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neurophysio -2nd year mbbs

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 35-year-old woman is unable to feel the texture of a fabric or distinguish between two close points on her skin. Which pathway is most likely damaged?

a)

Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

b)

Ventral Spinothalamic Tract

c)

Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal System

d)

Anterior Corticospinal Tract

2.

Which of the following sensory receptors is responsible for detecting high-frequency vibration (30–800 Hz)?

a)

Meissner’s corpuscles

b)

Pacinian corpuscles

c)

Merkel’s discs

d)

Ruffini’s endings

3.

First-order neurons of the Dorsal Column System for the lower limbs (below T6) ascend in which of the following?

a)

Fasciculus Cuneatus

b)

Fasciculus Gracilis

c)

Dorsal Spinocerebellar Tract

d)

Lissauer’s Tract

4.

Where do the second-order neurons of the Neospinothalamic tract decussate?

a)

Lower Medulla

b)

Upper Medulla

c)

At the level of entry in the spinal cord (Anterior Commissure)

d)

Thalamus

5.

A patient presents with "Analgesia" but preserved touch sensation. This "dissociated sensory loss" is characteristic of a lesion in:

a)

The Dorsal Root Ganglion

b)

The Thalamic VPL nucleus

c)

The Central Canal (e.g., Syringomyelia)

d)

The Internal Capsule

6.

Which fiber type is responsible for "Fast-Sharp" pain, typically elicited by mechanical or thermal stimuli?

a)

Type C fibers

b)

Type A-beta fibers

c)

Type A-delta fibers

d)

Type B fibers

7.

The "Gate Control Theory" suggests that pain transmission is inhibited at the spinal cord level by the stimulation of:

a)

C fibers

b)

A-delta fibers

c)

A-beta fibers (Tactile)

d)

Pain-sensitive free nerve endings

8.

Which substance is considered the primary neurotransmitter for "Slow-Chronic" Type C pain fibers in the dorsal horn?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Substance P

c)

Glycine

d)

Acetylcholine

9.

Stimulation of which brain area is known to cause "Profound Analgesia" by activating the descending inhibitory system?

a)

Primary Somatosensory Cortex

b)

Periaqueductal Gray (PAG) area

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Basal Ganglia

10.

Referred pain from the heart is often felt in the left arm because:

a)

The heart and arm are supplied by the same peripheral nerve

b)

They share second-order neurons in the T1–T5 spinal segments

c)

The arm has a larger representation in the homunculus

d)

The heart has no pain receptors of its own

11.

Which of the following is an example of a "Phasic" receptor (rapidly adapting)?

a)

Muscle Spindle

b)

Golgi Tendon Organ

c)

Pacinian Corpuscle

d)

Baroreceptors

12.

The ability to identify an object by touch without visual input (Stereognosis) depends primarily on:

a)

Somatosensory Area I

b)

Somatosensory Area II

c)

Somatosensory Association Area (Brodmann 5, 7)

d)

Prefrontal Cortex

13.

Which Thalamic nucleus is the primary relay station for sensory information from the face?

a)

Ventral Posterolateral (VPL)

b)

Ventral Posteromedial (VPM)

c)

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus

d)

Medial Geniculate Nucleus

14.

Brown-Séquard Syndrome (hemisection of the cord) results in which of the following below the lesion?

a)

Ipsilateral loss of pain; Contralateral loss of vibration

b)

Ipsilateral loss of vibration; Contralateral loss of pain

c)

Bilateral loss of all sensation

d)

Ipsilateral loss of all sensation

15.

"Slow pain" is transmitted to the brain via which pathway?

a)

Neospinothalamic tract

b)

Paleospinothalamic tract

c)

Dorsal Columns

d)

Corticospinal tract

16.

The neurotransmitter released by the descending analgesic fibers of the raphe magnus nucleus is:

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

GABA

17.

Tic Douloureux is a condition characterized by lancinating pain in the distribution of:

a)

The Sciatic nerve

b)

The Trigeminal nerve

c)

The Vagus nerve

d)

The Brachial plexus

18.

