d)

Transitional

51.

Auerbach’s (Myenteric) plexus is located in which layer of the GIT?

a)

Submucosa

b)

Between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers

c)

Serosa

d)

Lamina propria

52.

The main cell type found in the lining of the large intestine (colon) is:

a)

Parietal cell

b)

Goblet cell

c)

Paneth cell

d)

Chief cell

53.

The "Blood-Urine Barrier" (Filtration barrier) does NOT include:

a)

Fenestrated endothelium

b)

Glomerular basement membrane

c)

Podocyte slit diaphragm

d)

Macula densa cells

54.

The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is distinguished from the DCT by:

a)

Lack of microvilli

b)

Presence of a prominent brush border

c)

Smaller cell size

d)

Clearer lumen

55.

The "Macula Densa" is a specialized part of the:

a)

PCT

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

Loop of Henle

56.

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the:

a)

Efferent arteriole

b)

Afferent arteriole

c)

Proximal tubule

d)

Mesangium

57.

The "Renal Corpuscle" consists of:

a)

Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

b)

PCT and DCT

c)

Loop of Henle and collecting duct

d)

Renal papilla and calyces

58.

The epithelium lining the urinary bladder (Urothelium) is:

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Transitional epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous

d)

Columnar

59.

Which cells produce Erythropoietin in the kidney?

a)

Podocytes

b)

Interstitial cells (fibroblast-like) in the cortex

c)

Mesangial cells

d)

Cells of the PCT

60.

The thin limb of the Loop of Henle is lined by:

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Columnar epithelium

d)

Transitional epithelium

61.

Centroacinar cells are unique to the histology of the:

a)

Liver

b)

Exocrine Pancreas

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Kidney

62.

The Vitamin A-storing cells in the liver are known as:

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

Ito cells (Stellate cells)

c)

Hepatocytes

d)

Sinusoidal cells

63.

Taeniae coli are specialized bands of:

a)

Circular muscle

b)

Longitudinal muscle

c)

Submucosa

d)

Serosa

64.

The core of an intestinal villus contains a lymphatic capillary called a:

a)

Sinusoid

b)

Lacteal

c)

Crypt

d)

Canaliculus

65.

The "Stair-step" appearance of cardiac-like muscle is found in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus, but it is actually:

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Elastic tissue

66.

Mesangial cells function primarily as:

a)

Secretors of renin

b)

Phagocytes and structural support

c)

Filters of glucose

d)

Oxygen sensors

67.

The endocrine portion of the pancreas is the:

a)

Acini

b)

Islets of Langerhans

c)

Interlobular ducts

d)

Main pancreatic duct

68.

The primary function of the PCT is:

a)

Secretion of urea

b)

Reabsorption of 65-70% of water and electrolytes

c)

Concentration of urine

d)

Secretion of renin

69.

"Umbrella cells" are a characteristic feature of:

a)

Stomach mucosa

b)

Transitional epithelium (Urothelium)

c)

Respiratory epithelium

d)

Gallbladder

70.

The Portal Triad consists of:

a)

Hepatic artery, Portal vein, Bile duct

b)

Central vein, Portal vein, Hepatic artery

c)

Hepatic vein, Bile duct, Lymphatic

d)

Hepatic artery, Central vein, Bile duct

71.

The mucosa of the Appendix is characterized by:

a)

Absence of lymphatic nodules

b)

Presence of continuous ring of lymphatic nodules

c)

Villi

d)

Brunner’s glands

72.

The "Medullary Ray" in the kidney contains:

a)

Glomeruli only

b)

Straight portions of tubules and collecting ducts

c)

Only convoluted tubules

d)

Renal corpuscles

73.

In the stomach, the "Rugae" are:

a)

Permanent folds of mucosa

b)

Temporary folds of mucosa and submucosa

c)

Villi

d)

Microvilli

74.

The major site of water reabsorption in the GIT is the:

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Esophagus

75.

The basement membrane of the glomerular capillaries is:

a)

Thin and discontinuous

b)

Thick and formed by fusion of endothelial and podocyte laminae

c)

Absent

d)

Made of pure keratin

76.

Which segment of the uriniferous tubule is most permeable to water?

a)

Ascending thick limb of Henle

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Descending thin limb of Henle

d)

Collecting duct (without ADH)

77.

The Interlobular arteries of the kidney are found in the:

a)

Renal pelvis

b)

Renal columns (of Bertin)

c)

Medullary pyramids

d)

Ureteric wall

78.

Meissner's plexus is located in the:

a)

Muscularis externa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Serosa

d)

Lamina propria

79.

The cells of the Collecting Duct that are responsible for acid-base balance are:

a)

Principal cells

b)

Intercalated cells

c)

Podocytes

d)

JG cells

80.

"Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses" are pathological invaginations found in the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Appendix

d)

Esophagus

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