wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Clinical Parasitology

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the motile, feeding, and reproducing stage of protozoa called?

a)

Oocyst

b)

Cyst

c)

Trophozoite

d)

Ova

2.

Which amoeba genera have chromatoidal bodies in the cyst stage?

a)

Dientamoeba and Entamoeba

b)

Endolimax and Dientamoeba

c)

Iodamoeba and Entamoeba

d)

Endolimax and Iodamoeba

3.

Amoebiasis is primarily caused by which organism?

a)

Endolimax nana

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Iodamoeba butschlii

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

4.

Extraintestinal amoebiasis most commonly involves which organ?

a)

Lungs

b)

Brain

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver

5.

Which statement characterizes true amoebae?

a)

Peripheral chromatin on the nuclear body

b)

None of the statements are correct

c)

Chromatin bodies in the trophozoite

d)

Include pathogenic and nonpathogenic species

6.

Which organism is a true amoeba?

a)

Endolimax nana

b)

Entamoeba hartmanni

c)

Iodamoeba butschlii

d)

Dientamoeba fragilis

7.

In the human GI tract, which stage is nonmotile, nonfeeding, and infective for most amoebae?

a)

Precyst

b)

Trophozoite

c)

Cyst

d)

Metacyst

8.

Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica typically show which nuclear feature?

a)

Progressive motility with hyaline pseudopods

b)

All listed characteristics

c)

Fine even peripheral chromatin

d)

Small delicate nuclear chromatin

9.

Which pathogenic trophozoite is most likely to ingest host red blood cells?

a)

Entamoeba coli

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Entamoeba hartmanni

d)

Endolimax nana

10.

A key differentiator between Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba hartmanni is which feature?

a)

Presence of peripheral chromatin

b)

Presence of chromatoidal bodies

c)

Only a cyst stage present

d)

Overall organism size

11.

A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a glycogen vacuole stained with iodine is

a)

Entamoeba nana

b)

Iodamoeba butschlii

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis

d)

Escherichia coli

12.

Some amoebae have spiny, hyaline extensions called

a)

Acanthopods

b)

Cribriform plates

c)

Limax form

d)

Pseudopods

13.

Naegleria has which characteristic?

a)

Found in mucous membranes

b)

Trophozoite can assume limax form

c)

None of the above

d)

Trophozoite can become amoeba flagellate

14.

Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage?

a)

Round

b)

Crescent shaped

c)

Oval

d)

Pear shaped

15.

Which of the following is pathognomonic of Giardia lamblia and the stage found in?

a)

Ventral sucking disc — trophozoite

b)

Cytosome — cyst

c)

Undulating membrane — trophozoite

d)

Spiral groove — trophozoite

16.

Infection with Dientamoeba fragilis can show which symptom?

a)

Nausea

b)

Body malaise

c)

Asymptomatic

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

17.

Which flagellates can be pathogens of the small intestine?

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Giardia

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

18.

Amoebae inhabiting the CNS enter the body through the

a)

Eyes

b)

Nasal mucosa

c)

Mouth

d)

Ears

19.

In which specimens are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found?

a)

All of the above

b)

Brain tissue

c)

CSF

d)

Blood

20.

All of the following are false regarding atrial flagellates basic structure, except which set? I. Flagellum II. Kinetoplast III. Blepharoplast IV. Pseudopodia V. Cytostome VI. Axial rod VII. Undulating membrane VIII. Costa IX. Parabasal body

a)

IX, VI, III, V, II, VII, I, and VIII

b)

III, VIII, IX, VII, IV, V, I, VI, and II

c)

I, IX, V, IV, VI, II, III, and VIII

d)

VIII, III, IX, IV, I, VII, II, and VI

21.

What does Dientamoeba fragilis share with Trichomonas vaginalis?

a)

Both are ciliate protozoa

b)

Both can appear as urine contaminants

c)

Neither has a cyst form

d)

All of the above

22.

Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, two nuclei, eight flagella, and an axostyle?

a)

Giardia intestinalis

b)

Lamblia duodenalis

c)

Lamblia intestinalis

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

23.

Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristic of which condition?

a)

None of the above

b)

Giardiasis

c)

Dysentery

d)

Steatorrhea

24.

A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility identified in urine is most consistent with which organism?

a)

Chilomastix mesnili

b)

Trichomonas hominis

c)

Giardia duodenalis

d)

Trichomonas vaginalis

25.

Eighty percent of Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites possess how many nuclei?

a)

Two nuclei

b)

Three nuclei

c)

No nucleus

d)

One nucleus

26.

Which single finding best explains right upper quadrant pain with a mildly vascular hypoechoic hepatic mass on ultrasound?

a)

Hepatic hemangioma

b)

Pyogenic liver abscess

c)

Focal nodular hyperplasia

d)

Simple hepatic cyst

27.

Considering the CT findings of large hypodense hepatic lesions with central fluid density, which complication should be prioritized for monitoring?

a)

Portal vein thrombosis

b)

Septic dissemination

c)

Spontaneous hepatic rupture

d)

Adrenal crisis

28.