Which receptor is specialized to detect skin stretch and deep pressure?

a)

Merkel’s disc

b)

Ruffini’s endings

c)

Meissner’s corpuscles

d)

Free nerve endings

19.

The "Sensory Homunculus" represents the body parts in the cortex. Which part has the largest representation?

a)

Trunk

b)

Legs

c)

Lips and Hands

d)

Shoulders

20.

Which chemical is a potent stimulator of pain receptors during tissue ischemia?

a)

Sodium ions

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Magnesium

d)

Glucose

21.

A patient shows spasticity, hyperreflexia, and a positive Babinski sign. This indicates a lesion in:

a)

The Lower Motor Neuron

b)

The Upper Motor Neuron

c)

The Cerebellum

d)

The Neuromuscular Junction

22.

Which spinal cord tract is responsible for controlling the fine, skilled movements of the fingers?

a)

Ventral Corticospinal Tract

b)

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

c)

Rubrospinal Tract

d)

Vestibulospinal Tract

23.

The "Muscle Spindle" detects which of the following?

a)

Muscle Tension

b)

Muscle Length and rate of change in length

c)

Joint angle

d)

Blood flow to the muscle

24.

Which motor neuron innervates the "Intrafusal fibers" of the muscle spindle?

a)

Alpha motor neuron

b)

Gamma motor neuron

c)

Beta motor neuron

d)

Delta motor neuron

25.

The Monosynaptic Stretch Reflex (e.g., Patellar reflex) involves which afferent nerve fiber?

a)

Type Ia

b)

Type Ib

c)

Type II

d)

Type C

26.

The Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) is responsible for which reflex?

a)

The Stretch Reflex

b)

The Inverse Stretch Reflex (Autogenic Inhibition)

c)

The Withdrawal Reflex

d)

The Crossed Extensor Reflex

27.

A lesion in the Basal Ganglia typically results in which of the following?

a)

Hypotonia and Ataxia

b)

Spastic paralysis

c)

Involuntary movements (Chorea, Athetosis)

d)

Loss of all reflexes

28.

Which part of the brain is responsible for the "Plan" and "Intent" of complex motor movements?

a)

Primary Motor Cortex

b)

Premotor Cortex

c)

Supplementary Motor Area

d)

Cerebellum

29.

Decerebrate rigidity (extension of all four limbs) occurs when there is a lesion:

a)

Above the Red Nucleus

b)

Between the Red Nucleus and Vestibular Nuclei

c)

In the Spinal Cord

d)

In the Cerebellum

30.

The "Direct Pathway" of the Basal Ganglia has what effect on the Thalamus?

a)

Inhibition

b)

Disinhibition (Excitation)

c)

No effect

d)

Permanent damage

31.

Parkinson's Disease is caused by the destruction of neurons in the:

a)

Caudate Nucleus

b)

Putamen

c)

Substantia Nigra pars compacta

d)

Subthalamic Nucleus

32.

Which of the following is a classic sign of Cerebellar disease?

a)

Resting Tremor

b)

Intention Tremor

c)

Lead-pipe rigidity

d)

Hemiballismus

33.

The "Withdrawal Reflex" (Flexor Reflex) is characterized by:

a)

Monosynaptic pathway

b)

Polysynaptic pathway and Divergence

c)

Inhibition of the ipsilateral flexors

d)

Excitation of the ipsilateral extensors

34.

The "Crossed Extensor Reflex" serves to:

a)

Speed up the withdrawal from pain

b)

Support the body weight when the opposite limb is withdrawn

c)

Maintain muscle tone during sleep

d)

Protect the tendons from rupture

35.

What is the function of "Renshaw Cells" in the spinal cord?

a)

To excite alpha motor neurons

b)

To provide lateral inhibition (Recurrent inhibition)

c)

To transmit pain signals

d)

To sense muscle stretch

36.

A lesion of the Subthalamic Nucleus results in:

a)

Parkinsonism

b)

Hemiballismus

c)

Huntington’s Chorea

d)

Ataxia

37.

