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Worksheets

Quickfire!

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which layer is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

a)

Stratum granulosum

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum basale

d)

Stratum spinosum

2.

Which of the following is not a key cellular actor during the inflammation stage of normal wound healing?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Keratinocytes

d)

Platelets

3.

Which of the following would not contribute to a slowed wound closure speed?

a)

Smoking

b)

Sufficient protein

c)

Dehydration

d)

Radiation

4.

In classification of wound thickness, a superficial partial-thickness wound involves what tissues?

a)

Epidermis only

b)

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissues

c)

Epidermis and papillary dermis

d)

Epidermis, papillary dermis, and reticular dermis

5.

Which therapeutic modality is considered the “gold standard” of wound cleansing?

a)

Pulsatile Lavage with Suction

b)

Hydrotherapy

c)

Wound irrigation

d)

Electrical stimulation

6.

Which of the following dressings is the most occlusive?

a)

Hydrocolloid

b)

Fine weave gauze

c)

Semi-permeable foam

d)

Calcium alginate

7.

What form of debridement is best used to describe the application of sterile larvae (maggots) to remove necrotic tissue from an infected wound bed?

a)

Sharp debridement

b)

Enzymatic debridement

c)

Biological debridement/pet therapy

d)

Autolytic debridement

8.

Which of the following is a common characteristic of arterial wounds?

a)

Mild to no pain

b)

Small, “punched out” wound appearance

c)

Irregular shape with high drainage

d)

Increased temperature

9.

Which of these is not a characteristic of venous insufficiency?

a)

Commonly positioned on the medial malleolus of medial lower leg

b)

Minimal to no amount of drainage

c)

Superficial, irregular shape

d)

Normal temperature or slight warmth from hypertension

10.

What type of wound has the following characteristics: round, punch-out lesion with little to no drainage, peripheral edema, with a dry, callused, thickened periwound?

a)

Venous wounds

b)

Arterial wounds

c)

Pressure wound

d)

Neuropathic wounds

11.

Pressure injuries occur when external pressure exceeds the capillary closing pressure, leading to tissue ischemia and ultimately tissue necrosis. What level of external pressure is required to obstruct capillary blood flow?

a)

5–15 mmHg

b)

15–35 mmHg

c)

35–50 mmHg

d)

<50 mmHg

12.

A burn wound that presents with white/pale skin, presence of eschar, and is non-painful would be classified as what depth of burn?

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial-thickness

c)

Deep partial-thickness

d)

Full-thickness

13.

What kind of traumatic wound is caused by abrasion due to friction from scratching, traumatic injury, chemicals, or burns?

a)

Lacerations

b)

Puncture

c)

Degloving

d)

Excoriation

14.

The accumulation of ‘too many Luigis’ due to a low transport capacity ultimately leads to an accumulation of protein-rich fluid outside of the lymphatic system (lymphedema). This form of lymphedema results from what type of lymphatic insufficiency?

a)

Mechanical insufficiency

b)

Dynamic insufficiency

c)

Combined insufficiency

d)

Venous insufficiency

15.

What level of the skin is the junction where blisters develop?

a)

Rete Pegs

b)

Reticular Dermis

c)

Dermis Ground Substance

d)

Stratum Corneum

16.

What cell type is considered the “first responder” in the inflammation stage of wound healing?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Mast cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Platelets

17.

What source of skin graft material is non-meshed and preferred for improved cosmetic outcome?

a)

Porcine xenografts

b)

Cultured epithelial autografts

c)

Cadaver grafts

18.

What type of exudate is characterized by thick consistency, white or yellow color, and is considered a sign of infection?

a)

Sanguinous

b)

Serous

c)

Serosanguinous

d)

Purulent

19.

Hydrotherapy has many benefits; all of the following are related to hydrotherapy except?

a)

Moistens/softens eschar

b)

Increases circulation to wound bed

c)

Selective debridement

d)

Decreases pain and trauma of dressing removal

20.

Which dressing method is bad (and yet somehow commonly used)?

a)

Wet-to-dry gauze

b)

Wound pillows

c)

Semi-permeable film

d)

Alginates

21.

How is the effectiveness of debridement measured? Select all that apply.

a)

Amount of necrotic tissue remaining, type of necrotic tissue remaining, adherence of necrotic tissue to wound after debridement

b)

Size and depth of wound remaining after debridement

c)

Color of the periwound 10 minutes after debridement

d)

Patient reported subjective satisfaction with debridement

22.

What does a textbook periwound look like in an arterial ulcer?

a)

Thin, pale/dusky/cyanotic skin with minimal to no hair, and thick yellow nails

b)

Bright red, moist, and risen, hot

c)

Dry, calloused, flaky, and black

d)

Indifferent to normal healthy skin throughout the body

23.

