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Worksheets

Musculoskeletal system and skin

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compared to older children, infectious processes develop more rapidly in the skin of newborns, with various primary and secondary morphological elements of skin rashes appearing. This is due to the following age-related characteristics:

a)

acidic skin pH

b)

a pronounced lipid layer in the skin

c)

thin epidermis, weakly connected to the dermis

d)

low absorption function of the skin

e)

low permeability of the epidermis

2.

Dysfunction of the sebaceous glands, in which increased secretion of defective sebum is observed, is typical for:

a)

mycoses

b)

seborrhea

c)

dermatoses

d)

hidradenitis

e)

common eels

3.

Disruption of the processes of proliferation and keratinization in the epidermis is characteristic of:

a)

seborrhea

b)

vitiligo

c)

psoriasis

d)

pyoderma

e)

hidradenitis

4.

Patient S., 40, has three painful, pear-shaped masses in his left armpit, raised above the skin. One of the masses has two openings in the center, through which thick pus is discharged. Characteristics of this condition include:

a)

purulent inflammation of the eccrine sweat glands

b)

purulent inflammation of the apocrine sweat glands

c)

purulent inflammation of the merocrine sweat glands

d)

development under the influence of herpes simplex viruses

e)

development only in old and senile age

5.

Hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes in primary chronic adrenal insufficiency is caused by:

a)

excess glucocorticoids

b)

excess mineralocorticoids

c)

excess melanocyte-stimulating hormone

d)

adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency

e)

beta-lipotropin deficiency

6.

Patient O., 58, has cherry-red skin, blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg, and splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal erythrocytosis, absolute neutrophilia with a hyporegenerative left nuclear shift, thrombocytosis, a slow ESR, and a sharply decreased erythropoietin level. Skin manifestations of this blood disorder include:

a)

dysfunction of the sebaceous glands

b)

disruption of keratinization and inflammation in the dermis

c)

purulent inflammation of the apocrine sweat glands

d)

skin itching, which intensifies after water procedures

e)

increased sensitivity of the skin to ultraviolet radiation

7.

After a manicure, a woman developed a purulent infection on the distal phalanx of her left index finger, which spread from under the nail fold to the nail plate. A complete blood count may reveal the following changes:

a)

absolute lymphocytosis and monocytosis

b)

absolute neutrophilia with a shift in the leukocyte formula to the left

c)

absolute neutropenia with a degenerative shift of the formula to the right

d)

leukemoid reaction of lymphoid type, leukocyte

e)

immune agranulocytosis, hapten form

8.

Diffuse fibrosis, pathological changes in the blood vessels of the skin, joints and internal organs, and pronounced thickening of the skin are characteristic of:

a)

melanoma

b)

toxicoderma

c)

systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

systemic scleroderma

e)

xeroderma pigmentosum

9.

Patient A., 32, complains of pain in the right axillary region. Examination and palpation reveal small, tender, firm, pear-shaped nodules located in the dermis. The skin is hyperemic and has a bluish tint. A necrotic core is absent. The underlying cause of this condition is:

a)

reaginic mechanism of skin damage

b)

purulent inflammation of the apocrine sweat glands

c)

purulent-necrotic lesion of the hair follicle

d)

cell-mediated allergic reaction

e)

disruption of skin keratinization by hyperkeratosis

10.

Dystrophic changes in the nail plate, accompanied by its thinning and concave spoon-shaped deformation, are called:

a)

felon

b)

koilonychia

c)

nail atrophy

d)

nail psoriasis

e)

Watch glass nails

11.

A 28-year-old woman has had hypochromic microcytic anemia for 10 years. Her skin is pale and dry, with flaking. Her hair is dry, thin, and grayish, with increased hair loss. Her nails are spoon-shaped, with pronounced longitudinal striations. These skin derivative changes are caused by a deficiency of:

a)

iron

b)

vitamin B12

c)

folic acid

d)

ascorbic acid

e)

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

12.

