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Microbiology Worksheet – Zoonoses and Bacterial Diseases

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The pathogenicity of anthrax is caused by which factors?

a)

the exotoxin, edema factor and protective antigen

b)

adhesion, colonization, enterotoxin production

c)

invasion, histamine‑sensitizing factor

d)

endotoxin, fatty acids of the cell wall

e)

microcolonial, tetanospasmin and tetanolysin

2.

The source of infection in anthrax is mainly:

a)

fleas

b)

pliers

c)

animals

d)

only humans

e)

food supply

3.

For microbiological diagnosis of tularemia, which is used?

a)

bioassay

b)

microscopy of blood smears

c)

Widal reaction

d)

Byrne sample

e)

Dick test

4.

Mode of transmission of tularemia:

a)

direct contact with patients

b)

inoculation

c)

sexual transmission

d)

vertical transmission

e)

inhalation

5.

Resistance of Brucella:

a)

not sensitive to high temperature

b)

preserved during boiling

c)

not sensitive to disinfectants

d)

long‑term storage at low temperature

e)

not sensitive to UV

6.

Allergic method of diagnosis of brucellosis:

a)

Dick sample

b)

Chic sample

c)

test with tularemia

d)

brucellin skin test

e)

sample with antitoxin

7.

Antigens of Brucella include:

a)

Vi‑antigen

b)

protective antigen

c)

H antigen

d)

K antigen

e)

peptidoglycan

8.

Standard agglutination test reveals:

a)

precipitin

b)

agglutinogens

c)

complement‑binding antibodies

d)

thrombocytopathy

e)

hemolysins

9.

Ingestion of the tularemia pathogen causes which form of infection?

a)

intestinal form

b)

pulmonary form

c)

septic form

d)

cutaneous form

e)

generalized form

10.

When the airborne pathway of infection with tularemia occurs, which form develops?

a)

pulmonary form

b)

intestinal form

c)

septic form

d)

cutaneous form

e)

generalized form

11.

When the contact pathway of infection with tularemia occurs, which form develops?

a)

intestinal form

b)

ulcer‑bubonic form

c)

septic form

d)

pulmonary form

e)

generalized form

12.

Immunity in tularemia is:

a)

antitoxic

b)

unstable, weakly expressed

c)

non‑sterile, turning into sterile

d)

transmitted passively from the mother

e)

accompanied by allergy of the body

13.

Allergic method of diagnosis of tularemia:

a)

Dick sample

b)

Chic sample

c)

Mantoux reaction

d)

Burne test

e)

sample with tularin

14.

Specific prevention of brucellosis is carried out using:

a)

neutralization of products and raw materials of animal origin

b)

bacteriophages

c)

killed vaccine

d)

live vaccine

e)

toxoid

15.

When airborne pathway transmission of anthrax occurs, which form develops?

a)

intestinal form

b)

pulmonary form

c)

bubonic form

d)

septic form

e)

skin form

16.

Heddleson reaction is used in the diagnosis of brucellosis in:

a)

bacteria carriers

b)

mass surveys

c)

allergy detection

d)

phage typing

e)

neutralization reactions

17.

Rickettsias are cultivated:

a)

on simple nutrient media

b)

on enriched nutrient media

c)

in chicken embryo fibroblasts

d)

on yolk‑salt sugar

e)

in the yolk sac of a chicken embryo

18.

Borrelia are transmitted:

a)

sexual transmission

b)

through insect bites

c)

alimentary transmission

d)

airborne transmission

e)

inhalation of dust

19.

Borrelia, based on type of respiration, are:

a)

facultative anaerobes

b)

obligate anaerobes

c)

obligate aerobes

d)

facultative aerobes

e)

hematuria

20.

Diagnostic value in Brill’s disease have which serum immunoglobulins?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

21.

The causative agent of Q fever most often affects which organ system?

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Lungs

c)

Urogenital system

d)

Skin and mucous membranes

22.