Which social history element most increases risk for parasitic hepatic infection in this patient?

a)

Occupational exposure denied

b)

No prior diarrheal illness

c)

No sick contacts reported

d)

Recent immigration from Venezuela

29.

Which single test result most strongly supports an inflammatory process in this case?

a)

Total bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL

b)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 107 mm

c)

C-reactive protein 9.70 mg/dL

d)

Alanine transaminase 131 U/L

30.

CT images show multiple hypoenhancing hepatic lesions with sizes 79×82 mm, 78×55 mm, and 24×30 mm, plus a left adrenal nodule 11×9.1 mm. Serology is ELISA-positive for antigen of a certain protozoan parasite and negative for Echinococcus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Hepatic hemangiomas with necrosis

b)

Hydatid cyst disease of the liver

c)

Pyogenic multiloculated liver abscess

d)

Amoebic liver abscess due to E. histolytica

e)

Metastatic colorectal liver lesions

31.

Which is the most concerning immediate complication of an untreated amoebic liver abscess in this patient with large right-lobe lesions?

a)

Massive hemobilia from cystic artery erosion

b)

Hepatic encephalopathy due to ammonia rise

c)

Portal vein thrombosis with cavernous transformation

d)

Autoimmune cholangitis from immune complex deposition

e)

Rupture into the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis

32.

Match the virulence factors of Entamoeba histolytica: I. Cysteine proteinase II. Ventral sucking disc A. Cytopathic B. Cytoadherence C. Pores forming. Choose the correct pairing.

a)

I and A

b)

II and C

c)

I and C

d)

I and B

e)

II and A

33.

Which is the treatment of choice for invasive amoebiasis presenting with liver abscess?

a)

Doxycycline for intracellular bacteria

b)

Tinidazole for tissue infection

c)

Omeprazole for acid suppression

d)

Albendazole for tissue nematodes

e)

Paromomycin as monotherapy

34.

After initial tissue-active therapy for amoebic liver abscess, which luminal agent is recommended to eradicate intestinal colonization?

a)

Albendazole for ten days

b)

Metronidazole lifelong suppression

c)

Nitazoxanide single dose

d)

Tinidazole for four weeks

e)

Paromomycin for seven to ten days

35.

Which stool concentration technique is recommended for identifying Entamoeba cysts in preserved samples?

a)

Kato-Katz thick smear technique

b)

Merthiolate-iodine-formalin concentration (MIFC)

c)

Direct saline wet mount only

d)

Cellophane tape test method

e)

Formalin-ether concentration technique (FECT)

36.

All listed amoebae are commensal in humans except which pathogen?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic

b)

Entamoeba coli is commensal

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis is commensal

d)

Entamoeba dispar is commensal

e)

Endolimax nana is commensal

37.

Which defensive layer of the Entamoeba cyst resists high pH?

a)

Cystein proteinase

b)

Lectin protein coat

c)

None of the above

d)

Hyaline cystic wall

38.

Which morphologic form of Entamoeba histolytica is found in soft stool?

a)

Schizont stage

b)

Cyst stage

c)

Ova stage

d)

Trophozoite stage

39.

A 61-year-old with colicky abdominal pain and watery diarrhea shows a pear-shaped protozoan with ventral sucking disc in stool. What is the causative agent of this disease?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Entamoeba dispar

e)

Escherichia coli

40.

What is the most likely diagnosis for the patient described, considering small intestinal wall thickening and response to metronidazole?

a)

Amoebiasis

b)

Trichomoniasis

c)

Giardiasis

d)

None of the above

41.

This protozoan typically inhabits which part of the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

B and C

b)

Upper ileum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Duodenum

e)

Lower ileum

42.

The large ventral sucking disc is the ________ of this protozoan.

a)

Pathogenic determinant

b)

All of the above

c)

Pathognomonic feature

d)

Virulence factor

43.

Which non-invasive laboratory procedure can obtain duodenal content to aid identification of this protozoan?

a)

C and D

b)

Enterotube test

c)

String test

d)

Fine needle aspirate biopsy

e)

Direct fecal smear

44.

Which clinical feature best explains the patient’s relief of pain after defecation in this infection?

a)

Appendiceal obstruction

b)

Hepatic abscess formation

c)

Small-bowel gas and distension

d)

Colonic ulceration with bleeding

45.

Which laboratory finding supports malabsorption in this case of giardiasis?

a)

High C-reactive protein level

b)

Elevated serum amylase level

c)

High eosinophil count

d)

Low total protein and albumin

46.

Which feature on wet mount best distinguishes Giardia trophozoites?

a)

Cyst with four nuclei observed

b)

Leukocytes surrounding trophozoites

c)

Prominent ventral sucking disc visible

d)

Single nucleus with central karyosome

47.

What is the diagnostic stage of this protozoan detected on microscopy?

a)

Ova only

b)

Cyst and/or ova

c)

Trophozoite and/or ova

d)

Cyst only

e)

Trophozoite and/or cyst

48.