Patient F., 35, complains of joint pain and swelling, along with fever. She has a red, butterfly-shaped erythema on her face, affecting the bridge of her nose and both cheeks. Antinuclear antibodies and LE cells were detected, and she tested positive for lupus anticoagulant. The following factors are important in the pathogenesis of skin lesions in this disease:

a)

decreased activity of B-lymphocytes

b)

decreased activity of T-suppressors

c)

cell-mediated type of tissue damage

d)

violation of histohematic barriers

e)

enhancement of apoptotic mechanisms

13.

Patient S. complains of itching and dandruff on the scalp. Objectively: the hair is greasy and sticky. The scalp is hyperemic, oily, and flaky. Increased sebum secretion is noted on the face. These symptoms are characteristic of:

a)

scabies

b)

seborrhea

c)

psoriasis

d)

pediculosis

e)

hidradenitis

14.

Patient R., 54, with type 2 diabetes mellitus, developed a dense, bright red infiltrate up to 3 cm in diameter on the skin of his thigh, accompanied by a tingling sensation and pain. At the center of the infiltrate is a purulent-necrotic core with a pustule on the surface. The skin lesion develops as a result of a typical pathological process:

a)

ischemia

b)

tumor

c)

allergy

d)

dystrophy

e)

inflammation

15.

Patient F., 17, exhibits increased joint mobility, including dislocations, hyperextensible skin, decreased bone mineral density, and a tendency toward bone fractures. Similar symptoms have been noted in relatives. The underlying cause of connective tissue pathology in the patient is:

a)

vitamin D deficiency

b)

collagen synthesis defect

c)

degenerative joint disease

d)

autoimmune joint inflammation

e)

osteoid mineralization disorder

16.

Patient A., 25, complains of a blistering rash on the skin of her trunk and extremities. The rash is accompanied by itching, sweating, and bronchospasm. She believes the rash is caused by penicillin antibiotics. The key mediators of this disease are:

a)

histamine

b)

serotonin

c)

nitric oxide

d)

oxygen free radicals

e)

components of the complement system

17.

The leading mechanism for the development of acute urticaria is:

a)

reaginic mechanism of injury

b)

cytotoxic mechanism of damage

c)

immune complex mechanism of damage

d)

cell-mediated mechanism of injury

e)

receptor-mediated mechanism of injury

18.

Patient S., 20, complains of itchy skin and a rash on the popliteal and elbow folds. The rash is noted after eating chocolate and oranges. The skin is papular and vesicular. Total immunoglobulin E levels are elevated in the serum. The following factors play a significant role in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

activation of beta-adrenergic receptors

b)

cytolytic allergic reactions

c)

decreased production of interleukins 4, 5, 13

d)

imbalance of Th1 and Th2 cells with a predominance of Th2 response

e)

decreased ability of mast cells to release allergy mediators

19.

Hereditary predisposition plays a role in the development of the following skin lesions:

a)

trichophytosis

b)

furunculosis

c)

syphilitic lesion

d)

atopic dermatitis

e)

pyoderma

20.

In atopic dermatitis, disruption of the skin's hydrolipidic layer leads to:

a)

increasing filaggrin production

b)

increased transepidermal water loss

c)

increased production of antimicrobial peptides

d)

reduction of proliferative processes in the epidermis

e)

decreased sensitivity of the skin to various irritants

21.

An important role in the pathogenesis of allergic contact dermatitis is played by:

a)

high production of IgE antibodies

b)

high production of interleukins 4 and 5

c)

increased filaggrin in the stratum corneum of the epidermis

d)

disruption of the epidermal barrier function

e)

mast cell degranulation

22.

Local regulators of bone tissue remodeling that enhance osteoblast replication include:

a)

collagenase

b)

somatotropic hormone

c)

tumor necrosis factor

d)

lysosomal enzymes

e)

transforming growth factor-beta

23.

Systemic factors regulating bone tissue remodeling that stimulate bone formation include:

a)

estrogens

b)

thyroid hormones

c)

glucocorticosteroids

d)

parathyroid hormone

e)

proinflammatory cytokines

24.

The participation of osteoblasts in bone remodeling consists of:

a)

bone tissue nutrition

b)

synthesis of organic matrix proteins

c)

increased activity of mature osteoclasts

d)

destruction of the mineral component of bone tissue

e)

resorption of the organic component of the intercellular substance

25.