The "Clasp-Knife" effect is a clinical feature of:

a)

Cerebellar Ataxia

b)

Lower Motor Neuron lesion

c)

Upper Motor Neuron lesion (Spasticity)

d)

Basal Ganglia disease

38.

Which tract is primarily involved in maintaining equilibrium and posture?

a)

Corticospinal

b)

Vestibulospinal

c)

Tectospinal

d)

Rubrospinal

39.

"Alpha-Gamma Co-activation" ensures that:

a)

The muscle spindle remains sensitive even when the muscle contracts

b)

The muscle relaxes instantly after a jump

c)

The Golgi Tendon organ is inhibited

d)

Fatigue is prevented

40.

Dysdiadochokinesia is the inability to:

a)

Speak clearly

b)

Perform rapid alternating movements

c)

Maintain balance with eyes closed

d)

Sense pain

41.

Tabes Dorsalis (Syphilis) specifically destroys the dorsal roots and dorsal columns. A patient with this would have:

a)

Loss of pain but normal balance

b)

Sensory Ataxia and Romberg's sign

c)

Spastic paralysis

d)

Loss of temperature only

42.

Which chemical is released by the "Damaged Tissue" to sensitize nociceptors (Hyperalgesia)?

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Epinephrine

43.

The "Internal Capsule" is a common site for strokes. A stroke here usually causes:

a)

Ipsilateral Hemiplegia

b)

Contralateral Hemiplegia

c)

Quadriplegia

d)

Monoplegia

44.

Which receptor is most sensitive to the "Rate of Change" of muscle length (Dynamic response)?

a)

Nuclear Chain fiber

b)

Nuclear Bag fiber

c)

Golgi Tendon Organ

d)

Ruffini ending

45.

"Huntington's Disease" is characterized by the loss of GABAergic neurons in the:

a)

Substantia Nigra

b)

Striatum (Caudate and Putamen)

c)

Red Nucleus

d)

Thalamus

46.

Broca’s Area is located in the:

a)

Posterior Temporal Lobe

b)

Frontal Lobe (Dominant Hemisphere)

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

47.

A "Positive Romberg Sign" (swaying when eyes are closed) indicates a deficit in:

a)

Cerebellar function

b)

Proprioception (Dorsal Columns)

c)

Visual system

d)

Vestibular system only

48.

Which fibers have the slowest conduction velocity?

a)

Type A-alpha

b)

Type A-gamma

c)

Type B

d)

Type C

49.

The "Primary Motor Cortex" corresponds to which Brodmann area?

a)

Area 3,1,2

b)

Area 4

c)

Area 6

d)

Area 17

50.

Spinal Shock, immediately following a traumatic cord injury, is characterized by:

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Spasticity

c)

Loss of all reflexes and hypotonia

d)

Increased blood pressure

51.

Which neurotransmitter is used by the Purkinje cells of the Cerebellum?

a)

Glutamate

b)

GABA

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Serotonin

52.

The "Pretectal area" is involved in which reflex?

a)

Stretch reflex

b)

Pupillary Light Reflex

c)

Withdrawal reflex

d)

Corneal reflex

53.

"Athetosis" is characterized by:

a)

Violent flailing of limbs

b)

Continuous, slow, writhing movements

c)

Rhythmic tremors at rest

d)

Loss of coordination

54.

Which area of the cerebellum is mainly concerned with Equilibrium?

a)

Spinocerebellum

b)

Cerebrocerebellum

c)

Vestibulocerebellum (Flocculonodular lobe)

d)

Vermis

55.

In Myasthenia Gravis, the clinical defect is at the:

a)

Nerve Axon

b)

Muscle Spindle

c)

Post-synaptic Acetylcholine Receptors

d)

Spinal Cord

56.

A patient cannot feel pain on the left side of the body below the neck. Where is the most likely lesion?

a)

Left Spinal Cord (Lateral Spinothalamic)

b)

Right Spinal Cord (Lateral Spinothalamic)

c)

Left Dorsal Columns

d)

Right Thalamus

57.

The "Phantom Limb" phenomenon is thought to be due to:

a)

Regeneration of nerves in the stump

b)

Cortical reorganization in the somatosensory cortex

c)

Excessive use of the other limb

d)

Psychosis

58.

