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WorksheetsEmergency Nursing and BLS Worksheet Questions
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 40mins
A client says to the nurse, “It’s hard for me to breathe; I feel winded all the time.” The nurse would record this subjective feeling on the chart as
dyspnea.
apnea.
tachypnea.
respiratory fatigue.
The nurse would explain to a client with complaints of wheezing and chest tightness that wheezing occurs when
sputum production is increased.
an allergic reaction is taking place.
air is trapped in the alveoli.
air is passing through a narrowed airway.
An unconscious client following a car accident. Without a family member to give informed consent, the responder should
wait until a family member is contacted before treating the client.
have a hospital administrator sign the consent form.
begin treatment of the client without informed consent.
request the physician to sign the consent form.
The ER triage nurse identifies the client who can have treatment delayed for a few hours as the client with a
black eye from having been hit by a baseball.
large laceration that needs suturing.
broken finger.
head injury from a fall.
The nurse triaging clients in an ER assigns a woman who is brought to the department complaining of severe chest pain the priority category of
emergency.
urgent.
nonurgent.
vital.
After stabilizing a trauma victim’s airway, breathing, and circulation, the next item for the ER nurse to assess is
neurologic status.
broken bones.
abdomen.
gastrointestinal status.
A MVA victim is brought to the ER with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should
place a rolled towel under the client’s neck.
apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.
adjust the table to sit the client upright.
check for full range of motion of the head.
An MVA victim admitted to the ER exhibits raccoon’s eyes and Battle’s sign. The nurse interprets that these manifestations are compatible with
basilar skull fracture.
opiate overdose or poisoning.
extreme fatigue and sensory deprivation.
subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The nurse is caring for a client brought to the ER after suffering amputation of a toe. The nurse should take care to avoid
cleansing the stump area with normal saline.
placing the toe directly on ice.
wrapping the toe in sterile gauze moistened with saline.
placing the wrapped toe in a plastic bag.
An elderly client who was found unresponsive at home now opens his eyes when spoken to and answers simple questions when asked; and left alone usually sleeps. The nurse would document this information in the Glasgow Coma Scale using the categories of
eye opening and best verbal response.
eye opening and motor activity.
motor activity and motor response.
best verbal response and best motor response.
During assessment of a head-injured client, the nurse notes that the arms, wrists, and fingers are flexed, and the arms are adducted. The client is demonstrating
normal flexion in comatose individuals.
spasticity.
decerebrate posturing.
decorticate posturing.
The nurse explains that the most serious complication of increased ICP is
ventricular arrhythmias.
coma.
motor deficits.
brain herniation.
The nurse reminds a group of high school students that the most common cause of spinal cord injury (SCI) is
myelitis.
vascular disease.
trauma.
cervical spondylosis.
The nurse would explain to a client that when a major burn occurs, the body’s initial systemic responses include
elevated pulse rate, decreased cardiac output, and polyuria.
production of epinephrine, vasodilation, and increased cardiac output.
plasma leakage into surrounding tissue, decreased hematocrit, and oliguria.
increased capillary permeability, decreased cardiac output, and oliguria.
The nurse would perform close respiratory assessment for a client with inhalation injuries because lung tissue injury due to inhalation of smoke is caused by
chemical action on lung tissues.
heat damage from superheated air.
anoxia from lowered blood oxygen content.
carbon monoxide poisoning.
A client admitted to the ER with burns of the chest and neck exhibits a wet, shiny, weeping surface with some blistering. The nurse would document these burn injuries as
superficial, first degree.
partial thickness, second degree.
full thickness, third degree.
full thickness, fourth degree.
A client has a circumferential third-degree burn on the upper left arm. The nursing assessments for this client would be modified by
monitoring blood pressure in the left arm.
evaluating left hand strength.
assessing capillary refill in the left hand.
measuring left forearm circumference.
In the emergent care of a client with a pelvic fracture, the nurse must be especially alert for indications of the complication of
hypovolemic shock.
hyperthermia.
infection.
deep vein thrombosis.