A three-year-old child exhibits frequent rib fractures with minor injuries, increased joint mobility, dental changes, and blue sclera. Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in the synthesis of:

a)

collagen type I

b)

collagen type II

c)

collagen type III

d)

collagen type IV

e)

collagen type V

26.

In patient N., 68, an X-ray examination of the musculoskeletal system revealed multifocal areas of bone destruction. These changes are associated with increased activity of the following cells:

a)
osteocytes
b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

synoviocytes

e)

chondrocytes

27.

With a constant increase in the concentration of parathyroid hormone in the blood, in contrast to its intermittent increase, the following is observed:

a)

stimulation of osteoclast metabolism

b)

increased mineralization of bone matrix

c)

increased functional activity of preosteoblasts

d)

disappearance of the corrugated edge in osteoclasts

e)

inhibition of bone resorption

28.

The most characteristic signs of osteoporosis are:

a)

sclerosis of the subchondral bone

b)

thickening of the cortical layer of bone tissue

c)

increase in bone mineral density

d)

increase in the inorganic matrix of bone tissue

e)

decrease in the number of trabeculae of spongy bone

29.

Primary involutional osteoporosis includes:

a)

iatrogenic osteoporosis

b)

juvenile osteoporosis

c)

alimentary osteoporosis

d)

idiopathic osteoporosis

e)

postmenopausal osteoporosis

30.

A marker fracture in senile osteoporosis is:

a)

femoral neck fracture

b)

vertebral body fracture

c)

fracture of the radius

d)

fracture of the humerus

e)

tibia fracture

31.

In the pathogenesis of postmenopausal osteoporosis, an important role is played by:

a)

OPG overexpression

b)

activation of the Wnt signaling pathway

c)

RANK ligand overexpression

d)

inhibition of RANKL expression by osteoblasts

e)

decrease in the production of interleukins 1-, 6

32.

Senile osteoporosis is characterized by:

a)

A. reduction of osteogenesis

b)

B. enlargement of trabecular plates

c)

C. primarily affecting spongy bones

d)

high intensity of bone metabolism

e)

development of secondary hypoparathyroidism

33.

Patient K., 58, has suffered from chronic kidney disease for 12 years and has been menopausal for nine years. Examination revealed decreased bone mineral density. This may be primarily due to:

a)

25(OH)D3 deficiency

b)

suppression of 1.25(OH)2D3 degradation

c)

expression of vitamin D3 receptors

d)

increase in cholecalciferol

e)

increase in calcitriol

34.

The most important exogenous factors that predispose to the development of osteoporosis and are associated with lifestyle and nutritional disorders include:

a)

excessive exercise, overeating

b)

Itsenko-Cushing's disease, glucocorticoid use

c)

thyrotoxicosis, hyperparathyroidism, rheumatic diseases

d)

excessive consumption of fatty and protein foods, caffeine

e)

smoking, physical inactivity, low calcium and vitamin D intake

35.

In Itsenko-Cushing's disease, the development of osteoporosis is due to the fact that glucocorticosteroids:

a)

suppress RANKL expression

b)

reduce the excretion of calcium in the urine

c)

suppress the expression of OPG (osteoprotegerin)

d)

increase osteoblast activity

e)

enhance osteoclast apoptosis

36.

Postmenopausal osteoporosis, according to the classification of osteoporosis by origin, belongs to the group:

a)

primary osteoporosis

b)

secondary osteoporosis

c)

idiopathic osteoporosis

d)

cortical osteoporosis

e)

senile osteoporosis

37.

Iatrogenic osteoporosis develops when:

a)

bed rest

b)

type 1 diabetes mellitus

c)

malabsorption syndrome

d)

renal failure

e)

long-term treatment with glucocorticoids

38.

A minor injury. She had a history of spinal pain, which worsened with physical activity and walking. Densitometry showed a T-score of -3.0. The following factors play a significant role in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

Strengthening of OPG-RANKL interaction

b)

increased synthesis of OPG by osteoblasts

c)

Excessive production of RANKL by osteoblasts

d)

reduction of the synthesis of proinflammatory cytokines

e)

inhibition of RANKL binding to RANK

39.

