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Page 1

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old male presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. Laboratory results show elevated serum amylase and lipase. He is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. A defect in which of the following processes is most likely responsible for the initial digestion of dietary triacylglycerols in the small intestine?

a)

Action of lingual lipase

b)

Emulsification by bile salts

c)

Action of hormone-sensitive lipase

d)

Hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase

2.

A 10-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of difficulty seeing at night and a staggering gait. Physical exam reveals retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia. Laboratory tests show an accumulation of phytanic acid. Deficiency in which of the following pathways is the primary cause?

a)

β-oxidation

b)

ω-oxidation

c)

α-oxidation

d)

Ketogenesis

3.

A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with "fruity" breath and altered mental status. In the liver, which of the following serves as the direct precursor for the synthesis of acetoacetate during ketogenesis?

a)

Malonyl-CoA

b)

HMG-CoA

c)

Mevalonate

d)

Succinyl-CoA

4.

A newborn infant is diagnosed with a deficiency of carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I). Which of the following clinical findings is most likely expected?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoketotic hypoglycemia

c)

Elevated plasma carnitine

d)

High levels of dicarboxylic acids in urine

5.

Calculate the net energy yield (ATP) from the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of Palmitic acid (C16) according to recent biochemical standards (Lippincott).

a)

129 ATP

b)

106 ATP

c)

131 ATP

d)

96 ATP

6.

A patient presents with xanthomas and a high risk of atherosclerosis. Lab work shows elevated LDL. Which apolipoprotein is responsible for the recognition of LDL by its receptor in peripheral tissues?

a)

Apo A-I

b)

Apo B-48

c)

Apo B-100

d)

Apo C-II

7.

Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme in fatty acid synthesis that is allosterically activated by Citrate?

a)

Fatty acid synthase

b)

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

c)

Thiolase

d)

Malic enzyme

8.

A 6-month-old infant presents with developmental delay and a cherry-red spot on the macula. There is no hepatosplenomegaly. Which enzyme is most likely deficient?

a)

Hexosaminidase A

b)

Sphingomyelinase

c)

β-Glucocerebrosidase

d)

α-Galactosidase

9.

In the "Fed State," which hormone promotes the dephosphorylation and activation of Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Insulin

d)

Cortisol

10.

A 65-year-old man takes low-dose Aspirin daily to prevent myocardial infarction. Aspirin achieves this by irreversibly inhibiting COX-1 in platelets, leading to decreased levels of:

a)

Prostacyclin ( PGI2PGI_2 )

b)

Thromboxane A2 ( TXA2TXA_2 )

11.

A patient with asthma is treated with Zileuton. This drug acts by inhibiting which of the following enzymes?

a)

Cyclooxygenase

b)

5-Lipoxygenase

c)

Phospholipase A

d)

Thromboxane synthase

12.

During an acute inflammatory response, which mediator is primarily responsible for causing pain?

a)

Histamine

b)

Bradykinin

c)

C5a

d)

Leukotriene C

13.

A biopsy of a chronic skin lesion shows a collection of activated macrophages (epithelioid cells) surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes. This is characteristic of:

a)

Serous inflammation

b)

Fibrinous inflammation

c)

Granulomatous inflammation

d)

Purulent inflammation

14.

A patient is prescribed Prednisone for an autoimmune condition. Steroids reduce inflammation primarily by inhibiting which enzyme to prevent the release of Arachidonic acid?

a)

COX-2

b)

Lipoxygenase

c)

Phospholipase A2

15.

Which cytokine is most important in the formation and maintenance of a granuloma?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-10

c)

TNF-α

d)

IL-4

16.

In the process of wound healing, "granulation tissue" is characterized by:

a)

Large numbers of neutrophils

b)

Proliferation of fibroblasts and new capillaries

c)

Dense collagen scars

d)

Epithelial thinning

17.

A child presents with an allergic reaction after a bee sting. Which mediator released from mast cells causes immediate vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?

a)

Histamine

b)

Interleukin-6

c)

C-reactive protein

d)

Interferon-gamma

18.

A patient suffers from glaucoma and is prescribed Latanoprost. This drug is an analogue of:

a)

TXA 22

b)

PGF 2α2\alpha

c)

PGE

19.

A 70-year-old male with tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity is diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. This condition is primarily due to the loss of neurons producing:

a)

Serotonin in the Raphe nuclei

b)

Dopamine in the Substantia nigra

c)

Acetylcholine in the Nucleus basalis of Meynert

d)

GABA in the Striatum

20.

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a commonly used antidepressant. Its mechanism of action is:

a)

Inhibition of MAO-A

b)

Selective inhibition of serotonin reuptake (SSRI)

c)

Blockade of D2 receptors

d)

Agonism at GABA-A receptors

21.

Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory signal in the adult spinal cord?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Glycine

c)

Aspartate

d)

Norepinephrine

22.

A patient presents with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils after a suspected overdose. Which drug is the most appropriate antidote?

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Naloxone

c)

Atropine

d)

Physostigmine

23.