A client who sprained his ankle 1 hour ago is experiencing swelling and pain. The nursing instruction most appropriate in dealing with these manifestations is
apply cold and heat, alternating every hour.
lower the ankle below the level of the heart to promote circulation.
apply heat to the area.
apply ice to the area for the first 24 hours, then apply heat.
A client enters the emergency department with an injured right knee after falling at home. When the client proudly reports that he immediately put a hot compress on the injury, the nurse’s best response is
“That was quick thinking for you to apply the compress, because the heat will reduce swelling.”
“The immediate application of heat will reduce the pain and swelling of your injury.”
“Let me exchange the hot compress for a cold one. Heat may cause more bleeding and discomfort.”
“I know that the heat makes your knee feel better, but neither hot nor cold applications affect the injury.”
You witnessed an adult who went on cardiac arrest in a park, as a trained BLS Provider, you understand that the first link in the chain of survival on that scenario is:
Activation of Emergency Response
Early CPR
Effective advanced life support
Rapid defibrillation
In doing CPR, the proper site for external chest compression on an adult victim is
Center of the victim’s bare chest at the xiphoid process
One finger’s width above the xiphoid process
Center of the victim’s bare chest along the imaginary nipple line
Two finger’s width above navel
Following the Algorithm for Adult Cardiac Arrest, after ensuring that the scene is safe, what is the next step to do?
Start High Quality CPR
Introduce yourself
Alert EMS/Code Team of possible COVID-19 infection
Check for responsiveness
The correct rate of chest compressions per minute in doing a 1 rescuer CPR on an adult is
80 compressions
100-120 compressions
100 compressions
200 compressions
The most common initial rhythm in witnessed sudden cardiac arrest is
Ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular asystole
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation
During Foreign Body Airway Obstruction (FBAO) Management, after removing the foreign object with a glove hand, what is the next best thing to do?
Place victim to a comfortable position
Immediately change with a new set of gloves
Do 5 back slaps
None of the above
The second link in the In Hospital Cardiac Arrest for pediatric chain of survival is
Early defibrillation
Early and effective bystander CPR
Activation of Emergency Response
Prevention of Arrest
In infant, the correct compression-ventilation ratio for a lone rescuer is
30 compressions to 1 ventilation
30 compressions to 2 ventilations
15 compressions to 1 ventilation
15 compressions to 2 ventilations
It is an Emergency Action Principle where you have to find out if there are conditions that are an immediate threat to the victim’s life
Activate Medical Assistance
Initial Assessment of the Victim
Survey the Scene
Secondary Assessment of the Victim
The third link in the in-hospital cardiac arrest adult chain of survival is
Early defibrillation
Early access
High quality CPR
Surveillance and prevention
In using the AED, if the voice prompt initially tells you that “NO SHOCK INDICATED”, what is the next step that you should do?
Check for the pulse
Perform CPR for 2 minutes
Give rescue breath
Place in recovery position
Which of the following statement is TRUE?
The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is CPR.
Ventricular tachycardia is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death.
Bystander CPR improves survival from ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest.
If the victim is a child and a likely victim of asphyxial arrest, the rescuer should use the AED immediately.
What are the 4 universal steps required to operate the AED?
POWER on the AED, ATTACH pads, deliver SHOCK, ANALYZE the rhythm
ATTACH pads, POWER on the AED, deliver SHOCK, ANALYZE rhythm
ATTACH pads, POWER on the AED, ANALYZE rhythm, deliver SHOCK
POWER on the AED, ATTACH pads, ANALYZE rhythm, deliver SHOCK
Rescue breathing is given to a child victim with inadequate breathing or no breathing but with pulse. An adequate rescue breathing using the bag mask technique in children is
Give 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds
Give 1 breath every 2 seconds
Give 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds
Give rescue breath that may or may not result in visible chest rise
What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is “not breathing” need?
The Heimlich Maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
Start CPR immediately
Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
You should follow the steps for rescue breathing.
