wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

DAY2 FIRST YEAR — Chapters 13 and 16 Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient’s ECG shows a P-R interval of 0.28 seconds. There is a P wave for every QRS complex, and the rhythm is regular. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Second-degree heart block (Mobitz I)

b)

First-degree heart block

c)

Third-degree heart block

d)

Sinoatrial block

2.

A 65-year-old male presents with palpitations. The ECG shows an absent P wave and an irregularly irregular QRS rhythm. What is the most likely physiological consequence?

a)

Increased ventricular filling time

b)

Loss of the "atrial kick," reducing ventricular pumping efficiency by 20-30%

c)

Immediate ventricular fibrillation

d)

Sustained increase in cardiac output

3.

In a patient with "Circus Movements" leading to Ventricular Fibrillation, which of the following factors would most likely terminate the re-entry pathway?

a)

Shortening of the refractory period

b)

Increased pathway length (dilated heart)

c)

Decreased conduction velocity (Purkinje system damage)

d)

Lengthening of the refractory period (via drugs)

4.

A "Wenckebach phenomenon" (Mobitz Type I) is characterized by:

a)

Constant P-R interval with dropped QRS complexes

b)

Progressive lengthening of the P-R interval until a QRS is dropped

c)

Total dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes

d)

Heart rate below 40 bpm with normal P-R interval

5.

Which ECG finding is most characteristic of a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?

a)

Narrow QRS complex

b)

High-voltage, prolonged QRS complex with inverted T wave

c)

Shortened P-R interval

d)

Presence of an inverted P wave before the QRS

6.

Stokes-Adams syndrome occurs in patients with periodic transition to total AV block. What is the primary cause of syncope in these patients?

a)

Excessive vagal tone

b)

Delay in the onset of ventricular "escape" rhythm (Overdrive suppression)

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Acute myocardial infarction

7.

A patient has an atrial rate of 300 bpm and a ventricular rate of 125 bpm. The ECG shows a "sawtooth" pattern. This is:

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Atrial flutter

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Sinus tachycardia

8.

High-voltage QRS complexes in the limb leads (greater than 4 mV) are most commonly associated with:

a)

Pericardial effusion

b)

Pulmonary emphysema

c)

Hypertrophy of the ventricles

d)

Old myocardial infarction

9.

Which of the following describes the "Vasomotion" observed in capillaries?

a)

Continuous flow regulated by heart rate

b)

Intermittent flow due to contraction/relaxation of precapillary sphincters

c)

Flow regulated strictly by the sympathetic nervous system

d)

Retrograde flow during diastole

10.

According to Starling forces, if the Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure (Pc) is 30 mmHg, Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure (πp) is 28 mmHg, and Interstitial Hydrostatic Pressure (Pif) is -3 mmHg, what is the Net Filtration Pressure (assuming πif = 8 mmHg)?

a)

7 mmHg (Filtration)

b)

13 mmHg (Filtration)

c)

1 mmHg (Absorption)

d)

5 mmHg (Absorption)

11.

A patient has severe liver cirrhosis, leading to decreased albumin synthesis. Which Starling force is primarily affected?

a)

Increased Pc

b)

Decreased πp

c)

Increased πif

d)

Decreased Pif

12.

The "Gel" nature of the interstitium is primarily due to the presence of:

a)

Albumin

b)

Proteoglycan filaments

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Free fluid vesicles

13.

What is the primary function of the "Anchoring Filaments" in the lymphatic system?

a)

To propel lymph via active contraction

b)

To pull open the junctions of endothelial cells when tissue swells

c)

To filter bacteria from the lymph

d)

To prevent the backflow of lymph

14.

Which factor would decrease lymph flow?

a)

Elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure

c)

Significant compression of the tissue by an external bandage

d)

Increased interstitial fluid protein concentration

15.

The "Negative" interstitial fluid pressure in most loose subcutaneous tissues is primarily maintained by which factor?

a)

The pumping action of the lymphatic system

b)

High plasma oncotic pressure

c)

Low capillary pressure

d)

Presence of hyaluronan

16.

Edema occurs when the interstitial fluid pressure rises from its normal negative value to what level?

a)

A more negative value

b)

A positive value (above 0 mmHg)

c)

Exactly −1 mmHg

d)

−7 mmHg

17.

According to the "Metabolic Theory" of local blood flow control, which substance acts as a potent vasodilator?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Adenosine

c)

Glucose

d)

Calcium ions

18.

"Reactive Hyperemia" occurs under which circumstance?

a)

Metabolic rate increases significantly (e.g., exercise)

b)

Blood supply is blocked for a short period and then released

c)

Sympathetic tone is suddenly increased

d)

Arterial pressure rises significantly

19.