The causative agent of recurrent typhus is cultivated on media containing which additive?

a)

Bile

b)

Serum and ascitic fluid

c)

Bismuth

d)

Magenta dye

e)

Salt

23.

Cultivation of pale Treponema is carried out in media containing what component?

a)

Bismuth sulfite

b)

Magenta dye

c)

Glucose

d)

Brain tissue

e)

Bile

24.

The source of infection in syphilis is what host?

a)

People

b)

Cows

c)

Pigs

d)

Birds

e)

Amphibians

25.

Primary syphilis is characterized by which key clinical finding?

a)

Roseolous rash

b)

Gummatous infiltrates in organs

c)

Hard chancre

d)

"Necklace of Venus"

e)

Seborrhea

26.

Secondary syphilis is characterized by which manifestation?

a)

Allergic reactions of cellular type

b)

Nausea

c)

Neurological damage symptoms

d)

Rashes on the skin and mucous membranes

e)

Formation of a chancre

27.

Tertiary syphilis is characterized by which process?

a)

Formation of gummatous infiltrates

b)

Formation of the chancre

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Roseolous rash

e)

Nausea

28.

What structure ensures the infectivity of chlamydia?

a)

Taurus inclusions

b)

Glycogen bodies

c)

Elementary corpuscles

d)

Aggregated bodies

e)

Initial corpuscles

29.

For the cultivation of mycoplasmas, which antibiotic class is added to the nutrient medium?

a)

Beta‑lactams

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Macrolides

d)

Tetracyclines

e)

Glycopeptides

30.

Specific prevention of urogenital chlamydia: which statement is correct?

a)

Provides for administration of immunoglobulins

b)

Is not developed

c)

Based on isolation of patients

d)

Is fully effective

e)

Leads to lifelong immunity

31.

Type of respiration of urogenital mycoplasmas is best described as:

a)

Facultative anaerobes

b)

Obligate anaerobes

c)

Psychrophiles

d)

Microaerophiles

e)

Capnophiles

32.

Detection in serum of immunoglobulins M and G against Chlamydia trachomatis antigens indicates:

a)

Acute disease

b)

Chronic infection

c)

Carriage

d)

Post‑vaccination immunity

e)

Convalescence

33.

Urogenital mycoplasmosis of pregnant women most commonly leads to:

a)

Creation of passive immunity in the fetus

b)

Stillbirth

c)

Development of heart defects

d)

Development of the Hutchinson triad

e)

No teratogenic effect

34.

Recurrent typhoid occurs as which clinical course?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Septicopyemia

c)

Recurrent infection

d)

Secondary infection

e)

Reinfection

35.

The source of infection in endemic typhus is:

a)

People

b)

Horses

c)

Goats

d)

Amphibians

e)

Rodents

36.

The vector of infection in epidemic typhus is:

a)

Fleas

b)

Pliers

c)

Mosquitoes

d)

Lice

e)

Bugs

37.

Leptospira grow on nutrient media containing which component?

a)

Bismuth

b)

Serum

c)

Bile

d)

Protein

e)

Casein

38.

What property of Chlamydia trachomatis allows detection inside infected cells?

a)

Ability to cause fusion of infected cells

b)

Simple storage in tissues

c)

Formation of characteristic inclusions

d)

Presence of volutin granules

39.

The vector of infection in endemic typhus is:

a)

Fleas

b)

Ticks

c)

Mosquitoes

d)

Lice

e)

Bugs

40.

Specific prevention of epidemic typhus is carried out:

a)

Toxoid

b)

Phages

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Vaccine

e)

Interferons

41.

The main factor of pathogenicity of chlamydia:

a)

The lipopolysaccharide of the cell wall

b)

Acid resistance

c)

Anti-phagocytic activity

d)

Toxin with a membrane-damaging mechanism of action

e)

Enterotoxin

42.

By the type of respiration Mycoplasma is:

a)

Facultative anaerobes

b)

Obligate anaerobes

c)

Obligate aerobes

d)

Microaerophiles

e)

Capnophile

43.