Overexpression of the gene encoding osteoprotegerin (OPG) results in:

a)

increased bone resorption

b)

increased synthesis of RANKL by preosteoblasts

c)

enhancing the binding of RANKL to its receptor RANK

d)

increase in the number of osteoclasts

e)

increase bone mass

40.

Patient D., 65, has lesions of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine, including osteolytic destruction and osteoporosis. Blood tests revealed moderate anemia, a significantly elevated ESR, hyperproteinemia due to paraproteins, and a high level of M-protein. Urine analysis revealed Bence Jones protein. A myelogram revealed an increase in plasma cells to 48%. Patient D.'s bone damage is associated with the development of:

a)

multiple myeloma

b)

T-cell malignant lymphoma

c)

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

d)

chronic myelocytic leukemia

e)

chronic monocytic leukemia

41.

A 60-year-old woman. Menopause occurred at age 38. She has been taking glucocorticosteroids for the past year. Her body mass index is 17.5 kg/m². Her medical history includes fractures of the distal radius and a thoracic vertebral body, which occurred with minimal trauma. This musculoskeletal disorder is characterized by:

a)

osteophyte formation

b)

degeneration of cartilage tissue

c)

thickening of the cortical bone layer

d)

structural reorganization of the subchondral bone

e)

decrease in the number of trabeculae of spongy bone

42.

In type 2 diabetes mellitus, deterioration of bone tissue quality with subsequent development of osteoporosis is associated with:

a)

decreased parathyroid hormone activity

b)

decreased collagen synthesis by osteoblasts

c)

increased synthesis of alkaline phosphatase by osteoblasts

d)

an increase in active metabolites of vitamin D

43.

In conditions of absolute estrogen deficiency, the imbalance between bone formation and bone resorption leads to:

a)

A. bone loss

b)

B. inhibition of bindingRANKL with RANK

c)

C. increased synthesis of osteoprotegerin (OPG)

d)

D. increasing bone mineral density

e)

E. activation of osteoblastogenesis

44.

Patient N., 50, has primary hyperparathyroidism. Examination revealed fibrocystic bone changes and generalized mixed-origin osteoporosis with compression fractures. A blood biochemistry analysis revealed:

a)

increase in calcium, phosphate ions and alkaline phosphatase

b)

increase in calcium and alkaline phosphatase, decrease in phosphate ions

c)

increase in calcium and phosphate ions, decrease in alkaline phosphatase

d)

decrease in calcium, increase in phosphate ions and alkaline phosphatase

e)

decrease in calcium, alkaline phosphatase and phosphate ions

45.

Patient E., 29, has been taking glucocorticoids for five years for an autoimmune disease. He has a history of recurrent spinal and rib fractures. X-ray examination revealed a significant decrease in bone density in the thoracic and lumbar spine. The mechanism of bone loss in this patient may be related to:

a)

A. inhibition of parathyroid hormone production

b)

B. suppression of osteoblast proliferation

c)

C. increased absorption of calcium in the intestine

d)

D. increased testosterone production

e)

E. increased osteoid formation

46.

Degenerative-dystrophic lesions of articular cartilage with secondary damage to the subchondral bone, synovial membrane, ligaments, capsule and periarticular muscles include:

a)

osteoporosis

b)

osteopathy

c)

osteoarthritis

d)

osteosclerosis

e)

osteomalacia

47.

In osteoarthritis, decreased resistance of articular cartilage occurs due to:

a)

increased catabolic processes in cartilage tissue

b)

increased synthesis of proteoglycans by chondrocytes

c)

increasing growth factors in cartilage tissue

d)

enhancing the shock-absorbing properties of cartilage

e)

increasing the blood supply to the cartilage

48.

BolNuyu Sh., 68, an overweight woman, presents with pain in her right hip joint and difficulty walking. An X-ray revealed a deformed femoral head, a narrowing of the joint space, severe subchondral osteosclerosis, and osteophytes on the edges of the acetabular articular surfaces. The following factors play a significant role in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

disappearance of vessels in hyaline cartilage

b)

inactivation of collagenase and phospholipase A2

c)

reduction of proteoglycans of the ground substance of cartilage

d)

increasing the resistance of cartilage to stress

e)

increase in glycosaminoglycans in the matrix

49.

