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Digestive System Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption?

a)

Stomach

b)

Large intestine

c)

Jejunum

d)

Duodenum

e)

Esophagus

2.

Which of the following sphincters prevents gastric contents from entering the esophagus?

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Ileocecal valve

c)

Lower esophageal sphincter

d)

Anal sphincter

e)

Upper esophageal sphincter

3.

Bile salts are essential for the digestion and absorption of:

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Vitamins B and C

e)

Minerals

4.

Which of the following enzymes is secreted in an inactive form?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin

c)

Amylase

d)

Maltase

e)

Lipase

5.

The brush border of the small intestine contains enzymes that complete digestion of:

a)

Proteins and carbohydrates

b)

Fats only

c)

Carbohydrates only

d)

Nucleic acids only

e)

Minerals

6.

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

a)

Glycogen storage

b)

Urea formation

c)

Secretion of digestive enzymes

d)

Detoxification

e)

Synthesis of plasma proteins

7.

Which part of the digestive tract has the thickest muscular wall?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Colon

e)

Rectum

8.

The pancreas secretes bicarbonate primarily to:

a)

Activate enzymes

b)

Neutralize gastric acid in duodenum

c)

Aid in lipid absorption

d)

Facilitate protein digestion

e)

Stimulate peristalsis

9.

The absorptive cells of the small intestine are called:

a)

Goblet cells

b)

Enterocytes

c)

Paneth cells

d)

Kupffer cells

e)

Chief cells

10.

Which of the following hormones stimulates release of pancreatic enzymes?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

d)

Insulin

e)

Motilin

11.

The function of the large intestine includes:

a)

Protein digestion

b)

Fat absorption

c)

Water and electrolyte absorption

d)

Bile secretion

e)

Enzyme secretion

12.

Which of the following is not secreted by the stomach?

a)

Pepsinogen

b)

Intrinsic factor

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Bile

e)

Mucus

13.

The mucosa of the small intestine is characterized by:

a)

Rugae

b)

Plicae circulares and villi

c)

Peyer’s patches

d)

Haustra

e)

Crypts of Lieberkühn only

14.

Which of the following increases gastric acid secretion?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Secretin

c)

Gastrin

d)

CCK

e)

GIP

15.

The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into the:

a)

Jejunum

b)

Ileum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Cecum

e)

Colon

16.

Which organ stores and concentrates bile?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Spleen

e)

Appendix

17.

Which of the following movements occurs in the small intestine?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Haustral churning

c)

Defecation

d)

Mass peristalsis

e)

Vomiting

18.

Chief cells of the stomach secrete:

a)

Pepsinogen

b)

Hydrochloric acid

c)

Mucus

d)

Gastrin

e)

Bicarbonate

19.

Which of the following best describes the enteric nervous system?

a)

Parasympathetic branch of vagus nerve

b)

Localized neural network regulating GI motility

c)

Sympathetic innervation of the colon

d)

Hormonal feedback system

e)

Sensory input to the medulla oblongata

20.

The major site of iron absorption is the:

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Colon

e)

Stomach

21.

The primary function of erythropoietin is to:

a)

Stimulate platelet production

b)

Promote red blood cell formation

c)

Increase leukocyte production

d)

Enhance hemoglobin breakdown

e)

Stimulate plasma protein synthesis

22.

Which plasma protein is mainly responsible for osmotic pressure?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Globulin

c)

Albumin

d)

Hemoglobin

e)

Prothrombin

23.

The lifespan of a normal RBC is approximately:

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

d)

180 days

e)

240 days

24.

Platelets are derived from:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Megakaryocytes

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Basophils

25.

Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

All are granulocytes

26.

Hemostasis involves all of the following except:

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Coagulation

d)

Fibrinolysis

e)

Leukopoiesis

27.

The iron in hemoglobin is bound to:

a)

Globin

b)

Heme group

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Transferrin

e)

Ferritin

28.

Which of the following WBCs increase during allergic reactions?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

e)

Lymphocytes

29.

The universal donor blood type is:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O negative

e)

O positive

30.

