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Nursing NJMM

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (NCJMM) in nursing practice?

a)

To provide a structured approach to clinical decision-making and improve patient outcomes

b)

To increase the number of nurses in a hospital

c)

To reduce the amount of paperwork for nurses

d)

To eliminate the need for patient assessments

2.

What is the first step in the NCJMM process for clinical decision-making?

a)

Taking action

b)

Recognizing cues

c)

Evaluation

d)

Generating solutions

3.

Which activity is most closely associated with the "Analysis" component of the NCJMM?

a)

Administering medications

b)

Interpreting lab results, vital signs, and patient symptoms

c)

Monitoring patient outcomes

d)

Brainstorming interventions

4.

A nurse is faced with multiple patient issues. According to the NCJMM, what should the nurse do after recognizing cues and analyzing data?

a)

Evaluate the effectiveness of interventions

b)

Determine the most urgent patient problem

c)

Administer medications

d)

Assign tasks to other staff

5.

Which of the following is a risk associated with delegation in nursing?

a)

Improved patient outcomes

b)

Loss of accountability for the outcome

c)

Enhanced teamwork

d)

Increased efficiency

6.

How does the CJMM promote critical thinking among nurses?

a)

By encouraging continuous evaluation and improvement of care

b)

By reducing the need for patient assessments

c)

By focusing only on administrative tasks

d)

By limiting the use of evidence-based practice

7.

Which step in the CJMM involves assessing the effectiveness of interventions and adjusting care plans as needed?

a)

Taking action

b)

Evaluation

c)

Generating solutions

d)

Recognizing cues

8.

A nurse is planning care for a patient using the CJMM. Which of the following actions demonstrates the use of evidence-based practice?

a)

Generating solutions based on current research and best practices

b)

Assigning tasks without considering patient needs

c)

Ignoring patient feedback

d)

Relying solely on intuition

9.

Which of the following is a potential risk if tasks are delegated to unqualified individuals in a nursing setting?

a)

Improved efficiency and productivity

b)

Enhanced job satisfaction

c)

Potential for errors

d)

More time for nurses to focus on complex tasks

10.

What is one benefit of delegation in nursing practice?

a)

Decreased quality of care

b)

Legal liability

c)

Improved efficiency and productivity

d)

Increased supervision requirements

11.

Which step in the Nursing Care Plan Sheet involves listing relevant patient data?

a)

Analyze

b)

Recognize cues

c)

Evaluate

d)

Prioritize

12.

A nurse is using the Nursing Care Plan Sheet and needs to identify the most urgent patient problem. Which step is this?

a)

Take action

b)

Prioritize

c)

Generate solutions

d)

Evaluate

13.

Which of the following best describes the attitude of intellectual humility in critical thinking for nurses?

a)

Willingness to consider new ideas and perspectives

b)

Recognizing the limits of one's knowledge and being open to correction

c)

Persistence in solving problems

d)

Desire to seek out new information

14.

Which core element of critical thinking in nursing involves drawing conclusions from available information?

a)

Analysis of information

b)

Inference and interpretation

c)

Self-regulation and reflection

d)

Explanation of reasoning

15.

A nurse is faced with a complex patient care situation and must use evidence-based decision-making. Which characteristic of effective clinical judgment is being demonstrated?

a)

Adaptability to changing situations

b)

Sound reasoning based on knowledge and experience

c)

Evidence-based decision-making

d)

Pattern recognition

16.

Which cognitive process helps nurses identify familiar clinical presentations?

a)

Pattern recognition

b)

Evaluation of evidence

c)

Perseverance

d)

Open-mindedness

17.

How does the structured approach of using the Nursing Care Plan Sheet promote critical thinking in nursing practice?

a)

By increasing legal liability

b)

By ensuring comprehensive care planning

c)

By reducing job satisfaction

d)

By limiting team member skill development

18.

Which attitude is essential for critical thinking in nursing and involves persistence in solving problems and overcoming obstacles?

a)

Curiosity

b)

Perseverance

c)

Open-mindedness

d)

Intellectual humility

19.

Which of the following best describes the process of clinical reasoning in nursing practice?

a)

The cognitive process of analyzing clinical information to make decisions

b)

The act of recalling medical terminology

c)

The process of documenting patient billing information

d)

The act of administering medication to patients

20.

