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nutrition exam three

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An example of a bariatric surgical procedure used for treating severely or morbidly obese individuals is called

a)

gastric bypass.

b)

intestinal resection.

c)

laparoscopic liposuction.

d)

colonoscopy.

2.

When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from

a)

fat, water, and glycogen.

b)

water, muscle tissue, and bone.

c)

water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.

d)

fat, water, and muscle tissue.

3.

The method for determining energy expenditure that involves the measurement of heat given off by the body during a select period of time in an insulated chamber is called

a)

direct calorimetry.

b)

indirect calorimetry.

c)

thermocalorimetry.

d)

bomb calorimetry.

4.

Petros is getting his energy expenditure measured by direct calorimetry. The 1 liter of water surrounding the chamber has an initial reading of 15 degrees Celsius. The final reading is 2015 degrees Celsius. How many calories did he expend?

a)

1000

b)

1500

c)

2000

d)

2500

5.

_____ is a spot reducing procedure that involves inserting a thin tube into an incision that allows access to the fat tissue. The fat cells are then suctioned out through the tube and discarded.

a)

Botox injections

b)

Gastric plication

c)

Liposuction

d)

Cryolipolysis

6.

Bill consumes 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from the thermic effect of food?

a)

200 to 375 kcal

b)

375 to 750 kcal

c)

750 to 1500 kcal

d)

1500 to 2500 kcal

7.

The energy expended to digest, absorb, and further process the nutrients in food is called the ______ of food. This equals approximately 8% to 15% of energy intake.

a)

transformation

b)

thermic effect

c)

metabolism

d)

breakdown

8.

Samantha has struggled with being overweight for years but is generally in good health. She recently interviewed for a part-time position at the campus recreation center. Although her qualifications met the application criteria, she later heard that her application was not considered for the position due to her appearance. This is an example of

a)

obesity obsession.

b)

weight bias.

c)

fair hiring procedures.

d)

phenotype abuse.

9.

Farah wishes to lose 5 pounds before her vacation in approximately 5 weeks. Her average consumption is 2100 kcal per day. Assuming her physical activity levels remain unchanged, she should reduce her energy intake to ______ kcal per day.

a)

1800 to 1900

b)

1600 to 1700

c)

1400 to 1500

d)

1200 to 1300

10.

The body's set point has been suggested to be

a)

a weight the body attempts to maintain closely.

b)

one's desirable and most healthy body weight.

c)

one's minimum body weight.

d)

the weight that is reached and maintained during mid-life.

11.

Bob is a 34-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds and is a long-distance cycler. He is engaged in vigorous activity. Based on calorie estimates from the Dietary Guidelines, Bob needs approximately _______ kcal per day.

a)

2000

b)

2600

c)

3000

d)

3200

12.

A very-low-calorie diet (VLCD), also known as protein-sparing modified fast, allows a person ________ kcal per day, often in liquid form.

a)

400 to 800

b)

900 to 1200

c)

1500 to 1800

d)

2000 to 2400

13.

Almost _____% of adults in the United States are overweight or have obesity.

a)

10

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

14.

A good weight-loss program should

a)

restrict food intake to less than 1200 kcal per day.

b)

include meal replacement shakes or bars.

c)

adapt to personal and cultural preferences.

d)

include a weight-loss goal of 3 to 5 pounds per week.

15.

Changing one's frame of mind related to weight control and nutrition is called

a)

stimulus control.

b)

self-monitoring.

c)

chain-breaking.

d)

cognitive restructuring.

16.

Of the most common methods of estimating body composition, which is the most accurate?

a)

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry

b)

Skinfold measures

c)

Air displacement plethysmography

d)

Bioelectrical impedance analysis

17.

The Supplement Facts label on dietary supplements resembles the ______ and is required on all dietary supplements.

a)

Nutrition Facts label on foods

b)

Drug Facts label on drugs

c)

Cosmetic Facts label on cosmetics

d)

Prescription Facts label on medications

18.

