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RT AnP Final — Worksheet Questions (Extraction)

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does gas exchange occur?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Trachea

c)

Bronchi

d)

Pleural cavity

2.

What are the functions of the upper airway? Select all that apply.

a)

Heat inhaled air

b)

Humidify inhaled air

c)

Protect the airway

d)

Filter particulates

e)

Taste

3.

What are the functions of the upper airway? Select all that apply.

a)

Smell

b)

Talking

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Digestion via peristalsis

e)

Blood pressure regulation

4.

What are conducting airways?

a)

Airways where gas exchange does not occur, such as the trachea and bronchi

b)

The alveoli where gas exchange occurs

c)

Pulmonary capillaries responsible for oxygen transport

d)

The pleural space surrounding the lungs

5.

What are the functions of the nose? Select all that apply.

a)

Filter inhaled air

b)

Warm inhaled air

c)

Cool inhaled air

d)

Enable gas exchange

e)

Produce speech

6.

If a patient is having nasal flaring and/or use of intercostal muscle contractions when breathing, what would this patient be showing signs of?

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Normal breathing effort

c)

Gastrointestinal distress

d)

Cardiac tamponade

7.

What structure in the upper airways is spoon shaped or leaf shaped and functions in protecting from aspiration?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Thyroid cartilage

c)

Cricoid cartilage

d)

Trachealis muscle

8.

Epiglottis anatomy (picture of it): Identify the leaf-shaped structure at the top of the image.

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Thyroid cartilage

c)

Cricoid cartilage

d)

Arytenoid cartilages

9.

Thyroid cartilage anatomy : Identify the highlighted shield-shaped cartilage at the anterior larynx.

a)

Thyroid cartilage

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Arytenoid cartilage

10.

Cricoid cartilage anatomy (picture of it): Identify the ring-shaped cartilage inferior to the thyroid cartilage.

a)

Cricoid cartilage

b)

Thyroid cartilage

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Hyoid bone

11.

If a patient needs an emergent airway to be placed, where would the incision for the emergent airway be?

a)

Cricoid ligament between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage

b)

Thyroid cartilage

c)

Tracheal rings below the cricoid cartilage

d)

Epiglottis

12.

When orally intubating a patient, what anatomical landmark confirms you are in the right spot?

a)

The breathing tube passes between the true vocal cords

b)

The tube rests in the esophagus

c)

The tube sits above the epiglottis

d)

The tube is between the false vocal cords

13.

If you are intubating a patient with an endotracheal tube and you place it too far, where would the breathing tube end up being located?

a)

Right mainstem bronchus

b)

Left mainstem bronchus

c)

Trachea above the carina

d)

Nasopharynx

14.

If a patient comes in with croup, what would be the most common finding you would expect to see?

a)

Nothing, they are fine

b)

Slow or fast heart rate

c)

Swollen epiglottis

d)

Abdomen problems

15.

When taking an x-ray, what problem is considered the thumb sign on the image?

a)

Swollen epiglottis

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Atelectasis

16.

When taking an x-ray, what would you expect when you see a church steeple sign?

a)

Swollen epiglottis

b)

Collapsed lungs

c)

Fluid in the lungs

d)

Thinned airway

17.

When ventilating a patient, what position should they be placed in?

a)

Sniffing

b)

Semi‑Fowler’s

c)

Tripod

d)

Supine

18.

A patient presents with a neck injury and you need to open the airway to intubate without worsening the injury. Which maneuver should you use?

a)

Jaw thrust

b)

Head tilt–chin lift

c)

Cricoid pressure only

d)

Bag‑valve‑mask ventilation without airway maneuver

19.

At what part of the airways does the trachea bifurcate and split into two?

a)

Carina

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Alveolar duct

d)

Laryngeal inlet

20.

Through which anatomical zone does air pass with no gas exchange?

a)

Conducting zone

b)

Respiratory zone

c)

Alveolar sacs

d)

Pulmonary capillary bed

21.

In which anatomical zone does gas exchange occur?

a)

Respiratory zone

b)

Conducting zone

c)

Trachea

d)

Terminal bronchioles

22.

Where do oxygen and carbon dioxide cross to move in and out of the alveoli?

a)

Alveolar–capillary membrane

b)

Pleural space

c)

Bronchial smooth muscle

d)

Nasal mucosa

23.

