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nutri (DIET & HIV)

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term correctly defines HIV in full?

a)

Human Immunity Depletion Virus

b)

Human Infected Viral Disease

c)

Human Immune Defect Syndrome

d)

Human Immuno-deficiency Virus

2.

What does the acronym AIDS stand for?

a)

Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

b)

Acute Immune Disorder Syndrome

c)

Acquired Infection Disease Syndrome

d)

Auto Immune Defect Syndrome

3.

Which statement best distinguishes HIV from AIDS?

a)

HIV is the virus; AIDS is the syndrome

b)

HIV is a symptom; AIDS is the treatment

c)

HIV is a vaccine; AIDS is a virus

d)

HIV is cured easily; AIDS is temporary

4.

Which body system is primarily affected leading to AIDS?

a)

The nervous system becomes overactive

b)

The respiratory system becomes congested

c)

The digestive system becomes inflamed

d)

The immune system becomes deficient

5.

Which is a recognized route of HIV transmission shown in the visuals?

a)

Sharing household utensils

b)

Casual social conversation

c)

Mosquito bites outdoors

d)

Unprotected sexual contact

6.

Which healthcare-related practice can transmit HIV if infected material is involved?

a)

Listening with a stethoscope

b)

Transfusion of contaminated blood

c)

Measuring blood pressure routinely

d)

Using sterile gloves once

7.

Which action poses a significant risk of HIV transmission?

a)

Sharing clean drinking water bottles

b)

Eating meals at the same table

c)

Sharing infected needles or syringes

d)

Using separate bath towels daily

8.

What is a mother-to-child route of HIV transmission?

a)

From infected mother to her baby

b)

From baby to mother by crying

c)

From grandparents by hugging

d)

From siblings by sharing toys

9.

Which common social contact does NOT spread HIV?

a)

All listed choices do not

b)

Sitting near someone on buses

c)

Breathing shared indoor air

d)

Handshake or hugging in public

10.

Which statement reflects HIV transmission statistics awareness?

a)

Risk is identical for every activity

b)

Risk is eliminated by washing hands only

c)

Risk always decreases with older age alone

d)

Risk increases with multiple unprotected partners

11.

Which preventive action directly reduces sexual transmission risk?

a)

Consistent condom use during intercourse

b)

Wearing long-sleeved clothing

c)

Taking vitamins once per week

d)

Avoiding spicy foods routinely

12.

Which scenario requires immediate post-exposure evaluation for HIV?

a)

Accidental needle stick with unknown source

b)

Sharing a classroom chair with someone

c)

Using a public restroom briefly

d)

Touching a doorknob in hospitals

13.

Which route accounts for the largest proportion of HIV transmission in the pie chart?

a)

Unidentified routes predominate overall

b)

Injection drug use predominates overall

c)

Perinatal transmission predominates overall

d)

Sexual transmission predominates overall

14.

Identify the approximate percentage labeled for sexual transmission in the chart.

a)

About four point three percent

b)

About nineteen point nine percent

c)

About fifty-five point six percent

d)

About eighty-four point six percent

15.

Which statement correctly distinguishes social contact from transmission risk?

a)

Sharing needles does not spread HIV

b)

Shaking hands does not spread HIV

c)

Using toilets spreads HIV

d)

Kissing always spreads HIV

16.

From the list, which activity is a known transmission route for HIV?

a)

Mosquito bites outdoors

b)

Unprotected sexual intercourse

c)

Sharing office computers

d)

Eating meals together

17.

Evaluate this claim: ‘HIV spreads through mosquito bites.’ Choose the best response.

a)

Correct; mosquitoes become reservoirs for HIV

b)

Partially correct; only certain mosquitoes transmit

c)

Correct; mosquitoes inject HIV when biting

d)

Incorrect; mosquitoes do not transmit HIV

18.

Which route in the chart is least common among the labeled categories?

a)

Injection drug use at around 1.8%

b)

Blood products at around 1.9%

c)

Unidentified routes at around 5.6%

d)

Perinatal transmission at around 4.3%

19.

Choose the best public health recommendation based on the data.

a)

Ban shared office equipment nationwide

b)

Prioritize sexual risk reduction strategies

c)

Discourage cohabitation in the same household

d)

Focus mainly on mosquito control programs

20.