What is the primary benefit of delegating vital sign monitoring to a nursing assistant?

a)

Allows the RN to focus on more complex patient care tasks

b)

Reduces the need for patient documentation

c)

Increases the number of staff required per shift

d)

Eliminates the need for supervision by the RN

21.

Which of the following is a risk associated with assigning medication administration to an LPN/LVN?

a)

Increased potential for medication errors if communication is poor

b)

Decreased patient satisfaction due to lack of attention

c)

Reduced efficiency in workload distribution

d)

Increased cost of patient care

22.

When evaluating outcomes in nursing practice, what is the main goal?

a)

Assessing the effectiveness of interventions and adjusting care plans accordingly

b)

Collecting baseline data for future reference

c)

Formulating new hypotheses for patient diagnosis

d)

Selecting interventions based on patient preferences alone

23.

A nurse is considering past experiences to inform current patient care decisions. Which critical thinking process is the nurse using?

a)

Reflection

b)

Hypothesis testing

c)

Setting goals

d)

Implementation

24.

Which of the following best illustrates evidence-based practice in nursing?

a)

Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values

b)

Relying solely on traditional methods of care

c)

Making decisions based on personal opinions

d)

Following only the physician’s orders without question

25.

A nurse is tasked with developing individualized care plans and promoting accountability. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

a)

Planning (Generating solutions)

b)

Assessment (Recognizing cues)

c)

Diagnosis (Analysis)

d)

Evaluation (Evaluation)

26.

Which scenario presents a risk of missed early warning signs if the assistant is not properly trained?

a)

Delegating vital sign monitoring to a nursing assistant

b)

Assigning medication administration to an LPN/LVN

c)

Delegating patient education to a patient care technician

d)

Allowing the RN to perform all patient care tasks

27.

What is the main focus of patient-centered care?

a)

Focusing on individual patient needs, preferences, and values

b)

Ensuring all patients receive the same standard care

c)

Prioritizing hospital policies over patient wishes

d)

Reducing the length of hospital stays

28.

Which of the following is an example of formulating hypotheses in nursing practice?

a)

Developing potential nursing diagnoses based on collected data

b)

Systematically gathering patient information

c)

Establishing measurable, patient-centered outcomes

d)

Choosing evidence-based nursing actions

29.

Which of the following best describes how the musculoskeletal and nervous systems work together to regulate movement?

a)

The musculoskeletal system alone controls all movement without input from the nervous system.

b)

The nervous system contracts and relaxes muscles, while the musculoskeletal system transmits signals.

c)

The musculoskeletal system provides structure, while the nervous system transmits signals from the brain to muscles for coordinated movement.

d)

The nervous system only controls involuntary movements, while the musculoskeletal system controls voluntary movements.

30.

Which of the following is a physiological change associated with immobility?

a)

Increased bone density

b)

Muscle atrophy

c)

Improved circulation

d)

Enhanced respiratory function

31.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with osteoarthritis. Which strategy would best help the patient maintain mobility and prevent muscle weakness?

a)

Encourage complete bed rest

b)

Emphasize the importance of maintaining activity

c)

Advise the patient to avoid all exercise

d)

Recommend only high-impact exercise

32.

Which of the following is considered an extrinsic fall risk factor?

a)

Age

b)

Chronic conditions

c)

Impaired vision

d)

Improper footwear

33.

What is the primary benefit of reinforcing key information through multiple team members in a healthcare setting?

a)

It increases the risk of miscommunication.

b)

It ensures that only one person is responsible for information.

c)

It reinforces key information and improves team communication.

d)

It eliminates the need for supervision.

34.

When educating patients about osteoarthritis, why is it important to explain joint inflammation and cartilage breakdown?

a)

To encourage patients to avoid all movement

b)

To help patients understand the cause of their pain and decreased movement

c)

To convince patients that medication is unnecessary

d)

To promote high-impact exercise

35.

Which intervention is evidence-based for promoting mobility in patients?

a)

Early mobilization

b)

Complete bed rest

c)

Restricting all movement

d)

Avoiding strength training

36.

A nurse is assessing a patient's risk for falls. Which intrinsic factor should the nurse consider?

a)

Environmental hazards

b)

Lack of assistive devices

c)

Medication side effects

d)

Improper footwear

37.

Which of the following is a key intervention to prevent patient falls in a healthcare setting?

a)

Ensure clear pathways

b)

Limit lighting in patient rooms

c)

Discourage the use of ambulatory aids

d)

Ignore hourly rounding

38.