In elderly and senile individuals with type 2 diabetes, the development of osteoarthritis is associated primarily with:

a)

decreased glucose in the ligaments and joint capsule

b)

increased synthetic activity of chondrocytes

c)

accumulation of glycated proteins in articular cartilage

d)

accumulation of interleukins in the joint cavity - 4, 10, 13

e)

accumulation of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid

50.

In osteoarthritis, the loss of elasticity and strength of articular cartilage is associated with:

a)

high hydrophilicity of proteoglycans

b)

an increase in the size of proteoglycan molecules

c)

excess of proteoglycan aggregates with hyaluronic acid

d)

synthesis of long-chain collagen by chondrocytes

e)

loss of the ability of proteoglycans to retain water

51.

A disease of the musculoskeletal system characterized by slow progression, the presence of mechanical-type joint pain, periodic joint blockade, and predominantly affecting the joints of the legs and distal interphalangeal joints of the hands:

a)

osteoporosis

b)

osteochondrosis

c)

gouty arthritis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

e)

osteoarthritis

52.

In case of joint defiguration, in contrast to joint deformation, the following is observed:

a)

fusion of the joint space

b)

sclerosis of bone tissue

c)

joint destruction due to immune inflammation

d)

persistent change in the shape of the joints due to the bones that form them

e)

change in the shape of the joints due to effusion and swelling of soft tissues

53.

Reactive arthritis is:

a)

autoimmune joint disease

b)

destructive joint disease

c)

metabolic joint disease

d)

infectious and inflammatory disease of the joints

e)

degenerative joint disease

54.

In patient V., 37 years old, with signs of articular syndrome, an immunological examination revealed increased concentrations of IgM and IgG in the blood to the altered Fc region of IgG. This is characteristic of:

a)

osteoporosis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

osteomalacia

d)

gouty arthritis

e)

rheumatoid arthritis

55.

In the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial membrane is infiltrated by mononuclear cells, among which the following predominate:

a)

B-lymphocytes

b)

CD4+ T cells

c)

CD8+ T cells

d)

mast cells

e)

NK cells

56.

In rheumatoid arthritis, the following are most often affected:

a)

distal interphalangeal joints

b)

proximal interphalangeal joints

c)

joints of the lumbar spine

d)

joints of the thoracic spine

e)

metacarpophalangeal joints of the 1st finger

57.

In rheumatoid arthritis, the proliferation of active fibroblasts and uncontrolled proliferating synoviocytes leads to the formation of:

a)

pannus

b)

tofus

c)

osteophytes

d)

Bouchard's nodes

e)

rheumatoid nodes

58.

Patient G., 45, presents with severe symmetrical pain, swelling, deformities, and limited motion in the proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers, wrists, and elbows, as well as morning joint stiffness before lunch. Blood tests reveal an elevated ESR of 56 mm/h, an elevated C-reactive protein of 96 mg/ml, and an elevated rheumatoid factor concentration of 120 IU/ml. The following factors are important in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

inflammation with pronounced reparation of bone and joint tissue

b)

predominance of local bone formation over bone resorption

c)

modification of arginine to citrulline in intracellular and matrix proteins

d)

inhibition of proliferation and differentiation of mature B-lymphocytes

e)

reduction of matrix metalloproteinases in the synovial intima

59.

In rheumatoid arthritis, pannus formation leads to:

a)

destruction of cartilage

b)

increased angiogenesis

c)

development of osteosclerosis

d)

inhibition of the autoimmune process

e)

suppression of fibroblast proliferation

60.

A significant role in the pathogenesis of synovitis in rheumatoid arthritis belongs to:

a)

inhibition of chemotaxis

b)

inhibition of the complement system

c)

hypoexpression of adhesion molecules

d)

hyperproduction of proinflammatory cytokines

e)

hyperproduction of growth factors

61.

Patient V., 42, complains of pain and swelling in the metacarpophalangeal, wrist, and knee joints. She also reports morning stiffness lasting two hours. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies and elevated rheumatoid factor titers were detected. The following factors play a significant role in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

atrophy of the synovial membrane

b)

deficiency of T-suppressor function of lymphocytes

c)

hyperproduction of anti-inflammatory cytokines

d)

hyperproduction of osteoprotegerin by osteoblasts

e)

fragmentation of proteoglycan aggregates

62.