The "Myogenic Theory" of autoregulation suggests that blood vessels contract in response to which stimulus?

a)

Accumulation of CO2CO_2

b)

Sudden stretch of the vascular smooth muscle wall

c)

Release of Nitric Oxide (NO)

d)

Lack of nutrients

20.

Nitric Oxide (NO) is a powerful vasodilator released by endothelial cells. Its mechanism involves activation of which enzyme pathway?

a)

Adenylate cyclase

b)

Soluble guanylate cyclase (increasing cGMP)

c)

Phospholipase C

d)

Sodium–Potassium pump

21.

Angiogenesis (long-term blood flow control) is primarily stimulated by a deficiency of which substance in the tissues?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Magnesium

d)

Nitrogen

22.

Which of the following is a powerful vasoconstrictor released by damaged vascular endothelium to prevent hemorrhage?

a)

Bradykinin

b)

Endothelin

c)

Histamine

d)

Prostacyclin

23.

An increase in the concentration of which ion in local tissue causes profound vasodilation?

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Iron

24.

Bradykinin causes powerful vasodilation and also which additional effect?

a)

Decreases capillary permeability

b)

Increases capillary permeability

c)

Increases heart rate

d)

Stimulates the renin–angiotensin system

25.

The "Vasomotor Center" is located bilaterally in the reticular substance of which brain region(s)?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Pons and Medulla oblongata

c)

Thalamus

d)

Cerebellum

26.

Stimulation of the "Vasoconstrictor Area" of the vasomotor center leads to the release of which neurotransmitter at sympathetic nerve endings?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Dopamine

27.

The baroreceptors are most sensitive to pressure changes in which range?

a)

0–20 mmHg

b)

30–60 mmHg

c)

100–180 mmHg

d)

Above 250 mmHg

28.

When a person stands up suddenly from a lying position, the baroreceptor reflex causes which primary response?

a)

Peripheral vasodilation

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Sympathetic discharge to increase peripheral resistance

d)

Inhibition of the vasoconstrictor center

29.

The "Bainbridge Reflex" is initiated by stretch receptors in the atria and results in which change?

a)

Decreased heart rate to prevent overload

b)

Increased heart rate to pump out excess venous return

c)

Massive vasodilation

d)

Renal shutdown

30.

The "CNS Ischemic Response" is activated only when the arterial pressure falls below which level?

a)

100 mmHg

b)

80 mmHg

c)

60 mmHg (and is most powerful below 20 mmHg)

d)

120 mmHg

31.

Which reflex is responsible for the "Cushing Reaction" (increased blood pressure in response to increased intracranial pressure)?

a)

Baroreceptor reflex

b)

CNS Ischemic Response

c)

Chemoreceptor reflex

d)

Volume reflex

32.

Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies are primarily stimulated by which set of changes?

a)

Increased pH

b)

Decreased O2O_2 , increased CO2CO_2 , and increased H+H^+

c)

Low blood pressure only

d)

High glucose levels

33.

The "Pressure Natriuresis" mechanism refers to which process?

a)

Increased sodium intake causing high blood pressure

b)

Increased arterial pressure causing increased sodium excretion

c)

Kidney failure causing hypertension

d)

Renin secretion in response to high pressure

34.

In the "Infinite Gain" principle of the renal–body fluid control system, the arterial pressure always returns to which level?

a)

The equilibrium point where intake equals output

b)

120/80 mmHg regardless of intake

c)

The baroreceptor set point

d)

A higher level after any salt intake

35.

Renin is an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells in response to which stimulus?

a)

High sodium chloride at the macula densa

b)

Increased stretch of the afferent arteriole

c)

Decreased arterial pressure or sympathetic stimulation

d)

High plasma potassium

36.

Angiotensin II increases arterial pressure by two main mechanisms. One is vasoconstriction; what is the other?

a)

Direct inhibition of the heart

b)

Decreased renal excretion of salt and water

c)

Vasodilation of skeletal muscle beds

d)

Inhibition of aldosterone

37.

"One-Goldblatt Hypertension" is caused by which condition?

a)

Constriction of one renal artery with the other kidney normal

b)

Constriction of the renal artery of a single remaining kidney

c)

Bilateral adrenal tumor

d)

High salt intake in a normal person

38.

Which of the following is a characteristic of "Primary (Essential) Hypertension"?

a)

It is always caused by a single gene mutation

b)

It is often associated with obesity and a sedentary lifestyle

c)

Plasma renin levels are always extremely high

d)

It is usually cured by a single surgery

39.