Which among the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a responder at the scene of an accident?
Extrication of victims
Provision of communications equipment
Personal safety
Equipment management
The single most important thing you can do to prevent the spread of infection is to:
Wear a surgical mask
Wash your hands thoroughly
Wear a HEPA respirator
Wear eye protection
You are dispatched to the scene of an unconscious patient. Upon arrival, you find an 85 year-old patient with bradycardia and slow shallow respirations. The patient has a terminal illness. The family presents you with a notarized DNR. As a pre-hospital provider, what actions would be appropriate?
No care will be provided to the patient
Lifesaving procedure may be used until the patient is seen by the physician
Comfort care that does not include lifesaving procedures may be provided
Lifesaving procedures must be initiated for a period of one hour prior to honoring the DNR
The following are ingredients of a negligence case EXCEPT:
Duty to act
Rescue motive
Breach of duty
Injury
If you leave one patient to respond to another without proper turnover, you may be guilty of which among the following?
Negligence
Abandonment
Malice
Breach of duty
The movement of a body part towards the center of the body is called:
Midline
Medial
Abduction
Adduction
The spinal column contains how many cervical vertebrae?
5
7
8
12
What is the best way for you to determine that the rescue breath you are delivering to a patient is effective?
The stomach rises visibly
The ventilation bag is completely compressed
You can hear an air leak around the mask
The chest rises visibly
Rescue breathing for a child with a pulse and no advanced airway in place should be given at one breath:
Every 3–5 seconds
Every 5–6 seconds
Every 6–8 seconds
Every 8–10 seconds
What component of blood pressure is obtained using the palpation technique?
Contractility
Diastolic
Systolic
Which among the following is a symptom?
Nausea
Hypotension
Cyanosis
Pedal edema
The jaw thrust without head extension is the primary airway maneuver used for:
Medical patients
Patients with a suspected spinal injury
Relieving airway obstruction
All children
The part of the brain responsible for the control of respiration is the:
Cerebellum
Brain stem
Thalamus
You arrived at the scene of a bar fight. A 25 year old man has been stabbed in the chest and is bleeding severely. The assailant is still in the scene and holding a knife. What should you do?
Try to keep the assailant calm while you treat the patient
Take the knife away from the assailant
Retreat to a place of safety and call for help
Stay where you are, but tell the assailant to go away
The main purpose of the initial assessment is to:
Identify injuries and illness to be treated later
Identify all injuries in an organized manner
Treat all injuries found
Identify and immediately treat life-threatening conditions
Which pulse should you use routinely to monitor the rate, regularity and quality of the pulse of an adult patient?
Radial
Brachial
Femoral
Ulnar
During your initial assessment, you find your patient skin to be warm, pink, and dry; this indicates:
Possible shock
Possible high fever
Normal circulation
Hypoxia
During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you use the memory device SAMPLE to obtain information. What does the letter P stands for in this memory aid?
Pulse
Pain
Provocation of symptoms
Pertinent past medical history
A 20 year old patient was found unresponsive. One of the first steps during your focused history and physical exam should include:
Obtaining baseline vital signs
Conducting a rapid trauma assessment
Gathering a SAMPLE history
Conducting a detailed physical exam
Baseline vital signs in the unresponsive medical patient include the assessment of the patient’s respiration, pulse, blood pressure, pupils and:
Past medical history
Symptoms
Allergies
Skin condition
The purpose of the detailed exam is to:
Identify and care for non life-threatening injuries
Determine the patient’s blood pressure and pulse
Find life threatening problems requiring rapid intervention
Assess for trends in the patient condition
You find a 16 year old boy, a football player, who is unresponsive with a deformed right leg. During the initial assessment, you find broken teeth in the mouth. You should:
Proceed with your exam and immobilize the deformed right leg
Proceed with the exam to locate other life threatening injuries
Proceed with the management of any bleeding in the leg
Stop your exam and remove the broken teeth in the mouth
A 46 year old patient has a deformed and painful jaw following a motor vehicle accident. The patient has an altered mental status and inadequate breathing. You also suspect severe internal bleeding. How often should you assess this patient condition?
