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Conjunctivitis in Small Animals

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In dogs, conjunctivitis is most often which type of condition?

a)

Primary isolated ocular disorder

b)

Secondary to other ocular problems

c)

Always systemic infectious disease

d)

Usually parasitic conjunctival infestation

2.

Which is a noninfectious cause of canine conjunctivitis?

a)

Immune-mediated allergic atopy

b)

Feline herpesvirus infection

c)

Calicivirus oral lesions

d)

Chlamydia psittaci chemosis

3.

Which disruption can predispose dogs to bacterial conjunctivitis?

a)

Normal tear film stability

b)

Reduced tear production injury

c)

Improved nasolacrimal drainage

d)

Excessive tear overproduction

4.

In cats, which pathogen commonly causes bilateral conjunctivitis in kittens with upper respiratory signs?

a)

Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites

b)

Feline herpesvirus type one

c)

Canine distemper morbillivirus

d)

Mycoplasma gallisepticum strain

5.

Feline calicivirus is most likely to present with which combination?

a)

Purulent discharge without sneezing

b)

Profound keratitis without fever

c)

Mild conjunctivitis with oral lesions

d)

Severe unilateral chemosis only

6.

Chlamydia psittaci conjunctivitis in cats most typically appears how?

a)

Bilateral with hyperkeratosis

b)

Unilateral with chemosis

c)

Bilateral with corneal ulcers

d)

Unilateral with uveitis

7.

Which clinical sign best describes chemosis?

a)

Iris color dark pigmentation

b)

Purulent corneal abscess

c)

Conjunctival edema swelling

d)

Retinal vascular hemorrhage

8.

Which set lists typical conjunctivitis signs in small animals?

a)

Miosis, blepharospasm, cataract

b)

Hyphema, synechia, keratoconus

c)

Chemosis, hyperemia, discharge

d)

Anisocoria, glaucoma, buphthalmos

9.

Which diagnostic step directly evaluates tear production?

a)

Fundic lens examination

b)

Tonometry with applanation

c)

Schirmer tear test strip

d)

Fluorescein staining strip

10.

A cat presents with serous discharge, sneezing, and bilateral conjunctivitis. Which etiology is most consistent?

a)

Chlamydia psittaci bacteremia

b)

Primary canine bacterial flora

c)

Feline herpesvirus infection

d)

Calicivirus without oral ulcers

11.

First-line management of conjunctivitis should prioritize which action?

a)

Empirical systemic steroids only

b)

Prophylactic systemic antivirals

c)

Immediate enucleation surgery

d)

Resolve the underlying disease

12.

Which topical therapy is commonly used for uncomplicated bacterial conjunctivitis?

a)

Neo-Poly-Bac ophthalmic ointment

b)

Topical atropine every hour

c)

Systemic amikacin intravenous drip

d)

Oral doxycycline three months

13.

For a suspected viral conjunctivitis in a cat, which medication class is appropriate?

a)

Ocular antiviral agents

b)

Topical antifungal drops

c)

Intraocular vasodilators

d)

Oral antiprotozoal drugs

14.

Which client instruction is most appropriate after treating a cat’s infectious conjunctivitis?

a)

Reuse eye medications for siblings

b)

Discard eye treatments after recovery

c)

Skip future booster vaccinations

d)

Share drops with other household pets

15.

Which eyelash abnormality involves lashes originating from the Meibomian gland openings and contacting the cornea, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Trichiasis with inward-turned normal eyelashes

b)

Ectopic cilia emerging through palpebral conjunctiva

c)

Distichiasis causing lashes from gland openings

d)

Normal eyelashes aligned away from the cornea

16.

Which labeled structure is the initial opening for tear drainage on the upper eyelid in the lacrimal diagram?

a)

Upper punctum as the first drainage opening

b)

Lower canaliculus entering lacrimal sac

c)

Nasolacrimal duct opening into nares

d)

Lacrimal gland producing aqueous tears

17.

Which finding best characterizes the clinical sign pattern of epiphora?

a)

Chronic tearing with wet medial canthus hair

b)

Sudden blindness with fixed dilated pupils

c)

Dry eye with thick mucoid discharge

d)

Photophobia without periocular staining

18.

Which bedside test confirms patency of the nasolacrimal system in suspected epiphora due to obstruction?

a)

Schirmer tear test measuring basal tears

b)

Fluorescein dye with dye exiting nares

c)

Tonometry assessing intraocular pressure

d)

Direct ophthalmoscopy of the fundus

19.