If the lungs have no surfactant, what will happen?

a)

Alveoli collapse leading to respiratory distress

b)

Increased alveolar expansion and hyperinflation

c)

Enhanced mucociliary clearance

d)

Immediate bronchodilation

24.

What carries blood away from the heart?

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

25.

What carries blood towards the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

26.

A patient has an injury at the C4 spinal region. What would you most expect?

a)

Difficulty swallowing

b)

Problem blinking due to impaired eye‑movement nerve

c)

Heart pumping problem requiring a pacemaker

d)

Patient needs to be placed on a ventilator

27.

A heavy smoker is short of breath. Which noninvasive method could you instruct to help relieve the shortness of breath?

a)

Tripod position

b)

Supine position

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Prone position

28.

What does it indicate if a patient is using accessory muscles to breathe? Select all that apply.

a)

Increased work of breathing

b)

Possible respiratory distress

c)

Effective diaphragmatic relaxation

d)

Normal resting ventilation

29.

On the sagittal upper‑airway diagram, which numbered label corresponds to the Nasopharynx?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

30.

On the sagittal upper‑airway diagram, which numbered label corresponds to the Oropharynx?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

31.

On the sagittal upper‑airway diagram, which numbered label corresponds to the Larynx?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

32.

What is the top of the lungs and the bottom of the lungs referred to as?

a)

Top = apex; bottom = base

b)

Top = base; bottom = apex

c)

Top = hilum; bottom = diaphragm

d)

Top = lobe; bottom = fissure

33.

What is the flow of blood through the heart (picture)?

a)

Vena cava → right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonic valve → pulmonary arteries to lungs → pulmonary veins from lungs → left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta to body tissues → back to vena cava

b)

Vena cava → right ventricle → tricuspid valve → right atrium → pulmonary veins → lungs → left atrium → aortic valve → left ventricle → mitral valve → aorta → back to vena cava

c)

Pulmonary veins → right atrium → mitral valve → right ventricle → aortic valve → aorta → lungs → pulmonary arteries → left atrium → tricuspid valve → left ventricle → vena cava

d)

Aorta → left ventricle → mitral valve → left atrium → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → vena cava

34.

What is the sac that encloses the heart known as?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Endocardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

Myocardium

35.

What is an inflammation of the heart sac know as?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Myocarditis

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Pleuritis

36.

What formula is used to calculate Systemic Vascular Resistance?

a)

SVR=MAP−RAPCOSVR = \frac{MAP - RAP}{CO}

b)

SVR=MAP+RAPCOSVR = \frac{MAP + RAP}{CO}

c)

SVR=MAP−CVPSVSVR = \frac{MAP - CVP}{SV}

d)

SVR=HR×MAPCOSVR = \frac{HR \times MAP}{CO}

37.

What term is used when referencing the amount of air going in and out of the lungs per breath?

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Minute ventilation

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Residual volume

38.

What is considered the normal adult tidal volume?

a)

500500 mL

b)

350350 mL

c)

800800 mL

d)

1,0001{,}000 mL

39.

What is the normal Barometric pressure when at sea level?

a)

760 mmHg

b)

700 mmHg

c)

800 mmHg

d)

600 mmHg

40.

What is know as no breathing for more than 20 seconds?

a)

Apnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Hyperpnea

41.

What is the term used to describe a respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute?

a)

Tachypnic

b)

Eupneic

c)

Bradypnic

d)

Apneic

42.

If your patient has a respiratory rate of 9 what kind of breathing is this called?

a)

Bradypnic

b)

Tachypnic

c)

Apneic

d)

Eupneic

43.

What is the normal ventilation to perfusion ratio?

a)

0.80.8

b)

1.21.2

c)

0.50.5

d)

1.01.0

44.

If a baby has underdeveloped lung what would you expect to be needed?

a)

Surfactant (artificial surfactant)

b)

Bronchodilator

c)

Diuretic

d)

Anticoagulant

45.

What is known as the volume of air in and out of the lungs per minute?

a)

Minute ventilation

b)

Tidal volume

c)

Residual volume

d)

Vital capacity

46.