Every 5 minutes
Every 10 minutes
Every 15 minutes
Every 30 minutes
One of the best ways to determine if your patient’s condition is changing is to:
Perform a rapid trauma assessment
Conduct a focused assessment
Collect a SAMPLE history
Conduct an on-going assessment
Patients with dyspnea are generally more comfortable when they are in what position?
Semi-fowler or fowler
Prone
Supine
Left or right lateral recumbent
When caring for a deaf person, you should:
Speak loudly
Look directly at the patient when you speak
Obtain family history from a family member
Never allow a deaf person to refuse medical treatment
While comforting for all patients, it is imperative to maintain physical contact with the:
Deaf patient
Elderly patient
Blind patient
Non-English speaking patient
Which among the following is NOT an essential component of the verbal report?
Your estimated time of arrival at the scene
The patient’s age and sex
A complete and detailed past medical history of the patient
Brief pertinent past medical history of the patient
In a pre-hospital setting, a patient with confused mental status refused treatment. The refusal signature is of no value unless you:
Inform the patient of the potential consequences of the refusal
Have at least two copies of the refusal
Have a police officer as a witness to the refusal
Have rendered at least some first aid care
The part of Patient Assessment that wherein potential life threats are identified and treated:
Nature of Illness
Initial Assessment
Mechanism of injury
General impression
The part of focused history and physical exam whose goal is to quickly identify the potential hidden injuries or identifiable causes that may not have been easily found in the initial assessment:
Focused Physical Exam
Detailed Physical Exam
Rapid Physical Exam
General Impression
A test for mental status by checking the patient’s memory and thinking ability:
Responsiveness
Orientation
Consciousness
General impression
Stretching and or tearing of the muscles causing pain and swelling of the soft tissues occurs in
Strain
Sprain
Dislocation
Fracture
You notice that the trachea appears to be pushed to one side in a patient who has suffered chest trauma. This may indicate the patient may have a:
Traumatic asphyxia
Tension pneumothorax
Flail chest
Pulmonary edema
In assessing a responsive medical patient, “PQRST” is used to obtain information. In this memory aid, the letter “P” stands for:
Pulse
Pain
Provocation of symptom
Pertinent past medical history
In an open wound of the abdomen; if the abdominal viscera protrude what is your first aid measure?
the area is covered with sterile, moist saline dressings
cover the area with dry dressing
transport the casualty immediately to the hospital
call for an ambulance
You suspect a casualty in automobile accident with fractured skull if there is a presence of rhinorrhea
drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose
presence of blood in the mouth
drainage of fluid in the ears
presence of fluid in the eyes
Internal bleeding is as serious external bleeding because:
vital organs may be deprived of oxygen
blood presses on vital structures
none of the above
all of the above
Open wounds are risk of tetanus infection and is greater in dirty wound, especially if it is:
deep wounds containing dead tissue
wounds where there is a foreign body
contaminated by a soil from places where animals graze
all of the above
If a bandage is used to control bleeding and maintain direct pressure, where to tie the knot?
tie the knot over the pad or dressing
tie knots in front on the uninjured side of the body
tie the knots in the center of the body
tie the knots on the injured part of the body
The principle of controlling blood loss is to restrict the blood flow to the wound and therefore:
maintain pressure
encourage clotting
lowering the local blood pressure
halt the flow of blood
What is the principle of applying Heimlich maneuver (subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrust) to casualty with choking?
can force air from the lungs to create an artificial cough intended to move and expel an obstructing foreign body from the airway
draws the tongue away from the back of the throat and away from the foreign body that may be lodged there
avoid forcing the object deeper into the throat
all of the above
A type of wound that has limited external bleeding
puncture
incised
laceration
abrasions
It is a manifestation of 2nd degree burn; except:
moist appearance
blister formations
pain
None
Which of the following first aid kit content that may or may not be should be included?
pain medication
tweezers
blankets
spine boards