A dog presents with epiphora and brown-stained hair at the medial canthus. Which complication is most consistent with this presentation?

a)

Retinal detachment from nasolacrimal reflux

b)

Uveitis causing hypopyon and synechiae

c)

Optic nerve degeneration from chronic edema

d)

Secondary bacterial dermatitis under stained hair

20.

Which management step directly addresses inadequate tear outflow without creating a new drainage pathway?

a)

Flushing the lacrimal duct to remove blockage

b)

Trimming facial hair to reduce wicking

c)

Dacryocystorhinostomy forming a new drain

d)

Topical antibiotic for periocular infection

21.

Which eyelash disorder in the diagram most likely causes focal corneal irritation from a single hair emerging through the conjunctiva?

a)

Normal eyelashes causing no irritation

b)

Trichiasis with misdirected normal lashes

c)

Ectopic cilia with a focal irritating hair

d)

Distichiasis with multiple aberrant lashes

22.

A patient has persistent epiphora despite patent nasolacrimal ducts on fluorescein testing. Which next step targets the most likely cause?

a)

Order MRI of the optic chiasm urgently

b)

Treat ocular pain and surface irritation

c)

Perform dacryocystorhinostomy surgery

d)

Start systemic antifungals immediately

23.

Which eyelid gland produces the oily layer that helps spread lubricating secretions across the tear film?

a)

Krause accessory lacrimal gland

b)

Zeis gland near the lash follicle

c)

Lacrimal gland of the superior orbit

d)

Meibomian gland of the eyelid margin

24.

Which statement best distinguishes a hordeolum from a chalazion?

a)

Hordeolum is allergic; chalazion is nutritional

b)

Hordeolum is parasitic; chalazion is mycotic

c)

Hordeolum is a granuloma; chalazion is an abscess

d)

Hordeolum is an abscess; chalazion is a granuloma

25.

A patient presents with a painless, firm eyelid nodule weeks after a tender swollen lid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Chalazion from meibomian granuloma

b)

Acute external hordeolum abscess

c)

Blepharitis due to allergens

d)

Preseptal cellulitis infection

26.

Which first-line home measure is appropriate for both hordeolum and chalazion management?

a)

Immediate systemic corticosteroids

b)

Eye patching for forty-eight hours

c)

Cold compresses with ice packs

d)

Warm compresses applied repeatedly

27.

Blepharitis is best described as which clinical condition?

a)

Inflammatory swelling of the eyelid margins

b)

Detachment of the retina from choroid

c)

Ulceration of the corneal epithelium

d)

Obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct

28.

Which organism is a common bacterial cause implicated in blepharitis?

a)

Treponema transmitted sexually

b)

Clostridium from soil exposure

c)

Pseudomonas in contact lenses

d)

Staphylococcus species colonizing lids

29.

Which set of clinical signs most strongly supports blepharitis?

a)

Severe proptosis, painful eye movements

b)

Photophobia, diplopia, afferent defect

c)

Periocular pruritus, alopecia, eye rubbing

d)

Sudden floaters, curtain-like vision loss

30.

When evaluating suspected blepharitis with possible mite or fungal involvement, which diagnostic steps are most appropriate?

a)

Complete eye exam, skin scraping, cultures

b)

Tonometry only, then orbital CT scan

c)

Fluorescein angiography exclusively

d)

Genetic testing for keratin mutations

31.

A dog with swollen, crusted eyelids and periocular pruritus is pictured. Which combined treatment plan is most appropriate?

a)

Warm compress plus targeted antimicrobials

b)

Topical anesthetic without other therapy

c)

Surgical curettage as sole management

d)

Prolonged eye patching and rest only

32.

Which statement best defines entropion in small animals?

a)

Inward rolling of the eyelid margin onto cornea

b)

Adhesion of eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva

c)

Outward rolling of the eyelid exposing conjunctiva

d)

Protrusion of the third eyelid across cornea

33.

Which statement best defines ectropion in small animals?

a)

Prolapse of gland of the third eyelid

b)

Inward rotation of eyelid rubbing the cornea

c)

Outward eversion of eyelid exposing the cornea

d)

Spasm of orbicularis causing eyelid twitching

34.