After a patient has experienced a fall, which sequence of nursing actions is most appropriate?

a)

Assess for injuries, notify physician, document incident, reassess fall risk, adjust care plan

b)

Notify physician, document incident, assess for injuries, adjust care plan, reassess fall risk

c)

Document incident, assess for injuries, notify physician, adjust care plan, reassess fall risk

d)

Adjust care plan, reassess fall risk, notify physician, assess for injuries, document incident

39.

Which principle is essential for proper body mechanics when lifting a patient?

a)

Bend knees and hips, not back

b)

Keep legs straight and bend at the waist

c)

Use arms only for lifting

d)

Stand with feet together

40.

A patient requires a mobility device due to mild balance issues. Which device is most appropriate?

a)

Single-point or quad-cane

b)

Walker

c)

Wheelchair

d)

Crutches

41.

What is the main difference between active and passive range of motion exercises?

a)

Active: Patient moves joints independently; Passive: Caregiver moves joints

b)

Active: Caregiver moves joints; Passive: Patient moves joints independently

c)

Active: Only upper body is exercised; Passive: Only lower body is exercised

d)

Active: Used for unconscious patients; Passive: Used for athletes

42.

Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose of using restraints in a healthcare setting?

a)

Prevent falls

b)

Protect medical devices

c)

Manage violent behavior

d)

Increase patient mobility

43.

A nurse is teaching a patient to use a walker. Which instruction is most important for patient safety?

a)

Ensure the patient can safely navigate various surfaces

b)

Adjust the walker to the lowest possible height

c)

Encourage the patient to walk quickly

d)

Instruct the patient to use the walker only on carpeted floors

44.

Why is it important to maintain a wide base of support when lifting or moving patients?

a)

It increases stability and reduces risk of injury

b)

It makes lifting faster

c)

It allows for more flexibility in movement

d)

It is required by hospital policy

45.

Which action best supports proper patient body alignment?

a)

Maintain proper spinal alignment

b)

Place pillows only under the head

c)

Allow the patient to slouch in bed

d)

Ignore joint positioning

46.

When fitting a cane for a patient, where should the top of the cane be when the patient is standing?

a)

At the patient's wrist crease

b)

At the patient's elbow

c)

At the patient's shoulder

d)

At the patient's hip

47.

Which of the following is a physiological hazard associated with the use of restraints?

a)

Skin breakdown

b)

Improved circulation

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Enhanced mobility

48.

Which of the following is considered an alternative to physical restraints in patient care?

a)

Bed/chair alarms

b)

Physical punishment

c)

Sedative medication

d)

Restrictive clothing

49.

According to proper restraint techniques, what is the most important principle to follow?

a)

Use the least restrictive option

b)

Apply restraints as tightly as possible

c)

Ignore manufacturer’s instructions

d)

Use restraints for convenience

50.

How often should monitoring and documentation occur when a patient is restrained?

a)

Every 2 hours minimum

b)

Once per shift

c)

Every 8 hours

d)

Only when the patient complains

51.

Which of the following best describes the process of diffusion in the pulmonary organs?

a)

Gas exchange between alveoli and capillaries

b)

Movement of air in and out of the lungs

c)

Blood flow through pulmonary capillaries

d)

Production of mucus in the airways

52.

A patient with a SpO2 of 92% and wheezing breath sounds is demonstrating which of the following?

a)

Abnormal oxygenation features

b)

Normal oxygenation features

c)

No need for further assessment

d)

Improved lung compliance

53.

Which psychological factors can influence respiration and gas exchange?

a)

Anxiety and pain

b)

Blood pH and airway resistance

c)

Chest wall movement and tactile fremitus

d)

Alveolar diffusion and perfusion

54.

When performing a respiratory assessment, what does palpation help evaluate?

a)

Chest wall movement and tactile fremitus

b)

Breath sounds and oxygen saturation

c)

Blood flow and gas exchange

d)

Respiratory rate and depth

55.

A patient is restrained due to risk of falls. Develop a monitoring plan that ensures patient safety and minimizes physiological hazards. Which steps should be included?

a)

Check every 2 hours, assess skin integrity, ensure circulation, document all findings

b)

Check once daily, avoid documentation, ignore skin assessment

c)

Apply restraints tightly, check only if patient complains, no documentation needed

d)

Monitor only respiratory rate, ignore other assessments

56.