The genus Ureaplasma differs from the genus Mycoplasma by ability:

a)

Form ammonia from urea

b)

Break down carbohydrates

c)

Form a cell wall

d)

Color by Gram

e)

Grow on nutrient media

44.

The alternation of attacks of fever and anorexia in recurrent typhoid fever is associated with:

a)

The ability of Borrelia to persist in the cytoplasm of phagocytes

b)

A decrease in the immune status

c)

The tendency of Borrelia to lose their pathogenic properties

d)

The formation of L-forms of bacteria

e)

Rapid formation of antibiotic resistance

45.

Four months after the operation, the doctor noted yellowing of the sclera, mucous membranes, and skin and found that the patient was transfused donor blood. What preliminary diagnosis did the doctor make to the patient?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Yersiniosis

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Sepsis

e)

Leptospirosis

46.

After suffering from hepatitis B, hepatocellular carcinoma developed in the patient. In what type of infection is the viral genome included in the genome of the host cell, causing cancer?

a)

Integrated

b)

Latent

c)

Abortive

d)

Acute

e)

Chronic

47.

During the epidemiological examination of the patients, the doctor found out that they were transfused a small amount of donor blood of one series during the treatment. What viral hepatitis is diagnosed in patients?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Hepatitis D (hepatitis Delta)

e)

Hepatitis E

48.

What high-sensitivity reaction should be used to test donor blood for the presence of hepatitis B antigens?

a)

Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay

b)

Radioimmunoassay

c)

Indirect hemagglutination reaction

d)

Complement binding reaction

e)

Indirect immune fluorescence reaction

49.

In a laboratory study of the material from a patient with jaundice, the doctor received the following data: HBsAg positive, HBeAg negative. What diagnosis did the doctor make based on the results?

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis B, history-hepatitis B

c)

Chronic hepatitis B with low replication activity

d)

Relapse of hepatitis B

e)

Repeated infection with hepatitis B

50.

In the genome of the smallpox vaccine virus, scientists have integrated the gene of the hepatitis B virus, which is responsible for the synthesis of HBsAg. The recombinant antivirus is planned to be used in a vaccine preparation. What type of vaccine does the vaccine thus obtained belong to?

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

Combined

c)

Associated

d)

Synthetic

e)

Chemical

51.

After examining the patient and according to the anamnesis, the doctor diagnosed the patient with hepatitis D (Delta). What result of laboratory research can confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Detection of hepatitis B and D markers in blood

b)

Detection of hepatitis A and B markers in blood

c)

Detection of hepatitis E and D markers in blood

d)

Detection of hepatitis C and D markers in blood

e)

Detection of hepatitis F and D markers in blood

52.

The patient has jaundice, fever, lack of appetite, and the liver is increased by 3 cm. What reaction, first of all, must be put to clarify the diagnosis?

a)

ELISA for HBs-antigen detection

b)

Vidal reaction

c)

Weil reaction

d)

Wasserman reaction

e)

RNGA with chlamydia diagnosticum

53.

In a 25-year-old patient, the doctor noted a fever and jaundice. In a laboratory study of the patient’s blood, the doctor did not detect either HBsAg or antibodies to HBsAg. Which of the additional tests can most reliably confirm infection with the hepatitis B pathogen?

a)

Detection of antibodies against HBsAg

b)

Identify HBsAg

c)

Detection of antibodies against HBeAg

d)

Revealing HBxAg

e)

Detection of Delta-antigen

54.

A patient was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital with complaints of general malaise, fever up to 38 °C, and jaundice. Given that a few months ago the patient received a blood transfusion, the doctor made a preliminary diagnosis of viral hepatitis B. What are the main methods of laboratory diagnosis of this disease?

a)

Serological and molecular genetic

b)

Virological: accumulation of virus in cell culture and indication of pathogen by CPD

c)

Detection of virions in blood by electron microscopy

d)

Virological: identification of virus in laboratory animals by neutralization reaction

e)

Virological: accumulation of virus in chicken embryo

55.