Aldosterone primarily acts on which part of the nephron to increase sodium reabsorption?

a)

Proximal tubule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Cortical collecting tubules

d)

Glomerulus

40.

How long does it take for the Renin–Angiotensin system to become fully activated to adjust blood pressure?

a)

Seconds

b)

20 minutes to 1 hour

c)

1 week

d)

1 month

41.

A patient has a heart rate of 45 bpm and a permanent P–R interval of 0.32 s. During exercise, the heart rate fails to increase significantly. The most likely site of the lesion is:

a)

SA node

b)

AV node/Bundle of His

c)

Left bundle branch

d)

Purkinje fibers

42.

An ECG shows "Grouped Beating." The P–R interval gradually lengthens until a P-wave is not followed by a QRS. The next P–R interval is short. This is:

a)

Mobitz Type II

b)

Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach)

c)

Third-degree block

d)

Sinoatrial exit block

43.

During ventricular fibrillation, the main reason the heart cannot pump blood is:

a)

The ventricles are in a state of tetany (sustained contraction)

b)

There is no coordinated contraction, only "quivering"

c)

The valves are stuck open

d)

The atria are not contracting

44.

A patient with nephrotic syndrome has massive albuminuria. Which of the following is expected?

a)

Increased plasma oncotic pressure

b)

Decreased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

c)

Increased lymph flow and edema

d)

Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

45.

Which of the following would be the most effective physiological compensation for a chronic increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure?

a)

Decreased lymph flow

b)

Increased lymph flow and removal of interstitial proteins

c)

Constriction of the veins

d)

Increased plasma protein concentration

46.

The "Fahraeus–Lindqvist Effect" refers to:

a)

Increased viscosity in large vessels

b)

Decreased viscosity of blood in very small capillaries (<1.5 mm diameter)

c)

The role of platelets in clotting

d)

Autoregulation in the brain

47.

Skeletal muscle blood flow can increase up to 20-fold during exercise. The initial increase is due to:

a)

Sympathetic vasodilator fibers (in some species) and local metabolites

b)

Renin–angiotensin system

c)

Increased plasma volume

d)

Decreased heart rate

48.

A patient is given a drug that blocks the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II. What is the expected effect on the efferent arteriole of the kidney?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Vasodilation

c)

No change

d)

Thickening of the basement membrane

49.

In the "Auto-regulation" of blood flow, if the arterial pressure increases from 100 to 150 mmHg, the immediate response of the arterioles is to:

a)

Dilate to allow more flow

b)

Constrict to maintain constant flow

c)

Burst

d)

Close completely

50.

Which substance is considered the "Endothelium-Derived Relaxing Factor" (EDRF)?

a)

Endothelin

b)

Nitric Oxide

c)

Angiotensin

d)

Vasopressin

51.

In the "Pressure–Natriuresis" curve, a shift of the curve to the right (higher pressure) is a hallmark of:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Chronic Hypertension

c)

Normal salt intake

d)

Excessive water drinking

52.

A tumor of the adrenal cortex secreting excessive aldosterone (Conn’s Syndrome) leads to hypertension. This is primarily because:

a)

Aldosterone is a direct vasoconstrictor

b)

Aldosterone causes salt and water retention

c)

Aldosterone increases heart rate

d)

Aldosterone inhibits renin

53.

The "Sympathetic Vasoconstrictor Tone" is responsible for maintaining:

a)

The basal level of vascular resistance

b)

The heart's refractory period

c)

Lymphatic valve closure

d)

Capillary permeability

54.

During the "CNS Ischemic Response," the sympathetic nervous system can increase the mean arterial pressure to as high as:

a)

150 mmHg

b)

250 mmHg

c)

100 mmHg

d)

500 mmHg

55.

Which heart rhythm is often described as "a bag of worms" during surgery?

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

56.

A patient has an accessory pathway (Bundle of Kent) bypassing the AV node. This leads to:

a)

Long P–R interval

b)

Delta wave on ECG (Wolff–Parkinson–White Syndrome)

c)

Inverted T wave in all leads

d)

Sinus bradycardia

57.

The major reservoir of extra-lymphatic protein is:

a)

The blood plasma

b)

The interstitial space

c)

The intracellular fluid

d)

The cerebrospinal fluid

58.

A patient is found to have "Salt-Sensitive" hypertension. This means:

a)

Their BP only rises when they smell salt

b)

Large changes in salt intake lead to significant changes in arterial pressure

c)

They lack the Renin–Angiotensin system

d)

They should be treated with potassium only

59.