How do you calculate Minute Ventilation?

a)

VE=fB×VTV_E = f_B \times V_T

b)

VE=HR×SVV_E = HR \times SV

c)

VE=VT−IRVV_E = V_T - IRV

d)

VE=MAP−RAPV_E = MAP - RAP

47.

If you have a patient with a Respiratory Rate of 12 and a tidal volume of 500. What is this patients minute ventilation?

a)

66 L per minute

b)

33 L per minute

c)

99 L per minute

d)

1212 L per minute

48.

What is anatomical dead space and what is an example of anatomical dead space?

a)

Volume in the conducting zone that is part of the body; example: a giraffe has more anatomical dead space because of a long neck

b)

Alveolar volume that participates in gas exchange; example: increased diffusion surface

c)

Artificial tubing outside the body; example: snorkel or breathing tube

d)

Collapsed alveoli; example: atelectasis

49.

What is mechanical dead space and what is an example of mechanical dead space?

a)

Volume in the conducting zone that is artificial; example: snorkel or breathing tube

b)

Natural conducting zone in the body; example: trachea and bronchi

c)

Non-ventilated perfused alveoli; example: shunt

d)

Ventilated alveoli participating in exchange; example: healthy lung

50.

What are signs of respiratory distress?

a)

Nasal flaring

b)

Use of intercostal muscles when breathing

c)

Pink frothy sputum

d)

Pursed-lip breathing

51.

If breathing tube too deep where does it go?

a)

Right mainstem bronchi (right lung)

b)

Left mainstem bronchi (left lung)

c)

Esophagus

d)

Nasopharynx

52.

What should the breathing tube pass through?

a)

Vocal cords (glottis)

b)

Esophagus

c)

Right mainstem bronchi

d)

Nasal conchae

53.

If the breathing tube is in the wrong spot where might it be instead of the trachea?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Right main bronchus

c)

Nasopharynx

d)

Laryngeal vestibule

54.

What is the Carina?

a)

Where the trachea bifurcates and splits into two bronchi

b)

The cartilage ring that closes the glottis

c)

The narrowest point of the trachea

d)

A term for the upper airway above the vocal cords

55.

What happens in the alveoli?

a)

Gas exchange occurs

b)

Mucus is produced

c)

Air is humidified

d)

Cough reflex is initiated

56.

What carries oxygen in the blood?

a)

Hemoglobin in red blood cells; a small amount dissolves in plasma

b)

Platelets transport most oxygen

c)

Albumin binds the majority of oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide carries oxygen to tissues

57.

If three hemoglobins have oxygen attached, what percent is oxygenated? (use the four boxes: 1 box has O2 and Hb = 25%, 2 boxes = 50%, 3 boxes = 75%, 4 boxes = 100%)

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

58.

If a patient is on oxygen but the O2 sat still will not increase, what problem might need correction to get the O2 up?

a)

Low red blood cell count requiring blood transfusion

b)

Upper airway obstruction requiring bronchodilator

c)

Hyperventilation causing respiratory alkalosis

d)

Excess hemoglobin causing polycythemia

59.

A patient from a suspected house fire is using accessory muscles to breathe and has blue finger tips. A finger pulse oximeter reads 100%. What BEST action should the RT take?

a)

Try another O2 sat location (ear, forehead, toe)

b)

Nothing is wrong because the O2 is good

c)

Get an ABG to clarify oxygen

d)

Check breath sounds

60.

What are factors that may shift the oxygen demand on the curve chart?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

BPG (2,3-bisphosphoglycerate)

d)

Carbon monoxide

61.

Which statement correctly describes the 40-50-60 / 70-80-90 rule relating PaO2 to SaO2?

a)

If PaO2 is 40, SaO2 is 70; if PaO2 is 50, SaO2 is 80; if PaO2 is 60, SaO2 is 90

b)

If PaO2 is 40, SaO2 is 90; if PaO2 is 50, SaO2 is 80; if PaO2 is 60, SaO2 is 70

c)

If PaO2 is 60, SaO2 is 70; if PaO2 is 50, SaO2 is 80; if PaO2 is 40, SaO2 is 90

d)

SaO2 is always equal to PaO2 plus 10

62.