When checking the blood of one of the donors, the doctor identified HBsAg. The donor said that he had recently been treated and had been given a parenteral infusion of solutions. Evaluate the quality of donor blood for transfusion.

a)

Blood cannot be used for transfusion

b)

Blood can be used for transfusion

c)

For transfusion, you can only use blood plasma

d)

For transfusion, you can only use red blood cell mass

e)

Blood may be transfused only after pre-treatment

56.

In a patient with severe viral hepatitis, antibodies against the pathogens of hepatitis B and D were found in the blood. It is known that the Delta virus cannot reproduce itself in hepatocytes. By what process is it possible to reproduce the hepatitis D virus in the presence of the hepatitis B virus?

a)

Unilateral complementation of viruses

b)

Interference of viruses

c)

Genetic reactivation of defective viruses

d)

Phenotypic mixing

e)

Mutations in the genome of the Delta virus

57.

A patient presented with subfebrile temperature, malaise, and jaundice. From anamnesis, three months ago the patient underwent intravenous manipulation. The preliminary diagnosis is viral hepatitis. What studies should be conducted to confirm or reject the diagnosis?

a)

Determination of total HBs antigen in the patient's blood serum

b)

Bacteriological examination of the patient's feces

c)

Investigation of nasopharyngeal flush for the presence of the hepatitis A pathogen

d)

Investigation of nasopharyngeal flush for the presence of the hepatitis C pathogen

e)

Determination of the total pool of IgA

58.

A patient was admitted with general weakness, subfebrile temperature, and yellowing of the sclera and skin. Two weeks earlier the patient was resting at sea and eating seafood without thermal processing. Detection of which markers will confirm the diagnosis of acute hepatitis E?

a)

IgM anti-HAV

b)

IgM anti-HEV

c)

IgG anti-HEV

d)

IgG anti-HAV

e)

IgA anti-HEV

59.

Patient M. was admitted with general malaise, fever up to 38 °C, and jaundice. Given that a few months ago he received a blood transfusion, the doctor suspected hepatitis B. What are the main methods of laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B?

a)

Virus isolation on cell culture and identification by CPD

b)

Detection of virions in blood by electron microscopy

c)

Virus isolation in laboratory animals in RVN (viral neutralization reaction)

d)

Serological and gene diagnostics

e)

Virus isolation on chicken embryo

60.

In a 25-year-old patient, the doctor noted fever and jaundice. In a laboratory study of the patient’s blood, neither HBsAg nor antibodies to HBsAg were detected. Which additional test can most reliably confirm infection with the hepatitis B pathogen in this situation?

a)

Detection of antibodies against HBsAg

b)

Identify HBsAg

c)

Detection of antibodies against HBeAg

d)

Revealing HBxAg

e)

Detection of Delta-antigen

61.

After a laboratory examination of a patient with recurrent opportunistic infections, the doctor diagnosed HIV infection. The result of what study allowed the diagnosis to be confirmed?

a)

Result of ELISA

b)

Result of hemagglutination inhibition reaction

c)

Result of passive hemagglutination reaction

d)

Result of complement binding reaction

62.

In a laboratory study of the patient’s blood serum using ELISA, the virologist identified antibodies to HIV. What additional research is needed to confirm the diagnosis of HIV infection?

a)

The study of blood serum using immunoblotting

b)

Immunofluorescence reaction

c)

In-depth immunological examination

d)

The study of blood serum in the reaction of immunodiffusion

e)

Electron microscopic examination of blood cells

63.

In order to test the blood of donors for the presence of hepatitis b antigens, it is necessary to apply highly sensitive methods. Which of these reactions should be applied to this purpose?

a)

Immunoelectrophoresis

b)

Indirect hemagglutination

c)

ELISA

d)

Complement bindings

e)

Passive immunofluorescence

64.