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of GABA by increasing the:

a)

Duration of chloride channel opening

b)

Frequency of chloride channel opening

c)

Reuptake of GABA

d)

Synthesis of GABA

24.

Which opioid receptor is primarily responsible for the supraspinal analgesic and euphoric effects of morphine?

a)

Kappa (κ)

b)

Delta (δ)

c)

Mu (μ)

d)

Sigma (σ)

25.

A 25-year-old student uses Methylphenidate to stay awake. This drug acts primarily by:

a)

Increasing the release of catecholamines (NE and DA)

b)

Blocking muscarinic receptors

c)

Activating GABA receptors

d)

Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

26.

Acetylcholine is terminated in the synaptic cleft primarily by:

a)

Reuptake into the presynaptic neuron

b)

Diffusion into the blood

c)

Enzymatic degradation by acetylcholinesterase

d)

Uptake by glial cells

27.

A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed Haloperidol. This drug’s antipsychotic effect is mainly due to the blockade of:

a)

5-HT2 receptors

b)

D2 receptors

c)

α receptors

28.

Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from the amino acid Tryptophan?

a)

Melatonin

b)

Serotonin

c)

Both A and B

d)

Epinephrine

29.

A 68-year-old man presents with sudden onset weakness on the right side of his body and difficulty speaking. A CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b)

Ischemic stroke

c)

Intracerebral hemorrhage

d)

Subdural hematoma

30.

A 3-year-old child presents with high fever, neck stiffness, and a positive Brudzinski sign. Lumbar puncture shows high neutrophils, low glucose, and high protein. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Fungal meningitis

c)

Bacterial meningitis

d)

Tuberculous meningitis

31.

An 80-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss and disorientation. Brain autopsy reveals neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques. This is characteristic of:

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

Alzheimer's disease

c)

Vascular dementia

d)

Pick's disease

32.

A young man is involved in a motor vehicle accident. He had a brief period of unconsciousness, followed by a "lucid interval," and then rapid clinical deterioration. A CT scan shows a lens-shaped (biconvex) hematoma. This is:

a)

Subdural hematoma

b)

Epidural hematoma

c)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

Berry aneurysm rupture

33.

A "thunderclap headache" (the worst headache of my life) is the classic presentation of:

a)

Migraine

b)

Tension headache

c)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

Temporal arteritis

34.

In epilepsy, a seizure that involves both hemispheres from the onset with loss of consciousness is termed:

a)

Simple partial seizure

b)

Complex partial seizure

c)

Generalized seizure

d)

Absence seizure

35.

Which of the following is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Group B Streptococcus

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

36.

A patient with chronic hypertension suddenly develops a severe headache and collapses. CT shows blood within the brain parenchyma of the basal ganglia. This is most likely:

a)

Embolic stroke

b)

Lacunar infarct

c)

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

d)

Venous sinus thrombosis

37.

Cerebral Palsy is primarily a:

a)

Progressive neurodegenerative disease

b)

Non-progressive motor impairment due to early brain insult

c)

Genetic disorder of muscle metabolism

d)

Result of vitamin deficiency in adulthood

38.

Status epilepticus is defined as a seizure lasting longer than:

a)

1 minute

b)

5 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

39.

The p53 protein is often called the "guardian of the genome." It primarily functions as a:

a)

Proto-oncogene

b)

Tumor suppressor gene

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Growth factor

40.

Which of the following is an example of a proto-oncogene that becomes an oncogene through a point mutation in many human cancers?

a)

RB1

b)

RAS

c)

BRCA1

d)

APC

41.

A 50-year-old man with a long history of smoking presents with a cough and weight loss. Lab tests show elevated Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA). While not specific, CEA is often used as a marker for:

a)

Prostate cancer

b)

Colon cancer

c)

Liver cancer

d)

Ovarian cancer

42.

Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes significantly increase the risk of which cancers?

a)

Lung and Liver

b)

Breast and Ovary

c)

Colon and Rectum

d)

Skin and Bone

43.

The Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)) creates the BCR–ABL fusion protein, which is a:

a)

Constitutively active tyrosine kinase

b)

Nuclear receptor

c)

Transcription factor

d)

Phosphatase

44.

Which tumor marker is most associated with yolk sac tumors and hepatocellular carcinoma?

a)

PSA

b)

CA-125

c)

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

d)

hCG

45.

In the "Two-Hit Hypothesis" for tumor suppressor genes, what must happen for a tumor to develop?

a)

One allele must be mutated

b)

Both alleles must be inactivated

c)

The gene must be overexpressed

d)

A virus must insert a promoter

46.

Which gene is mutated in almost all cases of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)?

a)

MYC

b)

APC

c)

ERBB2 (HER2)

d)

VHL

47.

Apoptosis is regulated by the Bcl-2 family. Which of the following is a pro-apoptotic member?

a)

Bcl-2

b)

Bcl-xL

c)

Bax

d)

Mcl-1

48.

Telomerase activity in cancer cells allows them to:

a)

Undergo apoptosis

b)

Maintain telomere length and achieve immortality

c)

Repair double-strand breaks

d)

Stop the cell cycle at G1

49.