The universal recipient blood type is:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB positive

d)

AB negative

e)

O positive

31.

Which vitamin is essential for prothrombin synthesis?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin E

e)

Vitamin K

32.

Which organ removes old RBCs from circulation?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Spleen

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Pancreas

33.

The normal pH of human blood is approximately:

a)

6.8

b)

7.0

c)

7.35–7.45

d)

7.6

e)

8.0

34.

The buffy coat layer in centrifuged blood contains:

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs and platelets

d)

Only WBCs

35.

Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in blood as:

a)

Dissolved gas

b)

Carbaminohemoglobin

c)

Bicarbonate ion

d)

Carbonic acid

e)

Bound to plasma proteins

36.

Anemia can result from:

a)

Increased WBC count

b)

Low hemoglobin levels

c)

Elevated platelet count

d)

Vitamin D deficiency

e)

High bilirubin

37.

The first step in blood clot formation is:

a)

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Activation of thrombin

d)

Calcium ion release

e)

Plasmin activation

38.

Hemophilia is caused by a defect in:

a)

RBC membrane

b)

Coagulation factors

c)

White cell enzymes

d)

Platelet number

e)

Hemoglobin structure

39.

The hematocrit represents the:

a)

Plasma volume percentage

b)

RBC volume percentage

c)

WBC count

d)

Platelet count

e)

Oxygen saturation

40.

Which of the following blood cells can differentiate into macrophages?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Basophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Neutrophils

41.

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest wall?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

e)

Septum

42.

The pacemaker of the heart is the:

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

Coronary sinus

43.

The function of the AV valves is to:

a)

Allow backflow

b)

Prevent backflow into atria

c)

Regulate pulmonary circulation

d)

Prevent aortic regurgitation

e)

Open during atrial systole only

44.

The heart muscle receives its blood supply from:

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Coronary arteries

c)

Aortic arch

d)

Superior vena cava

e)

Carotid arteries

45.

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Aorta

d)

Coronary vein

e)

Vena cava

46.

The QRS complex of ECG represents:

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

e)

SA node firing

47.

The cardiac output equals:

a)

Stroke volume × heart rate

b)

Stroke volume ÷ heart rate

c)

End-diastolic volume – end-systolic volume

d)

Heart rate × resistance

e)

MAP × HR

48.

The baroreceptors that regulate blood pressure are located in the:

a)

Coronary arteries

b)

Aortic arch and carotid sinus

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Right atrium

e)

Ventricles

49.

The "lub" sound of the heart is produced by:

a)

Opening of AV valves

b)

Closure of AV valves

c)

Closure of semilunar valves

d)

Blood ejection

e)

Atrial contraction

50.

During ventricular systole, which valves are open?

a)

AV valves

b)

Pulmonary and aortic valves

c)

Both AV and semilunar valves

d)

None

e)

Mitral valve only

51.

The Frank-Starling law states that:

a)

Increased preload increases stroke volume

b)

Increased afterload decreases venous return

c)

Decreased venous return increases contractility

d)

Cardiac output decreases with heart rate

52.

The conduction delay at the AV node allows:

a)

Ventricular filling before contraction

b)

Simultaneous atrial and ventricular contraction

c)

Heart block

d)

Atrial repolarization

e)

Faster conduction to ventricles

53.

Which of the following vessels has the highest blood pressure?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Veins

c)

Aorta

d)

Venules

e)

Pulmonary vein

54.

Which blood vessel type has valves to prevent backflow?

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Veins

d)

Capillaries

e)

Venules

55.

The function of the pericardial fluid is to:

a)

Provide nutrients to myocardium

b)

Lubricate and reduce friction

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Prevent electrical conduction

e)

Maintain blood pressure

56.

Which structure electrically connects cardiac muscle fibers?

a)

Myofibrils

b)

Intercalated discs

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Desmosomes

e)

Endomysium

57.

The pulmonary circulation begins at the:

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Left atrium

e)

Aorta

58.