Which of the following describes the effect of Carbon Dioxide on the brain's blood flow?

a)

Potent vasoconstrictor

b)

Potent vasodilator

c)

No effect

d)

Increases blood viscosity

60.

"Mean Circulatory Filling Pressure" is a measure of:

a)

Left ventricular pressure

b)

The fullness of the circulatory system (approx. 7 mmHg)

c)

Capillary pressure only

d)

Atmospheric pressure

61.

A "Positive" interstitial fluid pressure is generally found in:

a)

Subcutaneous tissue

b)

Encapsulated organs like the kidney or brain

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Adipose tissue

62.

The "Triple Response" of Lewis (Wheal, Flare, Redness) is primarily mediated by:

a)

Histamine and local axon reflexes

b)

Angiotensin II

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Vagus nerve

63.

Vagal stimulation of the heart primarily decreases the heart rate by:

a)

Decreasing the permeability of the SA node to Sodium

b)

Increasing the permeability of the SA node to Potassium (Hyperpolarization)

c)

Increasing the permeability to Calcium

d)

Closing the AV valves

64.

The "Windkessel Effect" refers to:

a)

The pumping action of the atria

b)

The elastic recoil of large arteries maintaining flow during diastole

c)

The sound heard during BP measurement

d)

The resistance of the arterioles

65.

A patient with severe anemia has increased cardiac output. The primary reason is:

a)

Increased blood viscosity

b)

Decreased blood viscosity and local vasodilation due to hypoxia

c)

Increased sympathetic tone

d)

Decreased heart rate

66.

Which segment of the circulation has the highest total cross-sectional area?

a)

Aorta

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Vena cava

67.

According to Poiseuille's Law, if the radius of a vessel is reduced by half, the resistance to flow increases by:

a)

2-fold

b)

4-fold

c)

8-fold

d)

16-fold

68.

The "Bezold–Jarisch Reflex" involves:

a)

Tachycardia in response to hemorrhage

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension in response to noxious stimuli in the ventricles

c)

Hypertension in response to exercise

d)

Apnea in response to cold water

69.

"Critical Closing Pressure" is the pressure at which:

a)

The heart stops

b)

Blood flow through a small vessel ceases because the vessel collapses

c)

The baroreceptors stop firing

d)

The kidneys stop producing urine

70.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Baroreceptor reflex arc?

a)

Hering's Nerve

b)

Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS)

c)

Vagus Nerve

d)

Phrenic Nerve

71.

The most common cause of "Secondary Hypertension" is:

a)

Adrenal tumor

b)

Renal disease (parenchymal or vascular)

c)

Stress

d)

Obesity

72.

A drug that inhibits "Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme" (ACE) will cause:

a)

Increased levels of Angiotensin II

b)

Increased levels of Bradykinin (causing cough)

c)

Decreased levels of Potassium

d)

Increased BP

73.

The "Vasa Vasorum" are:

a)

Valves in the veins

b)

Small blood vessels that supply the walls of large arteries and veins

c)

Lymphatic channels in the brain

d)

Nerve fibers in the heart

74.

In the presence of high levels of ADH (Vasopressin), the arterioles:

a)

Dilate

b)

Constrict (increasing BP)

c)

Do nothing

d)

Leak protein

75.

The primary mechanism for "Long-term" blood pressure regulation is:

a)

The Baroreceptor reflex

b)

The Chemoreceptor reflex

c)

The Renal–Body Fluid mechanism

d)

The CNS Ischemic Response

76.

A "Shift to the Left" of the Renal Function Curve can be caused by:

a)

Angiotensin II

b)

High sympathetic activity

c)

Drugs that decrease renal resistance (vasodilators)

d)

Chronic kidney disease

77.

Which of the following is the "Pumping Station" for the lymphatic system?

a)

The spleen

b)

Segmental contraction of the lymphatic vessels (lymphatic pump)

c)

The right atrium

d)

The liver

78.

What happens to the heart rate during the "Respiratory Sinus Arrhythmia"?

a)

Increases during expiration

b)

Increases during inspiration

c)

Decreases during inspiration

d)

Stops during expiration

79.

If a person is exposed to 100% oxygen for a long period, their local blood flow will likely:

a)

Increase significantly

b)

Decrease due to local vasoconstriction

c)

Not change

d)

Increase only in the lungs

80.

The "functional syncytium" of the heart is made possible by:

a)

Intercalated discs with gap junctions

b)

Nerve fibers between cells

c)

Large amounts of connective tissue

d)

Tight junctions (Zonula occludens)