What are recommended patient instructions for venous wounds? Select all that apply.

a)

Compression and elevation of body segment

b)

Self-debridement when necrotic tissue is spotted

c)

Inspect legs/feet 1–2 times per month

d)

Wear loose shoes that are 2 sizes up from normal to give more room for comfort

24.

What is the textbook expected pain and position/location of neuropathic wounds?

a)

High levels of pain, located on the plantar surface of the foot

b)

Moderate levels of pain, located on the medial malleolus

c)

Minimal to no pain, located on the high-pressure points of the plantar foot

d)

High levels of pain, located on the medial malleolus

25.

Which NPIAP stage of pressure injuries is marked by partial thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis, red, moist, and shallow wound, with no exposed granulation tissue, slough, or eschar?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

26.

What are the 3 phases of burn care?

a)

Emergent, Acute, Rehabilitative

b)

Inflammation, proliferation, remodeling

c)

Inflammation, neovascularization, collagen deposition

d)

Vasoconstriction, necrosis, vasodilation

27.

How many lymph nodes does an adult have on average?

a)

100–200

b)

400–500

c)

600–700

d)

900–1000

28.

What is the average pH of the skin?

a)

6 – 7.5

b)

4 – 6.5

c)

3.5 – 5

d)

2 – 3.5

29.

Proliferation accounts for what percent of wound closure?

a)

25%25\%

b)

60%60\%

c)

40%40\%

30.

A skin graft from a relative is considered a(n):

a)

Allograft

b)

Autograft

c)

Xenograft

d)

Synthetic Graft

31.

What type of wound edge is often seen with diabetes?

a)

Hyperkeratosis

b)

Fibrotic

c)

Hypokeratosis

d)

Scarred

32.

Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of ultrasound?

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Acute DVT

c)

Infected Chronic Wound

d)

Severe Arterial Insufficiency

33.

Which of the following adds the most moisture to the wound?

a)

Hydrocolloid

b)

Calcium Alginate

c)

Hydrogel

d)

Wet-to-Dry Dressings

34.

Which is not a type of devitalized tissue?

a)

Eschar

b)

Slough

c)

Callous

d)

Hyperpigmentation

35.

How will an arterial wound affect a pedal pulse?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Pulses are contraindicated

36.

What will lead to the best prognosis for a venous wound?

a)

Smaller then 10 cm

b)

Present for 3 years

c)

Decrease in size of wound after 6 months of treatment

d)

BMI > 30

37.

The gold standard for neuropathic wound assessment is:

a)

Pulse

b)

Capillary refill

c)

Monofilament sensory testing

d)

Gait analysis

38.

Which is the most common locations for pressure wounds in adults?

a)

Sacrum

b)

Occiput

c)

Elbow

d)

3rd metatarsal head

39.

Burns are the ___ most common cause of unintentional death

a)

10th

b)

1st

c)

3rd

d)

6th

40.

A glass cut causes what type of traumatic laceration?

a)

Shear

b)

Tension

41.

Lymph nodes are palpable

a)

Always

b)

Never

c)

Only at the neck

d)

It depends

42.

How many layers are in the stratum corneum?

a)

1–2

b)

7–10

c)

20–30

d)

50–70

43.

During the cellular response of the inflammation phase, which cells are the first responders?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Mast cells

d)

Angioblasts

44.

What is NOT true about primary wound healing?

a)

Fastest and most simple

b)

Wound can be contaminated

c)

Wound edges are approximated

d)

Many times, can use sutures, steri-strips, glue

45.

What is NOT included in the triangle of wound assessment?

a)

Wound bed

b)

Exudate type

c)

Wound edge

d)

Periwound skin

46.

What must the pressure be under for wound irrigation in the PT scope of practice?

a)

3 psi

b)

8 psi

c)

15 psi

d)

30 psi

47.

What type of dressing is most effective at removing moisture from a wound?

a)

Calcium alginate

b)

Hydrocolloid

c)

Impregnated gauze

d)

Semi-permeable film

48.

What grade on the Wagner scale for neuropathic wounds matches this description "a superficial ulcer without subcutaneous tissue involvement"?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

49.

What factor does NOT increase a patient with spinal cord injuries risk of developing a pressure injury?

a)

Alcohol abuse

b)

Complete spinal cord injury

c)

Younger at time of injury

d)

Currently being under age 40

50.

Which of the following is a selective form of debridement?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Surgical

c)

Autolytic

d)

Chemical

51.

What is a normal ABI range?

a)

0.3–0.5

b)

1.1–1.3

c)

0.9–1.1

d)

0.5–0.7

52.

Where do venous wounds commonly occur?

a)

Medial malleolus

b)

Head

c)

Thigh

d)

Thumb

53.