Which layer of the heart wall is responsible for contraction?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Pericardium

e)

Serosa

59.

When the left ventricle contracts, blood flows into the:

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Right atrium

e)

Coronary sinus

60.

Which of the following is a positive chronotropic agent?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Parasympathetic stimulation

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Beta-blockers

e)

Vagal stimulation

61.

The cardiac cycle refers to:

a)

One complete heartbeat (systole + diastole)

b)

Only atrial contraction

c)

Ventricular systole only

d)

Period between two atrial contractions

e)

Blood ejection phase only

62.

During ventricular diastole:

a)

AV valves are closed

b)

Semilunar valves are open

c)

Ventricles relax and fill with blood

d)

Atria are contracting forcefully

e)

Blood flows into the aorta

63.

The phase of the cardiac cycle when both AV and semilunar valves are closed is called:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Ventricular ejection

c)

Isovolumetric contraction

d)

Isovolumetric relaxation

e)

Ventricular filling

64.

The dicrotic notch in the aortic pressure curve represents:

a)

Aortic valve opening

b)

Closure of aortic valve

c)

AV valve closure

d)

Atrial contraction

e)

Mitral valve opening

65.

The "dup" heart sound corresponds to:

a)

Opening of AV valves

b)

Closure of semilunar valves

c)

Opening of semilunar valves

d)

Atrial contraction

e)

Ventricular filling

66.

Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of cardiac excitation?

a)

SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His

b)

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

c)

AV node → SA node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

d)

AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers

e)

SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → Bundle of His

67.

Normal resting heart rate in an adult is approximately:

a)

30–50 bpm

b)

50–60 bpm

c)

60–100 bpm

68.

Which factor increases cardiac output?

a)

Decreased venous return

b)

Decreased contractility

c)

Increased heart rate and stroke volume

d)

Decreased preload

e)

Increased afterload

69.

The mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be approximated as:

a)

(Systolic BP + Diastolic BP) ÷ 2

b)

Diastolic BP + 1/3 (Pulse pressure)

c)

Systolic BP − Diastolic BP

d)

Pulse pressure × 2

e)

Systolic BP × Heart rate

70.

Blood pressure is primarily determined by:

a)

Heart rate and stroke volume

b)

Blood viscosity and vessel radius

c)

Peripheral resistance and cardiac output

d)

Venous return only

e)

Aortic valve diameter

71.

Baroreceptors respond to:

a)

Changes in oxygen concentration

b)

Changes in blood pressure

c)

Changes in blood osmolarity

d)

Hormone secretion

e)

Ventricular contractility

72.

Which hormone increases blood pressure by stimulating sodium reabsorption?

a)

Insulin

b)

Aldosterone

c)

ADH

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Cortisol

73.

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS) acts to:

a)

Decrease water retention

b)

Increase blood pressure and blood volume

c)

Promote vasodilation

d)

Lower heart rate

e)

Inhibit sodium absorption

74.

Systolic blood pressure corresponds to:

a)

Pressure during ventricular relaxation

b)

Pressure during atrial contraction

c)

Pressure during ventricular contraction

d)

Minimum pressure in arteries

e)

Average pressure during the cycle

75.

The artery that supplies the brain is the:

a)

Subclavian artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Carotid artery

d)

Axillary artery

e)

Femoral artery

76.

Which of the following arteries carries deoxygenated blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Coronary artery

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Subclavian artery

e)

Renal artery

77.

The largest artery in the human body is the:

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Carotid artery

d)

Femoral artery

e)

Subclavian artery

78.

The coronary arteries branch off from the:

a)

Pulmonary trunk

b)

Right atrium

c)

Aorta

d)

Left atrium

e)

Inferior vena cava

79.

The femoral artery is a continuation of which vessel?

a)

Aorta

b)

Popliteal artery

c)

External iliac artery

d)

Common carotid artery

e)

Axillary artery

80.

The circle of Willis is located at the:

a)

Base of the brain

b)

Apex of the heart

c)

Hilum of the lung

d)

Neck region

e)

Abdominal aorta

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