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for wild Alaskan salmon. How much vitamin D is in one serving (3 ounces) of cooked salmon?

a)

7 micrograms

b)

7 milligrams

c)

7 grams

d)

7 milliliters

19.

Which of the following is true about the regulation of the production and sale of vitamin and mineral supplements?

a)

There is no federal legislation regulating supplements.

b)

The FDA does not regulate all vitamin and mineral supplements closely.

c)

Americans can rest assured that the federal government will protect them from vitamin and mineral supplement overuse.

d)

Supplement companies are free to market their products with invalid and illegal claims.

20.

Replacing animal fats with plant oils in the diet would not only cut saturated fat intake, but would also increase

a)

vitamin A intake.

b)

vitamin C intake.

c)

vitamin E intake.

d)

selenium intake.

21.

What disease is caused by a thiamin deficiency?

a)

Pellagra

b)

Scurvy

c)

Kwashiorkor

d)

Beriberi

22.

Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of

a)

riboflavin.

b)

choline.

c)

chromium.

d)

iodide.

23.

Vitamin C intake over 2 grams per day may cause

a)

diarrhea.

b)

liver damage.

c)

beriberi.

d)

rebound scurvy.

24.

Which of the following is most likely to result in vitamin toxicity if consumed daily over a long period of time?

a)

Vitamin A supplements

b)

B-vitamin complex

c)

Fortified breakfast cereals

d)

Spinach, kale, and other greens

25.

Which of the following is an antioxidant?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B-6

c)

Biotin

d)

Thiamin

26.

A disease that involves fat malabsorption could lead to

a)

osteomalacia.

b)

scurvy.

c)

pellagra.

d)

beriberi.

27.

Which of the following vitamins serves as an antioxidant in cell membranes?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Niacin

d)

Vitamin E

28.

Which of the following is true about the absorption, transport, and storage of fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

They enter the bloodstream directly from the small intestine.

b)

Fat in the digestive contents is not important for their absorption.

c)

Excessive intakes are readily excreted via the kidneys.

d)

They are stored in the liver and fatty tissue.

29.

Most water-soluble vitamins are rapidly excreted from the body when consumed in excess. However, ______ is an example of a water-soluble vitamin that can accumulate to toxic levels in the liver.

a)

vitamin B-6

b)

thiamin

c)

riboflavin

d)

vitamin C

30.

The form of folate found in supplements and enriched cereal is

a)

folate.

b)

folic acid.

c)

folacin.

d)

fluoric acid.

31.

The bioavailability of carotenoids is affected by

a)

cooking.

b)

consumption with meat products.

c)

soil mineral content.

d)

exposure to acid.

32.

B vitamins

a)

regulate mineral absorption.

b)

serve as coenzymes in metabolic reactions.

c)

are very stable during food processing.

d)

are stored in adipose tissue.

33.

Rich sources of pantothenic acid are

a)

orange juice and soymilk.

b)

blueberries and apples.

c)

white bread and pastries.

d)

sunflower seeds, mushrooms, peanuts, and eggs.

34.

Aldosterone signals the kidneys to conserve

a)

sodium.

b)

potassium.

c)

chloride.

d)

phosphate.

35.

Which would you expect to provide the largest amount of calcium?

a)

1 medium egg

b)

1 slice of bread

c)

1 ounce of cheese

d)

1 medium apple

36.

Which government agency regulates and monitors the safety of bottled water?

a)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

b)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

All of these choices are correct.

37.

The amount of iron in the body is mostly regulated by

a)

excretion in the urine.

b)

absorption in the small intestine.

c)

synthesis in the skin.

d)

metabolism in the liver.

38.

Which of the following are functions of calcium?

a)

Growth, development, and maintenance of bones

b)

Appetite regulation

c)

Homocysteine metabolism

d)

Transport of oxygen through the blood

39.

The most bioavailable sources of calcium are

a)

vegetables.

b)

protein foods.

c)

milk and other dairy products.

d)

grains.

40.

The primary site of micronutrient absorption is the

a)

small intestine.

b)

liver.

c)

stomach.

d)

large intestine.