In a patient, disease is caused by the hepatitis B virus, which interacts with the cell in an integrative type. Specify the characteristic of the interaction of the virus with the cell in an integrative type of infection.

a)

Nucleic acid is embedded in the cell chromosome and exists there as a provirus (can lead to changes in hereditary variability)

b)

The virus reproduction cycle is blocked at one stage and no new virions are formed

c)

The virus in the cell functions autonomously, forming new virions

d)

The virus enters the cell and dies under the action of lysosomal enzymes

e)

The virus enters the host cell nucleus and amplifies the virus

65.

Using immunoblotting, a virologist revealed antibodies to one of the HIV proteins gp41 in a patient with suspected HIV infection. The result was rated as dubious. What research should be done to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

IFA

b)

Examine the immunogram

c)

RSK

d)

The reaction of radioimmunoprecipitation

e)

Rnga

66.

When examining a 16-year-old drug addict, the doctor revealed sharp weight loss, swollen lymph nodes, low-grade fever, and prolonged diarrhea. The preliminary diagnosis is AIDS. Which study will finally confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Immunoblotting

b)

Indirect hemagglutination reaction

c)

Radioimmune analysis

d)

Linked immunosorbent assay

e)

ELISA

67.

In the initial study of the material from the patient, the virologist used an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay and revealed the patient's antibodies to HIV. What should the doctor do next?

a)

Conduct confirmatory diagnostics using immunoblotting

b)

Prescribe antiretroviral therapy

c)

Re-examine the material after 1 year

d)

Accumulate virus in cell culture

e)

Diagnose with tuberculin

68.

In an 18-year-old boy, the doctor revealed an increase in inguinal lymph nodes, prolonged low-grade fever and candidiasis of the oral cavity. Indicate the most reliable laboratory study that will confirm the fact of infection of the patient with HIV infection.

a)

Western blotting

b)

Radioimmune analysis

c)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for the detection of antibodies

d)

ELISA

e)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for the detection of antigens

69.

When studying the immune status of an AIDS patient, it is necessary to determine the level of T-helpers. What reaction will make it possible to identify these cells?

a)

ELISA with labeled monoclonal antibodies

b)

The reaction of rosette formation with sheep erythrocytes

c)

The reaction of rosette formation with red blood cells loaded with C3 complement fraction

d)

Rosette reaction with erythrocytes loaded with IgG

e)

ELISA with labeled antibody-lymphocyte immunoglobulins

70.

When examining a young man at the AIDS Center, the patient received a positive ELISA with HIV antigens. Complaints about the patient’s state of health are absent. What does a positive ELISA testify to?

a)

About HIV infection

b)

About AIDS

c)

About infection with the causative agent of hepatitis B

d)

About the past AIDS disease

e)

About the persistence of the hepatitis B pathogen

71.

To diagnose a patient with HIV infection, the virologist examined the blood serum to detect specific antibodies using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. What enzyme-labeled antibodies were used?

a)

Against human immunoglobulins

b)

Against HIV antigens

c)

Against glycoprotein gp120

d)

Against protein p17

e)

Against glycoprotein gp41

72.

In a patient with pneumonia in sputum, a virologist revealed Pneumocystis carinii. Exceptionally, for what infectious disease can this etiological form of pneumonia develop?

a)

For HIV infection

b)

With the plague

c)

With ornithosis

d)

With Legionellosis

e)

With Q fever

73.

A woman, 35 years old, went to the doctor with complaints of general weakness, fatigue and swollen lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy). From the anamnesis, the doctor found out that the patient had been taking drugs parenterally for several years. Serological blood tests (ELISA) revealed antibodies to HIV 1 in a patient. Repeated blood tests gave a positive result. What should be the actions of a doctor to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Put the reaction of immunoblotting (western blotting)

b)

Immediately examine all sexual partners in order to identify HIV-infected people

c)

The diagnosis does not require confirmation

d)

Put the Vidal reaction

e)

Put Wasserman reaction

74.

At a blood transfusion station in the blood serum of one of the donors, the doctor identified antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus. What research does a virologist need to apply to confirm the diagnosis of HIV infection?

a)

Western blotting (immunoblotting)

b)

Electron microscopy

c)

Linked immunosorbent assay

d)

ELISA

e)

Radioimmunoassay