Which form of entropion is described as inherited and associated with large orbits and deep-set eyes?

a)

Acquired nonspastic from lid scarring

b)

Cicatricial entropion from chronic burns

c)

Congenital entropion with deep-set eyes

d)

Acquired spastic from corneal pain

35.

Acquired nonspastic entropion most commonly results from which process?

a)

Congenital malformation without scarring

b)

Neurologic palsy of facial nerve only

c)

Excessive tearing from allergy alone

d)

Surgical or traumatic scarring with contraction

36.

In cats, which entropion form is observed secondary to painful corneal lesions and conjunctival inflammation?

a)

Involutional age-related eyelid laxity

b)

Acquired nonspastic due to scarring

c)

Acquired spastic triggered by pain

d)

Congenital entropion with deep orbits

37.

Which combination lists typical clinical signs of entropion?

a)

Lid eversion with keratitis and purulent exudate

b)

Rolling inward, epiphora, blepharospasm, photophobia

c)

Dry eye, miosis, absent menace response only

d)

Proptosis, mydriasis, retinal detachment findings

38.

Which step is essential when diagnosing either entropion or ectropion?

a)

Rely on fluorescein alone without exam

b)

Order CT scan of orbit for all cases

c)

Measure intraocular pressure exclusively

d)

Observe lid position and interaction with globe

39.

Which treatment approach is standard for correcting clinically significant entropion?

a)

Surgical correction of the eyelid margin

b)

Corneal transplant to restore the surface

c)

Systemic antibiotics without surgery

d)

Topical lubricants as sole lifelong therapy

40.

Which client counseling point is emphasized for both entropion and ectropion?

a)

Use e-collar permanently to prevent rubbing

b)

Treat with steroids without diagnostics

c)

Delay surgery until advanced corneal ulceration

d)

Avoid breeding or purchasing predisposed animals

41.

Which clinical sign best differentiates ectropion from entropion on examination?

a)

Blepharospasm with intense corneal pain

b)

Miosis with vision loss and strabismus

c)

Eyelid eversion with exposed conjunctiva

d)

Conjunctival erythema with photophobia only

42.

Which surgical options are specifically listed for ectropion correction?

a)

Hotz-Celsus, tarsorrhaphy, wedge resection

b)

V-plasty, lateral blepharoplasty, V-Y plasty

c)

Medial canthoplasty, entropion clamp excision

d)

Levator resection, dacryocystorhinostomy

43.

A dog presents with tearing, lid rolling inward, blepharospasm, and a superficial corneal ulcer. Which diagnosis and next step are most appropriate?

a)

Conjunctivitis with oral antibiotics only

b)

Entropion with surgical correction planning

c)

Ectropion with topical steroids immediately

d)

Cherry eye with third eyelid gland removal

44.

Which structure is also called the third eyelid and helps protect the eye?

a)

Meibomian margin with lipid function

b)

Lacrimal caruncle with pigment function

c)

Corneal endothelium with barrier function

d)

Nictitating membrane with tear film function

45.

What is a primary function of the nictitating membrane in dogs?

a)

Regulating intraocular pressure hourly

b)

Anchoring extraocular muscle insertions

c)

Spreading the precorneal tear film evenly

d)

Generating visual photoreceptor signals

46.

Which description best matches the skeleton of the third eyelid?

a)

Helical ligament connecting to the sclera

b)

T-shaped cartilaginous framework embedded superficially

c)

Circular bony ring within the deep fornix

d)

Fibrous septum attached to eyelid tarsus

47.

A dog presents with a red mass at the medial canthus, mild irritation, and tearing but no pain. What condition is most likely?

a)

Uveitis with miosis and hypopyon

b)

Hypertrophy of the nictitans gland (cherry eye)

c)

Acute glaucoma causing corneal edema

d)

Deep corneal ulcer with severe pain

48.

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of cherry eye?

a)

Purulent discharge with marked chemosis

b)

Red enlargement of tissue in the medial canthus

c)

Diffuse corneal vascularization across quadrants

d)

Profound blepharospasm with photophobia

49.

What is the standard basis for diagnosing cherry eye in clinical practice?

a)

Fluorescein dye revealing epithelial loss

b)

Tonometry confirming pressure elevation

c)

Recognition of typical clinical signs alone

d)

Culture proving bacterial gland infection

50.

Which surgical principle is preferred to manage cherry eye and reduce KCS risk?

a)

Replace and tack down the prolapsed gland

b)

Excise the entire third eyelid gland

c)

Cauterize the prolapsed conjunctival tissue

d)

Transpose the lateral canthus medially

51.