Which everyday behavior listed is safe and does not transmit HIV?

a)

Living together in the same house

b)

Sharing contaminated needles

c)

Unprotected sexual intercourse

d)

Transfusion of unscreened blood

21.

During the window period after HIV infection, which statement is most accurate for clinical testing and transmission risk?

a)

Antibodies not developed, tests may be negative

b)

Virus cleared, tests show permanent negative

c)

Antibodies present, person cannot infect others

d)

Antibodies are fully developed, tests show positive

22.

Typical time it may take for an untreated HIV-positive person to progress to AIDS is best described as:

a)

About two to four months

b)

Approximately eight to ten years

c)

Roughly one to two years

d)

Nearly twenty to thirty years

23.

Which feature of early HIV infection complicates prevention efforts in communities?

a)

Symptoms only gastrointestinal

b)

Symptoms always severe and unique

c)

Symptoms absent or non-specific

d)

Immediate exclusive symptoms appear

24.

Identify the age group most highlighted as heavily affected by HIV/AIDS in terms of productivity loss.

a)

Adults aged 15–49 years

b)

Children aged 0–14 years

c)

Adolescents aged 10–19 years

d)

Older adults 65+ years

25.

Which statement best explains why HIV/AIDS has a socio-economic impact beyond health?

a)

Always prevents education attendance

b)

Targets the most productive workforce

c)

Affects mainly retirees and infants

d)

Causes instant mortality in all cases

26.

What prevention challenge arises from cultural attitudes toward discussing sexual issues?

a)

Openness increases risk behaviors

b)

Stigma completely disappears

c)

Taboo hinders education efforts

d)

Mandatory testing becomes universal

27.

Which reason contributes to difficulty in estimating the exact magnitude of HIV in a population?

a)

Symptoms uniquely identify all cases

b)

Window period yields false negatives

c)

All infections are promptly reported

d)

Perfectly accurate tests exist immediately

28.

Select the most accurate statement about HIV prevention potential.

a)

Infections are inevitable and unstoppable

b)

Infections can be reduced through measures

c)

Prevention works only for children

d)

Only vaccines can prevent infections

29.

Which statement best describes how antiretroviral drugs act against HIV?

a)

They neutralize HIV by boosting antibodies only

b)

They block stages of the viral life cycle

c)

They stimulate HIV to replicate more rapidly

d)

They directly kill all circulating virus particles

30.

Why is antiretroviral therapy considered essential for people living with HIV?

a)

It works only when taken during acute infection

b)

It cures HIV completely in most patients

c)

It improves longevity and prevents opportunistic infections

d)

It replaces the need for medical monitoring entirely

31.

Which practice aligns with current guidance for effective ART?

a)

Use a single drug continuously without changes

b)

Combine recommended drugs as a regimen

c)

Stop therapy once symptoms disappear

d)

Rotate drugs monthly to avoid resistance

32.

Which statement accurately reflects ART effectiveness versus cure?

a)

ART only helps when paired with antibiotics

b)

ART controls HIV effectively but is not a cure

c)

ART is ineffective for long-term viral control

d)

ART cures HIV and eliminates the virus

33.

A patient asks what happens to HIV replication when on ART. What is the most accurate response?

a)

Replication shifts to non-infectious viral particles

b)

Replication continues unchanged despite therapy

c)

Replication increases to trigger immune memory

d)

Replication stops because viral stages are blocked

34.

Which statement best explains why many people living with HIV may need increased calorie intake?

a)

Calories are less absorbed in healthy intestines

b)

Antiretroviral drugs eliminate energy needs

c)

HIV reduces hunger signals permanently

d)

Immune response increases energy expenditure

35.

A patient with advanced HIV presents underweight with recurrent infections. Which dietary adjustment is most appropriate?

a)

Increase protein and extra calories

b)

Eliminate carbohydrates completely

c)

Restrict fats and proteins severely

d)

Switch to low-calorie liquid diets

36.

Which nutrient primarily builds muscle and supports immune function?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Vitamins

d)

Water

37.

Which pair of nutrients mainly provides energy for daily activities?

a)

Protein and minerals

b)

Water and vitamins

c)

Vitamins and minerals

d)

Carbohydrates and fats

38.

Select the best description of a healthy diet for PLHIV.

a)

Exclusive use of supplements without meals

b)

Very low calories to prevent weight gain

c)

High sugar intake to boost quick energy

d)

Adequate essential nutrients and varied food groups

39.