A patient presents with an altered respiratory rate, SpO2 of 93%, and crackles on auscultation. What should your next steps be in assessing and managing this patient?

a)

Further assess for underlying causes, monitor closely, and consider interventions to improve oxygenation

b)

Ignore the findings as they are not significant

c)

Increase physical activity without further assessment

d)

Only document the findings without taking action

57.

Which of the following is a priority problem when assessing a patient with respiratory issues?

a)

Ineffective airway clearance

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Bradycardia

58.

Which intervention is most appropriate to improve oxygenation in a patient with impaired gas exchange?

a)

Position the patient for optimal lung expansion

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Administer antihypertensive medication

d)

Encourage bed rest

59.

Which of the following is a common pharmacotherapy agent used as a bronchodilator for asthma or COPD?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Prednisone

60.

A patient presents with cyanosis, confusion, and SpO2 less than 90%. Which problem is most likely present?

a)

Impaired gas exchange

b)

Hypertensive crisis

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Renal failure

61.

Which oxygen administration method delivers the highest flow rate?

a)

Non-rebreather mask

b)

Nasal cannula

c)

Simple mask

d)

Venturi mask

62.

A nurse is teaching a patient with ineffective breathing patterns. Which technique should be included to help the patient?

a)

Pursed-lip breathing

b)

Rapid shallow breathing

c)

Holding breath for long periods

d)

Avoiding deep breaths

63.

Why is it important to monitor SpO2 and ABGs in patients with impaired gas exchange?

a)

To assess oxygenation and guide therapy decisions

b)

To check for blood sugar levels

c)

To monitor liver function

d)

To evaluate kidney filtration rate

64.

Which intervention is most appropriate for ineffective airway clearance?

a)

Teach effective coughing techniques

b)

Encourage fluid restriction

c)

Administer antihypertensive medication

d)

Promote bed rest only

65.

Which medication is classified as an expectorant and is used to help clear respiratory secretions?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Albuterol

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Prednisone

66.

A patient with excessive respiratory secretions is having difficulty clearing their airway. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Perform chest physiotherapy

b)

Encourage bed rest

c)

Administer antihypertensive medication

d)

Restrict oxygen therapy

67.

A patient is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following actions demonstrates strategic thinking in evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy?

a)

Assessing changes in respiratory rate, depth, and effort

b)

Simply recording the oxygen flow rate

c)

Asking the patient if they feel better

d)

Checking the equipment once at the start of the shift

68.

Which of the following is an appropriate target for maintaining FiO2 in most patients to minimize oxygen toxicity?

a)

Less than 60%

b)

Greater than 80%

c)

Exactly 100%

d)

Between 70% and 90%

69.

When monitoring a patient on oxygen therapy, which parameter should be regularly checked to assess oxygenation status?

a)

SpO2 and ABGs

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Heart murmur

d)

Skin turgor

70.

Which of the following is a sign that a patient’s respiratory status is improving?

a)

Improved mental status and reduced dyspnea

b)

Increased respiratory rate and confusion

c)

Decreased SpO2 and increased anxiety

d)

Worsening cyanosis and lethargy

71.

Why is it important to ensure proper equipment functioning when providing oxygen therapy?

a)

To ensure the patient receives the prescribed oxygen concentration

b)

To make the equipment look clean

c)

To reduce the workload for nurses

d)

To avoid unnecessary paperwork

72.

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic factor that increases a patient's risk for falls?

a)

Impaired vision

b)

Chronic illness

c)

Cluttered environment

d)

Muscle weakness

73.

What is the primary purpose of using gait belts when assisting patients with mobility?

a)

To provide patient comfort

b)

To prevent falls and ensure safe transfers

c)

To increase walking speed

d)

To replace the need for assistive devices

74.

Which action should a nurse take first when a patient is found on the floor after a fall?

a)

Move the patient back to bed immediately

b)

Document the incident before providing care

c)

Assess the patient for injuries

d)

Notify the physician before assessing

75.

Which of the following best demonstrates the use of self-regulation in nursing critical thinking?

a)

Reviewing and reflecting on one’s own clinical decisions to improve future practice

b)

Following physician orders without question

c)

Relying solely on intuition for patient care

d)

Delegating all tasks to nursing assistants

76.

What is the primary purpose of using standardized assessment tools in nursing practice?

a)

To ensure consistent and objective evaluation of patient status

b)

To reduce the need for documentation

c)

To limit patient involvement in care decisions

d)

To replace clinical judgment entirely