41.

Which of the following statements is true about iron?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia is found most commonly among young children, adolescents, and menstruating women.

b)

Approximately 65% of dietary iron is absorbed.

c)

An individual with iron deficiency absorbs less iron than a person with good iron status.

d)

Excess dietary iron is excreted readily via the kidneys.

42.

The Adequate Intake (AI) for sodium for adults is ______ milligrams per day.

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

2000

43.

Exceeding the UL for phosphorus can lead to

a)

mineralization of soft tissues, such as blood vessels and organs.

b)

excessive bone growth.

c)

blood clots.

d)

All of these choices are correct.

44.

Calcium absorption is increased by

a)

high caffeine intake and large intakes of phytic acid.

b)

foods that contain vitamin D and lactose.

c)

foods high in oxalates, such as spinach and rhubarb.

d)

tannins in tea and some legumes.

45.

About ______ of adults are sodium sensitive.

a)

10% to 15%

b)

25% to 30%

c)

45% to 50%

d)

70% to 75%

46.

Which of the following individuals is most likely to need a calcium supplement?

a)

A 14-year-old female with a milk allergy

b)

A 30-year-old male who follows a lactoovovegetarian diet

c)

A 4-year-old female who refuses to eat vegetables

d)

A 45-year-old male with a sedentary desk job

47.

What is magnesium's primary function?

a)

It transports calcium in the blood.

b)

It is important in hemoglobin synthesis.

c)

It maintains mucus production in the digestive tract.

d)

It is important for nerve and heart function.

48.

Active transport of ______ from the lumen of the intestine into the cells lining the intestine facilitates absorption of water from the gastrointestinal tract.

a)

sodium

b)

glucose

c)

amino acids

d)

phosphorus

49.

Stephen's blood pressure is 135/88, and he wishes to follow the principles of the DASH diet. For most Americans, this means increasing the intake of

a)

fruits and vegetables.

b)

whole milk.

c)

protein.

d)

enriched grain products.

50.

The only mineral that is required to be added to enriched grain products in the United States is

a)

iron.

b)

zinc.

c)

iodine.

d)

potassium.

51.

Millie's prepregnancy BMI is 18. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy.

a)

11 to 20

b)

15 to 25

c)

25 to 35

d)

28 to 40

52.

Women who experience infertility related to high levels of testosterone and insulin may have a condition known as

a)

polycystic ovary syndrome.

b)

gestational hypertension.

c)

preeclampsia.

d)

gestational diabetes mellitus.

53.

The organ that nourishes the fetus in the mother's womb is called the

a)

ovum.

b)

umbilicus.

c)

placenta.

d)

embryo.

54.

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends all infants be given ______ of vitamin D per day until they are consuming that much from food.

a)

5 micrograms

b)

10 micrograms

c)

15 micrograms

d)

20 micrograms

55.

To reduce oxidative damage to her eggs, a woman should consume

a)

brightly colored fruits and vegetables.

b)

beta-carotene supplements.

c)

zinc supplements.

d)

3 servings per day of dairy foods.

56.

The most nutrient-dense and bioavailable sources of calcium for a pregnant woman include

a)

citrus fruits.

b)

red, yellow, and orange vegetables.

c)

legumes.

d)

low-fat milk and cheese.

57.

The RDA for carbohydrates increases from 130 grams per day to 175 grams per day during pregnancy, primarily to prevent

a)

ketosis.

b)

gestational diabetes mellitus.

c)

hypoglycemia.

d)

preeclampsia.

58.

The U.S. Public Health Service and the March of Dimes recommend that all women of childbearing age should take a daily multivitamin and mineral supplement that contains

a)

400 micrograms of folic acid.

b)

15 milligrams of iron.

c)

500 milligrams of calcium.

d)

40 milligrams of zinc.

59.

An infant born at 38 weeks of gestation and weighing 5 pounds is

a)

LBW and SGA.

b)

preterm and LBW.

c)

preterm and SGA.

d)

LBW.

60.