Which practice is most critical to reduce infection risk during food preparation for immunosuppressed patients?

a)

Maintain strict hygiene and food safety

b)

Prefer raw foods for maximal nutrients

c)

Share utensils with family members

d)

Skip handwashing before cooking

40.

Why might nutrition be especially important during HIV treatment that causes diarrhea and lipid abnormalities?

a)

Prevents all side effects from medications

b)

Supports strength, energy, and immune health

c)

Replaces the need for antiretroviral drugs

d)

Allows indefinite fasting without harm

41.

Which nutrient primarily regulates body processes and contributes to tissue formation along with minerals?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Fats

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

42.

Which statement best describes a key nutritional impact of HIV on the body?

a)

Reduced susceptibility to infections

b)

Enhanced lean tissue development

c)

Disruption of normal metabolism

d)

Improved nutrient absorption efficiency

43.

Which illness is commonly associated with the nutritional impacts of HIV?

a)

Gallstones

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Anorexia

d)

Hypertension

44.

An active non-HIV-infected adult typically requires approximately how many kilocalories per day?

a)

1500 kcal/day

b)

2070 kcal/day

c)

2600 kcal/day

d)

3200 kcal/day

45.

Compared with non-infected adults, HIV-infected adults generally need how much more energy per day?

a)

30 to 35 percent more

b)

20 to 25 percent more

c)

10 to 15 percent more

d)

5 to 8 percent more

46.

For a non-HIV-infected adult, typical daily protein needs are closest to which values?

a)

35 g for men, 30 g for women

b)

57 g for men, 48 g for women

c)

75 g for men, 60 g for women

d)

90 g for men, 70 g for women

47.

HIV-infected adults often require approximately what increase in daily protein compared with non-infected adults?

a)

50 to 100 percent more

b)

10 to 25 percent more

c)

120 to 150 percent more

d)

30 to 40 percent more

48.

Which outcome is part of the malnutrition pathway linked with HIV?

a)

Muscle wasting and thinness

b)

Improved appetite control

c)

Increased hemoglobin levels

d)

Rapid lean mass gain

49.

Which strategy best increases total daily calories for someone living with HIV?

a)

Reducing starches and sugars

b)

Adding extra fat and carbohydrates

c)

Substituting water for milk

d)

Eliminating oils and dressings

50.

Which fat addition is an appropriate way to raise meal energy density?

a)

Plain rice without sauces

b)

Skim milk only, no oils

c)

Butter, sour cream, peanut butter

d)

Only steamed vegetables

51.

Which list contains carbohydrate-rich starch sources suitable for adding calories?

a)

Walnuts, almonds, pistachios

b)

Breads, biscuits, crackers

c)

Lettuce, cucumbers, peppers

d)

Chicken, fish, eggs

52.

Which foods primarily provide simple sugars to increase energy intake?

a)

Broccoli and kale

b)

Fresh or dried fruits

c)

Lean meats and poultry

d)

Hard cheeses only

53.

What proportion of daily calories from fat is recommended to support energy needs in PLHIV?

a)

About 60 percent

b)

About 30 percent

c)

About 45 percent

d)

About 15 percent

54.

Which guidance on fat quality aligns with recommendations for PLHIV?

a)

Choose mostly saturated fats daily

b)

Use trans fats to increase energy

c)

Emphasize monounsaturated fats like olive oil

d)

Avoid all dietary fats entirely

55.

For PLHIV with diabetes or insulin resistance, where should most carbohydrates come from?

a)

Only high-fat dairy products

b)

Sugary beverages and syrups

c)

Refined breads and crackers

d)

Vegetables as primary carbohydrate sources

56.

Which daily protein intake best matches guidance for PLHIV males?

a)

100 to 150 grams per day

b)

70 to 90 grams per day

c)

160 to 200 grams per day

d)

40 to 70 grams per day

57.

Which statement reflects the role of vitamins and minerals for PLHIV?

a)

They replace the need for dietary protein

b)

They should be avoided during infections

c)

They help repair tissue and support immunity

d)

They are unnecessary if calories are high

58.

Which statement best describes why drinking enough liquids is important for people living with HIV (PLHIV)?

a)

Liquids replace all missing calories in meals

b)

Water eliminates the need for micronutrient intake

c)

Fluids transport nutrients throughout the body

d)

Drinks prevent all medication side effects

59.