Which of the following describes "Clonus"?

a)

A single muscle twitch

b)

Rhythmic, oscillating muscle contractions due to hyperactive stretch reflexes

c)

Constant muscle contraction

d)

Flaccid paralysis

59.

The "Middle Ear" muscles (Stapedius) reflex is a motor response to:

a)

Acceleration

b)

Pain

c)

Loud Noise

d)

Light

60.

Which receptor is found in the "Glabrous" (hairless) skin only?

a)

Hair end-organ

b)

Meissner's Corpuscle

c)

Ruffini Ending

d)

Free Nerve Ending

61.

What is the primary function of the "Ponto-Reticulospinal Tract"?

a)

Excite Antigravity muscles

b)

Inhibit Antigravity muscles

c)

Control finger movements

d)

Control eye movements

62.

"Past Pointing" is a sign of:

a)

Basal Ganglia lesion

b)

Cerebellar lesion

c)

UMN lesion

d)

LMN lesion

63.

The primary neurotransmitter for "Excitation" in the CNS motor pathways is:

a)

GABA

b)

Glycine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Dopamine

64.

A "Lower Motor Neuron" lesion is characterized by:

a)

Spasticity

b)

Fasciculations and Atrophy

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Babinski positive

65.

Which tract decussates in the "Pyramids"?

a)

Lateral Corticospinal

b)

Anterior Corticospinal

c)

Vestibulospinal

d)

Spinothalamic

66.

The "Supplementary Motor Area" is primarily involved in:

a)

Sensory perception

b)

Bilateral movements and complex posture

c)

Simple reflex arcs

d)

Taste sensation

67.

"Slow-adapting" receptors are also known as:

a)

Tonic receptors

b)

Phasic receptors

c)

Speed receptors

d)

Nociceptors

68.

The "Ventral Spinocerebellar Tract" enters the cerebellum via the:

a)

Inferior Cerebellar Peduncle

b)

Middle Cerebellar Peduncle

c)

Superior Cerebellar Peduncle

d)

Thalamus

69.

What is the effect of "Endorphins" on the brain?

a)

Increase pain perception

b)

Inhibit the release of Substance P

c)

Cause muscle contraction

d)

Increase heart rate

70.

Which of the following is an "Effector" in a reflex arc?

a)

Sensory neuron

b)

Muscle or Gland

c)

Interneuron

d)

Receptor

71.

"Allodynia" is defined as:

a)

Increased response to a painful stimulus

b)

Pain resulting from a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

c)

Absence of pain

d)

Chronic numbness

72.

The "Paleocerebellum" (Vermis and Intermediate zone) primarily controls:

a)

Motor planning

b)

Coordination of distal limb movements

c)

Muscle tone and posture of the axial body

d)

Speech

73.

In the Direct Pathway, the Globus Pallidus Internus is

a)

Excited

b)

Inhibited

c)

Bypassed

d)

Destroyed

74.

Damage to the Cuneate Nucleus results in loss of

a)

Pain from the legs

b)

Vibration sense from the arms

c)

Motor control of the face

d)

Temperature from the trunk

75.

Bradykinesia means

a)

Fast movements

b)

Slow movements

c)

No movements

d)

Tremor

76.

The Medial Lemniscus carries fibers to the

a)

Spinal cord

b)

Medulla

c)

Thalamus

d)

Cerebellum

77.

Nociceptors are generally

a)

Encapsulated receptors

b)

Specialized epithelial cells

c)

Free nerve endings

d)

Found only in the skin

78.

Decorticate posturing (flexion of arms) suggests a lesion

a)

In the Medulla

b)

Above the Midbrain (Red Nucleus intact)

c)

In the Spinal Cord

d)

In the Cerebellum

79.

The Autogenic Inhibition reflex is mediated by

a)

Muscle spindle

b)

Golgi Tendon Organ

c)

Joint receptors

d)

Skin receptors

80.

Which Brodmann area is the Somatosensory Association Area?

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

4

c)

5, 7

d)

17