Low levels of body fat may decrease ______ fertility.

a)

both male and female

b)

female

c)

male

d)

neither male nor female

61.

For a woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 22, total pregnancy weight gain should fall within the range of ______ pounds.

a)

11 to 20

b)

15 to 25

c)

25 to 35

d)

28 to 40

62.

Preterm infants

a)

have minimal nutritional problems.

b)

may have problems sucking and swallowing.

c)

will almost always die.

d)

are born with adequate mineral and fat stores.

63.

Advantages of breastfeeding include

a)

fewer ear infections for the infant.

b)

reduced risk of celiac disease for the infant.

c)

reduced risk of diarrheal diseases for the infant.

d)

All of these are advantages of breastfeeding.

64.

Excessive intake of ______ has been linked to birth defects.

a)

vitamin A

b)

iron

c)

folate

d)

vitamin B-12

65.

Foodborne illness at any stage of the life span can be dangerous. However, infection with the foodborne pathogen ______ can be especially dangerous during pregnancy because this pathogen can cross the placenta and harm the developing fetus.

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

66.

Women suffering from chronic alcoholism produce children with a recognizable pattern of malformations called

a)

chronic cirrhosis.

b)

alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders.

c)

cystic fibrosis.

d)

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

67.

According to current growth charts, an infant can be expected to ______ his or her birth weight by 1 year of age.

a)

double

b)

triple

c)

quadruple

68.

Most formula products for infants contain

a)

lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils.

b)

soy protein, glucose, and vegetable oils.

c)

fructose and heat-treated cow's milk protein.

d)

sucrose, whey protein, and fish oils.

69.

Should young children be allowed to snack between meals?

a)

Yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs, but can only eat a small amount of food at one time.

b)

No, because it will decrease their appetite and limit food intake at mealtimes.

c)

No, because snacking contributes to high rates of childhood obesity.

d)

Yes, because children need more sugar and salt than adults.

70.

Freddie is 8 months old and weighs 9 kilograms. He needs about ______ grams of protein per day.

a)

11

b)

8

c)

15

d)

21

71.

Most of the calories from human milk come from

a)

fat.

b)

carbohydrates.

c)

protein.

72.

Which of the following foods are among the eight most common food allergens?

a)

Corn, sugar, and honey

b)

Milk, eggs, and wheat

c)

Oranges, beef, and corn

d)

Strawberries, mangoes, and avocados

73.

Which of the following is a reliable indicator of generally good nutrition status in young children?

a)

The presence of subcutaneous fat

b)

Consumption of foods from several groups

c)

Regular gains in height and weight

d)

The child's interest in a variety of foods

74.

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Dietary Guidelines, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's dietary pattern is

a)

1 month of age.

b)

4 months of age.

c)

6 months of age.

d)

8 months of age.

75.

Infants require approximately ______ of fluid per day.

a)

3 cups

b)

1 pint

c)

1 quart

d)

8 cups

76.

Eliza is a 6-year-old girl whose BMI-for-age falls at the 75th percentile on the BMI-for-age growth chart. Eliza's weight status is described as

a)

underweight.

b)

healthy weight.

c)

overweight.

d)

obese.

77.

Which of the following practices may help to reduce lead exposure?

a)

Allowing cold water to run from the tap for 2 to 3 minutes after a long period of inactivity

b)

Consuming a variety of whole grains, lean meats, and low-fat dairy products

c)

Ensuring adequate iron and calcium intakes

d)

All of these strategies may help to reduce lead exposure.

78.

Which of the following terms refers to an eating disorder that is primarily diagnosed during childhood and involves a failure to meet energy and nutrient needs due to extremely selective eating patterns, resulting in significant weight loss, nutritional deficiencies, and/or reliance on tube or intravenous feeding?

a)

Food neophobia

b)

Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder

c)

Autism spectrum disorder

d)

Rumination disorder

79.

For infants (up to 12 months of age), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends

a)

no fruit juice.

b)

limiting fruit juice consumption to 4 fluid ounces per day.