A systemic disease from the group of metabolic osteopathies with excessive accumulation of unmineralized osteoid and a decrease in its mineralization:

a)

osteoporosis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

osteomalacia

d)

osteosclerosis

e)

osteoarthritis

63.

With an increase in the amount of osteoid, the following is observed:

a)

increase in bone density

b)

hypercalcification of bone structures

c)

increased anabolism in cartilage tissue

d)

abnormal flexibility and deformation of bones

e)

formation of mineralized bone structures

64.

Manifestations of osteomalacia in childhood are:

a)

rickets

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

primary hyperparathyroidism

e)

hip dysplasia

65.

An 8-month-old formula-fed child presents with general restlessness, profuse sweating, and poor sleep. The head is square with prominent frontal and parietal ridges. The occiput is flattened and bald, teeth are missing, the chest is compressed at the sides, the ribs are 'rosary beads,' there is kyphosis, generalized muscle hypotonia, and increased joint mobility. The following factors are important in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

hypercalcemia

b)

primary hyperparathyroidism

c)

hypofunction of the parathyroid glands

d)

decreased bone resorption

e)

decreased absorption of calcium in the intestine

66.

Decreased bone mineralization in rickets is observed due to:

a)

alkalosis

b)

hypokalemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypophosphatemia

e)

hypercalcemia

67.

Convulsions in children and laryngeal spasm in severe cases of rickets are caused by:

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

metabolic alkalosis

d)

hypocalcemia

e)

hypophosphatemia

68.

A 6-month-old child who is formula-fed presents with sweating, restless sleep, and irritability. Tissue turgor and muscle tone are decreased. The head is hydrocephalic. The occiput is flattened. The frontal bossing is prominent. Costal 'rosary' patterns are palpable. Laboratory examination and blood tests may reveal the following changes:

a)

increase in total protein and lipids

b)

hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia

c)

decreased parathyroid hormone and citric acid

d)

decrease in the level of 25(OH)D3 and calcitriol

e)

decreased alkaline and acid phosphatase

69.

In the pathogenesis of rachitic "rosary" and "square" head shape in rickets, the following is important:

a)

calcinosis

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

excessive osteoid formation

d)

insufficient osteoid formation

e)

insufficient mineralization of osteoid

70.

Development in Vitamin D-resistant rickets is caused by:

a)

prematurity

b)

insufficient sun exposure of the skin

c)

alimentary deficiency of vitamin D

d)

hereditary tubulopathies

e)

hereditary myopathies

71.

For osteomalacia, in contrast to osteoporosis, the most characteristic feature is:

a)

high bone mineral density

b)

reduction of unmineralized osteoid

c)

discrepancy between bone matrix formation and its mineralization

d)

low alkaline phosphatase levels in the blood

e)

absence of fractures and bone deformities

72.

Patient D., 42, experienced severe pain in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe of his right foot, along with hyperemia of the skin over the joint. His blood showed elevated uric acid levels, which are formed as a result of the following process:

a)

deamination of amino acids

b)

decarboxylation of histidine

c)

amino acid transamination

d)

purine nucleotide catabolism

e)

catabolism of pyrimidine nucleotides

73.

Tophi are:

a)

bony protrusions at the edges of joints

b)

bony protrusions at the site of tendon attachment

c)

a space-occupying lesion caused by the proliferation of connective tissue

d)

a focus of fibrinoid necrosis in the skin, surrounded by macrophages

e)

deposition of uric acid crystals in soft tissues

74.

In gout, the most characteristic kidney damage is:

a)

lupus nephritis

b)

renal amyloidosis

c)

nephrotic syndrome

d)

glomerulonephritis

e)

nephrourolithiasis

75.

To stabilize uric acid levels in the blood, patients with gout are advised to include the following in their diet:

a)

do not eat vegetables

b)

limit your intake of red meat

c)

Do not consume dairy products

d)

increase the amount of animal protein

e)

limit the intake of low-calorie foods