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Muscular System (1-20)

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which muscle type is under voluntary control?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

All muscle types

d)

Smooth

2.

What is the functional unit of muscle contraction?

a)

Myofibril

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Endomysium

d)

Sarcolemma

3.

What is the role of T-tubules?

a)

Store calcium

b)

Carry action potentials into the muscle fiber

c)

Produce ATP

d)

Bind actin and myosin

4.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores:

a)

Lipids

b)

Glucose

c)

Calcium

d)

Sodium

5.

The connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber is:

a)

Epimysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Sarcomere

6.

The connective tissue surrounding a fascicle is:

a)

Epimysium

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Endomysium

d)

Perimysium

7.

Which structure releases neurotransmitters to stimulate a muscle fiber?

a)

Axon terminal

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Myofibril

d)

Motor end plate

8.

The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Norepinephrine

9.

What appears striated under the microscope?

a)

Skeletal and cardiac muscle

b)

Cardiac only

c)

Smooth and skeletal

d)

Smooth muscle

10.

Cardiac muscle contains unique junctions called:

a)

Synaptic clefts

b)

Sarcomeres

c)

Intercalated discs

d)

Myelin sheaths

11.

Smooth muscle is located in:

a)

Bones

b)

Skin

c)

Heart

d)

Hollow organs

12.

What anchors the thin filaments in a sarcomere?

a)

H zone

b)

Z-line

c)

A-band

d)

M-line

13.

Thick filaments are primarily composed of:

a)

Troponin

b)

Titin

c)

Myosin

d)

Actin

14.

Which band contains both thin and thick filaments?

a)

H zone

b)

A band

c)

Z disc

d)

I band

15.

The NMJ synaptic cleft is:

a)

The gap between neuron and muscle fiber

b)

Where calcium is stored

c)

A part of the sarcomere

d)

The location of myosin heads

16.

Which muscle tissue is uninucleated and non-striated?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Aponeurotic

d)

Skeletal

17.

The epimysium surrounds:

a)

Each muscle fiber

b)

The entire muscle

c)

Only the tendon

d)

Each fascicle

18.

Which muscle type is branched?

a)

Connective

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

d)

Skeletal

19.

What ion triggers muscle contraction?

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Calcium

d)

Potassium

20.

The sliding filament mechanism describes:

a)

Calcium destroying ATP

b)

Myosin pulling actin over itself

c)

Actin and myosin shortening

d)

Sarcomere expanding

21.

What part of a neuron receives incoming signals?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Axon

c)

Myelin

d)

Cell body

22.

Which glial cell produces myelin in the CNS?

a)

Microglia

b)

Astrocyte

c)

Oligodendrocyte

d)

Schwann cell

23.

Schwann cells myelinate neurons in the:

a)

CNS

b)

Nowhere

c)

Both CNS and PNS

d)

PNS

24.

Astrocytes function to:

a)

Form myelin

b)

Form the blood-brain barrier

c)

Defend against pathogens

d)

Make CSF

25.

Microglia act as:

a)

Synapse builders

b)

Immune cells

c)

Motor neurons

d)

Sensory receptors

26.

Ependymal cells help produce:

a)

Bone

b)

CSF

c)

Blood

d)

Myelin

27.

A neuron that has one axon and multiple dendrites is classified as:

a)

Tripolar

b)

Multipolar

c)

Bipolar

d)

Unipolar

28.

Sensory neurons carry information:

a)

Only to muscles

b)

Away from the spinal cord

c)

Only to glands

d)

To the brain/spinal cord

29.

The connective tissue around each axon is:

a)

Perineurium

b)

Endoneurium

c)

Epineurium

d)

Neurilemma

30.

The epineurium surrounds:

a)

A fascicle

b)

An axon

c)

The entire nerve

d)

A neuron

31.

What part of the neuron sends signals away from the cell body?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites

c)

Terminal bulbs

d)

Soma

32.

Which neuron type is most common?

a)

Bipolar

b)

Tripolar

c)

Unipolar

d)

Multipolar

33.

The gap between myelin segments is called the:

a)

Synapse

b)

Myelin cleft

c)

Ranvier node

d)

Schwann space

34.

Motor neurons carry signals:

a)

Toward the CNS

b)

Only to the brain

c)

Toward muscles or glands

d)

Only to the spinal cord

35.

The synapse is:

a)

Where two neurons communicate

b)

A type of glial cell

c)

A muscle fiber

d)

A receptor on the skin

36.

Myelin increases:

a)

Synapse number

b)

Soma thickness

c)

Neuron size

d)

Speed of conduction

37.