What is the most common type of bite wound?

a)

Cat

b)

Human

c)

Snake

d)

Dog

54.

Which describes the properties of a short stretch bandage?

a)

High resting pressure, low working pressure

b)

High resting pressure, high working pressure

c)

Low resting pressure, high working pressure

d)

Low resting pressure, low working pressure

55.

Which layer of epidermis holds melanocytes?

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum spinosum

c)

Stratum corneum

d)

Stratum lucidum

56.

Which cell is the first responder to inflammation?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Monocytes

d)

Mast cells

57.

What is the main driving force of wound contraction?

a)

Fibroblasts → myofibroblasts

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Growth factors

d)

None of the above

58.

How do you NOT measure wounds?

a)

In centimeters

b)

By comparing it to a well known object like a quarter

c)

Clock method

d)

Perpendicular method

59.

What is NOT a benefit to meshed split-thickness grafts?

a)

Expands 1.5x to 9x its original size

b)

Increases fluid collection under graft for moisture

c)

Decreases hematoma size

d)

Allows room for expansion

60.

Which debridement method might be chosen for a patient with severe pain or bleeding disorders?

a)

Autolytic Debridement

b)

Surgical Debridement

c)

Mechanical Debridement

d)

Sharp Debridement

61.

What percentage of lower extremity wounds are due to arterial insufficiency?

a)

0.6–5%

b)

5–10%

c)

20–30%

d)

75%

62.

The main issue that causes venous insufficiency wounds is:

a)

Lack of veins

b)

Malfunctioning bicuspid valves

c)

Blockage of capillaries

d)

Lack of smooth muscles surrounding veins

63.

Which of the following does NOT apply to neuropathic ulcers?

a)

Usually painless

b)

On plantar surface of foot

c)

Punched-out lesion

d)

Macerated rim

64.

How much of the periwound is at risk of spreading of pressure injuries?

a)

5 mm

b)

9 mm

c)

12 mm

d)

15 mm

65.

Which is not a characteristic of the zone of stasis?

a)

Permanently loses blood supply

b)

Can be restored

c)

Can turn into coagulation state

d)

All of the above describe the zone of stasis

66.

Which should NOT be done on a pin site?

a)

Saline rinse

b)

Alcohol on pin to remove crust

c)

Ointments around the pins

d)

All of the above should be done

67.

Which is the main cause of lymphedema globally?

a)

Filariasis

b)

Obesity

c)

Trauma/surgery

d)

Cancer

68.

Which of the following does not belong in the dermis?

a)

Type 3 and 4 collagen

b)

Rete pegs

c)

Hair

d)

Fascia

69.

What are some characteristics of the Proliferation stage of normal wound healing? Select all that apply.

a)

Re-epithelialization

b)

Collagen deposition by fibroblasts

c)

Angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation

d)

Predominant neutrophil infiltration and hemostasis

70.

What is a type of wound closure error that involves insufficient collagen lysis?

a)

Hypergranulation

b)

Maceration

c)

Keloids

71.

What does the Vancouver scar scale assess?

a)

Vascularity, pigmentation, pliability, height

b)

Viability, pigmentation, pliability, heat

c)

Viability, color, stretch, height

d)

Vascularity, redness, pliability, heat

72.

What is a contraindication for pulsatile lavage with suction?

a)

Venous insufficiency

b)

Diabetes

c)

Tunnels

d)

Exposed tendon or bone

73.

Debridement: During debridement, which layer is the "stop and think layer?"

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Fascia

74.

How would you interpret an ABI of >1.1?

a)

Severe arterial insufficiency

b)

Moderate insufficiency and intermediate claudication

c)

Normal

d)

Vessel calcification

75.

Which presentation is NOT consistent with venous wounds?

a)

Located on the lateral malleolus

b)

High amounts of drainage

c)

Superficial and irregular shape

d)

Fragile and macerated wound borders

76.

Which of the following is FALSE about neuropathy?

a)

It is symmetrical

b)

It affects distal nerves initially

c)

There are sensory, motor, and autonomic forms

d)

It is not a common complication of diabetes

77.

Which of the following is NOT associated with stage 3 pressure injuries?

a)

Full thickness loss of skin

b)

Exposed bone

c)

May extend down to, but not through fascia

d)

Possible undermining/tunneling

78.

Which of the following is NOT a type of burn injury?

a)

Chemical

b)

Thermal

c)

Physical

d)

Electrical

79.

Which is not always a traumatic wound?

a)

Gunshot

b)

Laceration

c)

Amputation

80.

Which is the correct evaluation for a stage 3 lymphedema patient?

a)

Severe tissue and skin changes (fibrotic and adipose)

b)

Fibrotic changes only

c)

Only subjective findings

d)

Pitting edema and response to elevation