Why is complete removal of the third eyelid gland discouraged in cherry eye?

a)

It causes permanent corneal melting in every case

b)

It always increases intraocular pressure drastically

c)

It may lead to keratoconjunctivitis sicca development

d)

It prevents the nictitating membrane from blinking

52.

Which statement best defines glaucoma in clinical terms?

a)

A disease of elevated intraocular pressure damaging vision

b)

An infection of the cornea causing eye redness and pain

c)

A retinal detachment with sudden loss of peripheral vision

d)

A congenital cataract leading to progressive lens opacity

53.

What is intraocular pressure (IOP) primarily determined by in a healthy eye?

a)

Balance between aqueous humor production and outflow

b)

Systemic blood pressure transmitted to choroidal vessels

c)

Elasticity of the sclera and corneal curvature only

d)

Rate of vitreous humor synthesis by ciliary body

54.

Which IOP range is considered normal in dogs and cats?

a)

Thirty-five to forty-five millimeters of mercury

b)

Two to eight millimeters of mercury

c)

Twenty-eight to thirty-eight millimeters of mercury

d)

Twelve to twenty-two millimeters of mercury

55.

An IOP above which value is diagnostic of glaucoma in small animals?

a)

Above thirty millimeters of mercury is diagnostic

b)

Above ten millimeters of mercury is diagnostic

c)

Above twenty millimeters of mercury is diagnostic

d)

Above forty-five millimeters of mercury is diagnostic

56.

Most canine glaucoma cases are due to which pathophysiologic change?

a)

Increased aqueous production by ciliary processes

b)

Decreased aqueous outflow through drainage angles

c)

Reduced corneal thickness changing tonometry readings

d)

Increased episcleral venous pressure from hypertension

57.

Which instruments are commonly used to measure IOP in veterinary practice?

a)

Slit-lamp biomicroscope or keratometer

b)

Ultrasound pachymeter or autorefractor

c)

Direct ophthalmoscope or retinoscope

d)

Schiotz tonometer or Tono-Pen devices

58.

Primary glaucoma is best characterized by which feature?

a)

Inherited angle defect typically affecting both eyes

b)

Sudden lens luxation obstructing aqueous outflow

c)

Obstruction from uveitis leading to unilateral disease

d)

Neoplastic invasion of the iridocorneal angle

59.

Secondary glaucoma most commonly results from which mechanism?

a)

Genetic malformation of the trabecular meshwork only

b)

Physiologic diurnal variation in aqueous formation

c)

Obstruction of drainage angles due to another process

d)

Age-related hardening of the crystalline lens

60.

Which description best matches acute glaucoma presentation?

a)

Severely elevated IOP over sixty millimeters causing blindness

b)

Intermittent low IOP leading to transient blurred vision

c)

Mildly elevated IOP with gradual field loss over years

d)

Normal IOP with episodic ocular discomfort and tearing

61.

Which clinical finding most suggests acute glaucoma rather than chronic glaucoma?

a)

Buphthalmos with gradual enlargement

b)

Dilated pupil sluggish to light

c)

Optic disc cupping noted chronically

d)

Corneal striae developing over weeks

62.

What is the cornerstone diagnostic step for both acute and chronic glaucoma?

a)

Fluorescein tear testing

b)

Schirmer tear production

c)

Measured intraocular pressure

d)

Orbital ultrasound imaging

63.

Which medication decreases aqueous humor production in acute glaucoma?

a)

Dorzolamide topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

b)

Pilocarpine cholinergic miotic agent

c)

Latanoprost prostaglandin analog

d)

Timolol systemic beta agonist

64.

A patient has ocular pain, vascular congestion, and diffuse corneal edema. Which immediate therapy best targets fluid outflow?

a)

Dorzolamide to inhibit aqueous secretion

b)

IV mannitol to reduce vitreous volume

c)

Latanoprost to facilitate aqueous outflow

d)

Timolol to lower ciliary production

65.

Which combination best characterizes chronic glaucoma clinical signs?

a)

Hyphema with shifting fluid levels

b)

Marked chemosis with mucopurulent discharge

c)

Acute photophobia, mid-dilated fixed pupil

d)

Buphthalmos, corneal striae, optic disc cupping

66.