The PNS includes:

a)

Nerves and ganglia

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brain

38.

Which is a functional classification?

a)

Unipolar

b)

Bipolar

c)

Sensory

d)

Multipolar

39.

Structural classification is based on:

a)

Cell body size

b)

Neurotransmitter type

c)

Number of processes

d)

Length of axon

40.

Which glial cell is phagocytic?

a)

Schwann cell

b)

Astrocyte

c)

Microglia

d)

Ependymal cell

41.

The largest part of the brain is the:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Hypothalamus

42.

The cerebellum is responsible for:

a)

Coordination and balance

b)

Heart rate

c)

Memory

d)

Speech

43.

The occipital lobe controls:

a)

Smell

b)

Hearing

c)

Taste

d)

Vision

44.

The temporal lobe is associated with:

a)

Reflexes

b)

Balance

c)

Hearing

d)

Touch

45.

The parietal lobe receives:

a)

Language processing

b)

Sensory input

c)

Visual signals

d)

Sound signals

46.

The frontal lobe is responsible for:

a)

Balance

b)

Vision

c)

Decision-making and motor control

d)

Smell

47.

The brainstem controls:

a)

Vision

b)

Voluntary movement

c)

Memory and speech

d)

Breathing and heart rate

48.

The spinal cord ends at approximately:

a)

S2

b)

T12

c)

L1–L2

d)

C7

49.

Which plexus gives rise to the phrenic nerve?

a)

Lumbar

b)

Sacral

c)

Brachial

d)

Cervical

50.

Which plexus gives rise to the sciatic nerve?

a)

Sacral

b)

Lumbar

c)

Brachial

d)

Cervical

51.

A spinal reflex is:

a)

Processed in the spinal cord

b)

Processed in the cerebrum

c)

Slow

d)

Voluntary

52.

The knee-jerk reflex is an example of a:

a)

Cranial reflex

b)

Hyperionic reflex

c)

Hormonal reflex

d)

Spinal reflex

53.

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Pituitary gland

54.

Damage to the cerebellum causes:

a)

Blindness

b)

Memory loss

c)

Loss of coordination

d)

Paralysis

55.

The primary motor cortex is located in the:

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

56.

The primary somatosensory cortex is in the:

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Brainstem

d)

Parietal lobe

57.

The midbrain, pons, and medulla make up the:

a)

Limbic system

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Cerebellum

58.

The dorsal root of a spinal nerve carries:

a)

Motor signals

b)

Mixed signals

c)

Reflex signals only

d)

Sensory signals

59.

The ventral root carries:

a)

Mixed signals

b)

Hormones

c)

Sensory signals

d)

Motor signals

60.

The thoracic spinal nerves are numbered:

a)

S1–S5

b)

T1–T12

c)

C1–C5

d)

L1–L5

61.

The structure responsible for sharp, color vision is the:

a)

Cornea

b)

Rod

c)

Cone

d)

Iris

62.

Rods function best in:

a)

Bright light

b)

Near vision only

c)

Dim light

d)

Color detection

63.

The retina contains:

a)

Tectorial membranes

b)

Semicircular canals

c)

Photoreceptors

d)

Ossicles

64.

Which structure focuses light onto the retina?

a)

Lens

b)

Optic nerve

c)

Iris

d)

Cornea

65.

The optic nerve carries signals to the:

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Pons

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Cerebellum

66.

The cochlea is responsible for:

a)

Balance

b)

Smell

c)

Hearing

d)

Taste

67.

The semicircular canals detect:

a)

Rotational movement

b)

Sound

c)

Pain

d)

Light

68.

20/20 vision means:

a)

Blindness

b)

Worse than normal

c)

Normal vision

d)

Better than normal

69.

20/40 vision means:

a)

You see better than average

b)

Perfect vision

c)

Legally blind

d)

You see at 20 ft what others see at 40 ft

70.

Myopia is caused by the image focusing:

a)

On the optic disc

b)

Behind the retina

c)

On the retina

d)

In front of the retina

71.

Hyperopia is caused by the image focusing:

a)

In front of the retina

b)

On the cornea

c)

Behind the retina

d)

On the retina

72.

The middle ear contains the:

a)

Cochlea

b)

Rods and cones

c)

Cornea

d)

Ossicles

73.

The inner ear contains the:

a)

Cochlea and semicircular canals

b)

Ossicles

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

Ear canal

74.

The iris controls the:

a)

Size of the pupil

b)

Movement of the eye

c)

Color perception

d)

Focus of the lens

75.

The Snellen chart is used to test:

a)

Hearing

b)

Vision sharpness

c)

Reflexes

d)

Balance

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