‘Passage of greasy, frothy stool’ is most often associated with chronic infection. Which option lists this description?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Steatorrhea

c)

Traveller’s diarrhea

d)

Fat globules

e)

A, B and C

49.

Which odor is often associated with acute infection by this protozoan?

a)

Rotten meat

b)

None of the above

c)

Rotten vegetable

d)

Rotten egg

e)

Rotten fish

50.

Which drug is NOT a second-line therapy for this protozoan?

a)

Furazolidone

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Quinacrine

d)

Tinidazole

e)

Paromomycin

51.

How does this protozoan multiply?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Binary fission

c)

Binary longitudinal fission

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

52.

A 35-year-old male has urethral discharge and dysuria after multiple sexual partners and inconsistent condom use. Urethral swab shows trophozoites, and symptoms resolve after a single 2 g dose of oral metronidazole within a week. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Giardiasis

d)

Syphilis

e)

Trichomoniasis

53.

In the male reproductive system, which site does this protozoan commonly inhabit?

a)

Glans penis

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Bulbourethral gland

d)

Seminal vesicles

e)

Vas deferens

54.

A female patient presents with red, punctate lesions of the cervix in the same infection. What term is used for this finding?

a)

Edematous cervix

b)

None of the above

c)

Strawberry cervix

d)

Inflamed cervix

e)

Cervical erosion

55.

Which douche type uses 10% vinegar to clean the female reproductive tract and eradicate infection?

a)

Basic douche

b)

Acidic douche

c)

Neutral douche

d)

Saturated douche

e)

Hypertonic douche

56.

Which prevention strategy is best known to control this protozoan infection?

a)

Abstinence

b)

Using condom

c)

4Cs

d)

Case finding

e)

Choice and number of sexual partners

57.

A 30-year-old woman who kept her contact lenses in tap water developed severe retinitis. Culture of the water and vitreous fluid would most likely reveal which organism?

a)

Naegleria spp.

b)

Entamoeba spp.

c)

Balantidium spp.

d)

Acanthamoeba spp.

58.

Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of which cells?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

59.

Which vector transmits a parasite only after the parasite completes development within the host?

a)

Phoretic vector

b)

Biologic vector

c)

Mechanical vector

d)

Paratenic host

60.

Which option only transports parasites without development occurring?

a)

Phoretic vector

b)

Biologic vector

c)

Definitive host

d)

Paratenic host

61.

What term refers to the number of individuals estimated to be infected with a particular parasite?

a)

Worm burden

b)

Prevalence

c)

Incidence

d)

Cumulative prevalence

62.

What term refers to the number of new cases of infection in a given period?

a)

Cumulative prevalence

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Incidence

d)

Worm burden

63.

Which term is the number of worms per infected person?

a)

Worm burden

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Morbidity

d)

Cumulative prevalence

64.

Which metric is the percent fall in egg counts after deworming?

a)

Cure rate

b)

Deworming

c)

Egg reduction rate

d)

Epidemiology

65.

Which metric is the percent of previously positive subjects who become egg-negative?

a)

Cure rate (%)

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Egg reduction rate

d)

Deworming

66.

Which approach is deworming at the individual level?

a)

Targeted treatment

b)

Universal treatment

c)

Selective treatment

d)

Global treatment

67.

Which approach is treatment at the group level?

a)

Selective treatment

b)

Targeted treatment

c)

Global treatment

d)

Universal treatment

68.

What is the proportion of the target population reached by an intervention called?

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Efficacy

c)

Efficiency

d)

Coverage

69.

Measure of the effect of a drug against an infective agent.

a)

Efficiency

b)

Efficacy

c)

Coverage

d)

Effectiveness

70.

A health education strategy that aims to encourage people to adapt and maintain healthy life practices.

a)

Information-education-communication

b)

Environmental management

c)

Environmental sanitation

d)

Sanitation

71.

Planning, organization, performance, and monitoring of activities for the modification and/or manipulation of environmental factors.

a)

Information-education-communication

b)

Environmental management

c)

Sanitation

d)

Environmental sanitation

72.

Interventions to reduce environmental health risks.

a)

Sanitation

b)

Environmental management

c)

Environmental sanitation

d)

Information-education-communication

73.

Permanent reduction to zero of the incidence of infection caused by a specific agent, as a result of deliberate efforts.

a)

Eradication

b)

Elimination

c)

All of the above

d)

Reduction

74.

Reduction to zero of the incidence of a specified disease in a defined geographic area as a result of deliberate efforts.

a)

Reduction

b)

All of the above

c)

Elimination

d)

Eradication

75.

Locomotor apparatus of atrial flagellates.

a)

Cilia

b)

Flagella

c)

Pseudopodium

d)

All of the above

76.

“Old-man with eyeglasses”.

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Giardia intestinalis

c)

All of the above

d)

Giardia duodenalis

e)

Lamblia intestinalis

77.

Ectoparasite.

a)

Neither A nor B

b)

both A and B

c)

Infestation

d)

Infection