In an eye blind from chronic glaucoma with persistent pain, the most appropriate definitive management is which option?

a)

Enucleation to relieve pain permanently

b)

Topical prostaglandin analog indefinitely

c)

Long-term systemic mannitol infusions

d)

Laser iridotomy for acute angle relief

67.

You suspect acute glaucoma with a nonreactive dilated pupil. Which ordered treatment sequence is most appropriate initially?

a)

Measure IOP then start topical and osmotic therapy

b)

Begin steroids then schedule optic disc imaging

c)

Order MRI then consider carbonic anhydrase drops

d)

Start antibiotics then arrange enucleation consult

68.

Which statement correctly pairs drug class with its primary IOP effect in acute management?

a)

Latanoprost alpha-agonist lowers production

b)

Timolol beta-blocker decreases IOP

c)

Dorzolamide prostaglandin increases outflow

d)

Pilocarpine anticholinergic reduces outflow

69.

Which statement best explains why acute glaucoma presentation requires immediate action?

a)

Vision loss improves after resting in darkness

b)

Pain resolves spontaneously without therapy

c)

Delay risks irreversible optic nerve damage

d)

IOP decreases naturally within several days

70.

A client asks how long their pet will need glaucoma medications. What is the most accurate response?

a)

Treatment is lifelong with ongoing monitoring

b)

Therapy lasts two months then stops

c)

Drugs are used only during pain episodes

d)

Medication is needed only in one affected eye

71.

Glaucoma is described as a progressive and often bilateral disease. Which plan best addresses these features?

a)

Schedule regular checks of the fellow eye

b)

Stop therapy when redness subsides

c)

Reduce visits because disease stabilizes

d)

Treat only the painful eye once

72.

To support a patient with advanced vision loss from glaucoma, which home advice is most appropriate?

a)

Rely on rapid visual adaptation alone

b)

Keep furniture and layout consistent

c)

Rearrange rooms weekly for enrichment

d)

Use dim lighting to reduce strain

73.

Which sequence correctly lists the corneal layers from outermost to innermost?

a)

Stroma, epithelium, endothelium, Descemet membrane

b)

Descemet membrane, endothelium, epithelium, stroma

c)

Endothelium, Descemet membrane, stroma, epithelium

d)

Epithelium, stroma, Descemet membrane, endothelium

74.

Which statement best characterizes epithelial healing in uncomplicated corneal ulcers?

a)

Always leads to stromal thinning

b)

Remains static unless surgically debrided

c)

Requires months without intervention

d)

Heals rapidly within several days

75.

Which ulcer type is most likely to fail to heal without intervention in dogs?

a)

Herpetic dendritic ulcer in cats

b)

Chemical burn superficial abrasion

c)

Acute traumatic stromal ulcer

d)

Indolent ulcer in Boxer breeds

76.

A full-thickness corneal ulcer exposes the stroma. What ocular appearance is most expected?

a)

Eye may appear white diffusely

b)

Pupil becomes pinpoint bilaterally

c)

Iris turns bright red centrally

d)

Lens develops immediate cataract

77.

Which is the most appropriate initial antimicrobial choice for an infected corneal ulcer pending culture in small animals?

a)

Topical steroid anti-inflammatory

b)

Oral antifungal prophylaxis

c)

Broad-spectrum topical antibiotic

d)

Systemic antiviral monotherapy

78.

Which cause is correctly matched with corneal ulcer risk in small animals?

a)

Glaucoma preventing epithelial adhesion

b)

Hyperthyroidism increasing aqueous humor production

c)

Retinal detachment disrupting corneal metabolism

d)

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca causing exposure and dryness

79.

A cat presents with superficial dendritic ulcers and blepharospasm. Which etiologic agent is most likely?

a)

Mycoplasma bovis strain

b)

Chlamydia psittaci infection

c)

Canine adenovirus type 2

d)

Feline herpesvirus type 1

80.

Which scenario best explains delayed healing compared to an uncomplicated epithelial defect?

a)

Ulcer is secondarily infected with bacteria

b)

Owner used an Elizabethan collar early

c)

Fluorescein stain was applied correctly

d)

Patient produced normal tear volume

81.

A dog with conformational eyelid abnormalities develops recurrent corneal ulcers. Which abnormality most directly causes corneal irritation?

a)

Ectopic cilia rubbing the cornea

b)

Macroglossia touching the eyelids

c)

Dilated pupils in dim lighting

d)

Proptosed third eyelid cartilage