A child is given a sticker every time they finish their homework. This is an example of:

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Negative reinforcement

d)

Punishment

50.

In Pavlov’s experiment, the ringing of the bell (after being paired with food) is the:

a)

Unconditioned stimulus

b)

Conditioned stimulus

c)

Unconditioned response

d)

Conditioned response

51.

According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, which memory stage has a duration of about 15-30 seconds?

a)

Sensory memory

b)

Short-term memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Procedural memory

52.

"Chunking" is a technique used to improve the capacity of:

a)

Sensory memory

b)

Short-term memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Implicit memory

53.

Primary prevention of mental illness includes:

a)

Early diagnosis and screening

b)

Reducing the incidence by controlling risk factors

c)

Rehabilitation of chronic patients

d)

Providing halfway houses

54.

Epidemiology: The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period is the:

a)

Prevalence

b)

Incidence

c)

Mortality rate

d)

Attack rate

55.

A patient learns to avoid a specific food after getting sick once. This is known as:

a)

Operant extinction

b)

Taste aversion (Classical conditioning)

c)

Observational learning

d)

Habituation

56.

Which type of memory involves facts and events that can be consciously recalled?

a)

Procedural memory

b)

Declarative (Explicit) memory

c)

Non-declarative memory

d)

Priming

57.

A man stops nagging his wife after she finally cleans the house. From the wife's perspective, the removal of the nagging is:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Negative punishment

58.

The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states in specified populations is:

a)

Sociology

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Biostatistics

d)

Psychology

59.

During implantation, which cells of the blastocyst secrete enzymes to invade the uterine endometrium?

a)

Epiblast

b)

Syncytiotrophoblast

c)

Cytotrophoblast

d)

Hypoblast

60.

What is the "decidua reaction"?

a)

The shedding of the endometrium during menses

b)

Changes in the endometrium to support the embryo, involving lipid and glycogen accumulation

c)

The formation of the yolk sac

d)

The fusion of the amnion and chorion

61.

The epidermis of the skin is derived from which embryonic layer?

a)

Surface ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural crest

62.

Melanocytes, which give skin its pigment, are derived from:

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neural crest cells

d)

Basal layer of ectoderm

63.

A "vernix caseosa" is:

a)

A type of skin cancer

b)

A fatty white substance coating the skin of a newborn

c)

A congenital mole

d)

The first hair of the fetus

64.

In the histology of acute inflammation, which cell type is the first to arrive at the site of injury?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Plasma cell

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Macrophage

65.

The dermis of the skin (except for the face) is derived from:

a)

Lateral plate mesoderm and paraxial mesoderm (dermatomes)

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural tube

66.

Fingernails and toenails reach the tips of the digits by which month of gestation?

a)

3rd month

b)

5th month

c)

9th month

d)

1st month

67.

Ichthyosis is a genetic disorder characterized by:

a)

Absence of sweat glands

b)

Excessive keratinization of the skin (fish-like scales)

c)

Lack of melanin

d)

Fluid-filled blisters

68.

Which layer of the epidermis contains cells undergoing mitosis?

a)

Stratum corneum

b)

Stratum lucidum

c)

Stratum basale

d)

Stratum granulosum

69.

Mixed Clinical/Integration — A patient with a Vitamin B12 deficiency has impaired myelin synthesis. In which part of the CNS is myelin produced?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Astrocytes

70.

Mixed Clinical/Integration — A patient with G6PD deficiency develops hemolysis after taking an antimalarial drug. This is because they cannot generate enough:

a)

NADH

b)

NADPH

c)

FADH2

d)

ATP

71.

Mixed Clinical/Integration — The primary fuel for the brain during prolonged starvation (after 3 days) is:

a)

Glucose

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Ketone bodies

d)

Branched-chain amino acids

72.

Mixed Clinical/Integration — Which of the following drugs is a "selective" COX-2 inhibitor?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Naproxen

d)

Indomethacin

73.

An infant is born with a tuft of hair over the lumbar spine (Spina Bifida Occulta). This is a defect in the closure of the:

a)

Neural tube

b)

Vertebral arches

c)

Ventral body wall

d)

Pleuroperitoneal membrane

74.

In the "Fast State," the liver produces glucose via

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

c)

Lipogenesis

d)

Pentose phosphate pathway

75.

Which neurotransmitter's depletion is most associated with Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Serotonin

76.

A patient has a "pill-rolling" tremor. Which part of the brain is the primary site of pathology?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Basal ganglia

c)

Motor cortex

d)

Medulla oblongata

77.

Which of the following is a classic mediator of "acute phase response" and fever?

a)

IL-1 and TNF

b)

IL-10

c)

TGF-beta

d)

Interferon-alpha

78.

A 2-year-old boy presents with intellectual disability and self-mutilation (biting lips/fingers). Lab shows hyperuricemia. This is Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, a defect in

a)

Purine de novo synthesis

b)

Purine salvage pathway (HGPRT)

c)

Pyrimidine synthesis

d)

Urea cycle