What is pulmonary shunting?

a)

Blood passes alveoli without becoming oxygenated, leading to poor oxygenation

b)

Air bypasses the trachea into the esophagus

c)

Excessive ventilation of well-perfused alveoli

d)

Blood flow stops completely to a lung segment

63.

What is anatomic shunting?

a)

Blood moves from the unoxygenated to the oxygenated side through vascular pathways without oxygenating the blood

b)

Alveoli overinflate, increasing dead space

c)

Bronchoconstriction decreases airflow to alveoli

d)

Mucus plugs block ventilation causing atelectasis

64.

What kind of blood do arteries carry?

a)

Oxygenated (bright red) blood

b)

Deoxygenated (dark red) blood

c)

Mixed venous blood

d)

Carboxyhemoglobin-rich blood

65.

What kind of blood do veins carry?

a)

Deoxygenated (dark red or "blue") blood

b)

Oxygenated (bright red) blood

c)

Mixed arterial blood

d)

Highly oxygen-saturated blood

66.

What term defines low O2\mathrm{O_2} in arterial blood?

a)

Hypoxemia

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Hypercapnia

d)

Hypocapnia

67.

What is the term used to define low O2 for tissue metabolism?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hypercapnia

c)

Hyperoxia

d)

Apnea

68.

PaO2 vs PAO2: select the correct descriptions as printed on the worksheet.

a)

PaO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the arteriol

b)

PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the Alveoli.

c)

PaO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.

d)

PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the venous system.

69.

What is CO2 primarily carried by in the blood?

a)

Bicarbonate (HCO3−)

b)

Dissolved plasma only

c)

Hemoglobin-bound oxygen

d)

Platelets

70.

What is a noninvasive way to measure how a patient is ventilating?

a)

Capnometry (Capnometer) to measure CO2

b)

Arterial blood gas sampling

c)

Bronchoscopy

d)

Pulse oximetry alone

71.

Which rhythm is characterized by sawtooth wave patterns on the ECG?

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus rhythm

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

72.

Identify the rhythm shown on the ECG strip.

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Atrial flutter

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

73.

Identify the rhythm shown on the ECG strip.

a)

Sinus rhythm

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Sinus bradycardia

74.

Identify the rhythm shown on the ECG strip.

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Atrial flutter

c)

Sinus bradycardia

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

75.

Identify the rhythm shown on the ECG strip.

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

76.

Which colloquial descriptor is associated on the worksheet with ventricular fibrillation?

a)

"Tombstones"

b)

"Sawtooth"

c)

"Shark-fin"

d)

"Delta waves"

77.

Select all life‑threatening rhythms indicated by the ECG strip as labeled on the worksheet.

a)

Asystole

b)

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

78.

If your patient is in atrial flutter, how would you fix this rhythm?

a)

Synchronized cardioversion

b)

Defibrillation

c)

Adenosine bolus

d)

Carotid massage

79.

If your patient has a heart rate of 48, what would the RT’s best action be?

a)

Tell them to exercise

b)

Tell them to bear down and activate vasovagal response

c)

Administer atropine

d)

Administer morphine

80.

In emergent situations, what medicine is almost always given?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Atropine

c)

Morphine

d)

Nitroglycerin

81.

How do you calculate heart rate on an EKG that has a regular rhythm?

a)

Count the big boxes between peak R waves and divide 300 by the number of boxes.

b)

Count the R‑wave peaks in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.

c)

Divide the number of small boxes between R waves by 150.

d)

Use the PR interval to estimate beats per minute.

82.

How do you calculate heart rate on an EKG that has an irregular rhythm?

a)

Count the R‑wave peaks in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.

b)

Divide 300 by the number of big boxes between R waves.

c)

Use the QT interval to estimate beats per minute.

d)

Count small boxes between R waves and divide by 150.

83.

What is a noninvasive way to temporarily lower heart rate?

a)

Vasovagal response by telling the patient to bear down

b)

Administer atropine

c)

Give epinephrine

d)

Synchronized cardioversion

84.

What is a noninvasive way to lower a baby’s heart rate?

a)

Apply ice to the forehead

b)

Administer atropine

c)

Start chest compressions

d)

Give racemic epinephrine

85.

What is the first thing the RT should do when asystole is seen on the EKG?

a)

Check another lead

b)

Begin defibrillation immediately

c)

Administer morphine

d)

Perform carotid massage

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