Which benefit is most directly linked to increasing water intake for PLHIV?

a)

Helps flush out used medicines

b)

Ensures complete vitamin absorption

c)

Guarantees normal blood pressure

d)

Stops viral replication entirely

60.

Which beverage should be avoided to prevent dehydration risk due to caffeine?

a)

Herbal water infusions

b)

Plain warm water

c)

Colas and coffee

d)

Diluted fruit juice

61.

A patient aims to begin and end each day supporting hydration. Which simple routine aligns with guidance?

a)

Drink a glass of water

b)

Take a multivitamin pill

c)

Measure body weight daily

d)

Eat citrus fruit slices

62.

Which vitamin is noted for protecting the body from infection and aiding recovery?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin E

63.

Which set lists common food sources of vitamin A and beta-carotene?

a)

Fortified milk and fatty fish

b)

Citrus fruits and tomatoes

c)

Whole grains and legumes

d)

Liver, eggs, dark green and orange produce

64.

For PLHIV, which supplement caution is specifically mentioned for iron?

a)

Prefer doses above 100 mg routinely

b)

Limit to 45 mg per day unless advised

c)

Combine with caffeine-containing drinks

d)

Avoid any daily intake entirely

65.

Which nutrient is highlighted as important for developing and maintaining healthy bones and teeth?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Selenium

c)

Folate

d)

Zinc

66.

Which combination best represents the BRAT diet recommended during nausea or diarrhea?

a)

Bread, Ramen, Apricots, Tea

b)

Beans, Radishes, Artichokes, Tofu

c)

Broccoli, Raisins, Avocado, Turkey

d)

Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, Toast

67.

When managing nausea, which timing strategy with liquids is advised?

a)

Avoid liquids during meals

b)

Drink liquids only after dinner

c)

Sip liquids continuously all day

d)

Increase liquids before every meal

68.

Which food choice is most appropriate for mouth and swallowing problems?

a)

Spicy curry and hot tea

b)

Citrus salad with grapefruit

c)

Raw carrots and nuts

d)

Mashed potatoes and yogurt

69.

Which beverage approach helps manage diarrhea while avoiding irritants?

a)

Use whole milk for fluid replacement

b)

Choose very hot caffeinated beverages

c)

Hydrate with water; limit sugary sodas

d)

Drink energy drinks throughout day

70.

Which option lists foods to avoid to reduce nausea symptoms?

a)

Fresh herbs, mild spices, leafy greens

b)

Fatty, very sweet, spicy, strong-odor foods

c)

Lean proteins, whole grains, gentle fruits

d)

High-fiber, bland, soft, low-sugar foods

71.

Plan a morning routine to minimize nausea upon waking. Which choice aligns with guidance?

a)

Have spicy oatmeal immediately

b)

Skip food until mid-morning

c)

Eat a small cracker before getting up

d)

Drink a large smoothie in bed

72.

A patient with mouth pain needs a snack. Which option best fits recommended textures and temperatures?

a)

Room-temperature canned peaches

b)

Piping-hot tomato soup

c)

Crunchy granola with almonds

d)

Cold orange slices

73.

Which statement best describes the role of nutrition for people living with HIV (PLHIV)?

a)

It eliminates all infection risks permanently

b)

It mainly affects taste preferences and cravings

c)

It supports body strength and immune function

d)

It replaces prescribed antiretroviral medications

74.

A PLHIV who is underweight or chronically ill should prioritize which dietary approach?

a)

High-protein, high-calorie diet

b)

Low-protein, low-calorie meals

c)

Zero-fat, zero-sugar regimen

d)

Intermittent fasting most days

75.

Which action aligns with safe food practices for PLHIV?

a)

Keeping kitchen clean and washing foods

b)

Rinsing hands briefly without soap

c)

Storing cooked meat at room temperature

d)

Using the same board for raw and cooked

76.

A PLHIV experiencing vomiting or diarrhea should adjust hydration how?

a)

Maintain usual fluid intake

b)

Increase liquids more than usual

c)

Reduce fluids to avoid nausea

d)

Avoid liquids and sip only broth

77.

Before starting vitamin or mineral supplements, what is the recommended step for PLHIV?

a)

Begin immediately if friends suggest

b)

Check with your Doctor first

c)

Only use herbal alternatives

d)

Stop all current medications