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Endo and Repro Anatomy MCQs (Extraction)

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 6-week pregnant woman undergoes an ultrasound that shows normal development of the paramesonephric ducts. Which of the following structures is expected to develop from these ducts?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Bulbourethral gland

c)

Seminal vesicle

d)

Prostate

e)

Fallopian tube

2.

During a routine examination, a pediatrician notes that a 2-year-old girl has ambiguous genitalia. Genetic testing reveals an XY karyotype. This is most likely due to:

a)

Excessive exposure to estrogens during pregnancy

b)

Lack of androgen exposure in utero

c)

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

d)

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

e)

5α-reductase deficiency

3.

A 10-year-old boy presents with signs of precocious puberty. Hormonal analysis indicates elevated levels of testosterone. This condition may be due to:

a)

A tumor producing gonadotropins

b)

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

c)

Leydig cell tumor

d)

Testicular torsion

e)

Sertoli cell tumor

4.

What embryological structure gives rise to the ovarian follicles?

a)

Mesonephric ducts

b)

Paramesonephric ducts

c)

Primordial germ cells

d)

Wolffian ducts

e)

Gonadal ridge

5.

Which of the following is a critical event in the development of the female external genitalia?

a)

Fusion of the labioscrotal swellings

b)

Formation of the urogenital sinus

c)

Development of the penis

d)

Absence of the SRY gene

e)

Absence of paramesonephric duct

6.

A child with a history of developmental delays is found to have a heart defect and issues related to the thymus and parathyroid glands. Genetic testing reveals a deletion in chromosome 22. This condition is most likely related to the development of which pharyngeal pouches?

a)

First and second

b)

Second and third

c)

Third and fourth

d)

First and third

e)

First and fourth

7.

A patient with a history of poor development of the upper border of the hyoid bone has an anomaly related to which pharyngeal apparatus?

a)

First pharyngeal arch

b)

Second pharyngeal arch

c)

Third pharyngeal arch

d)

Fourth pharyngeal arch

e)

First pharyngeal cleft

8.

A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital anomaly involving the development of the face and neck, specifically a cleft lip and palate. This defect is primarily due to failure of fusion of which structures?

a)

First pharyngeal arch derivatives

b)

Lateral nasal process

c)

Medial nasal process

d)

Mandibular process

e)

Lateral and medial nasal process

9.

During a routine pediatric examination, a child is found to have a fistula on the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. This abnormality is most likely due to persistence of which embryological structures?

a)

First and second pharyngeal pouch

b)

Failure of fusion of 2nd, 3rd and 4th pharyngeal cleft

c)

Thyroglossal duct

d)

Branchial sinus

e)

Pharyngeal membranes

10.

The pancreas is derived from which germ layer of embryonic development?

a)

Endoderm

b)

Neuroectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Ectoderm

e)

Neural crest

11.

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. During prenatal development, a disruption in the descent of which structure could have led to this condition?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Parathyroid gland

e)

Pineal gland

12.

The adrenal cortex originates from which embryonic layer?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

All three germ layers

e)

Neuroectoderm

13.

The first branchial arches give rise to the maxilla and mandible bones. Which of the following groups of muscles arise from the first pharyngeal arch?

a)

The muscles of mastication

b)

The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric

c)

The muscles of mastication and posterior belly of digastric muscle

d)

The muscles of mastication, digastric and geniohyoid

e)

The muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric and tensor tympani

14.

On per-rectal examination, which of the following structures can be palpated?

a)

Broad ligament

b)

Inguinal ligament

c)

Ovarian ligament

d)

Uterosacral ligament

e)

Round ligament

15.

A young boy has a hydrocele. When it is drained, the needle will not pierce which structure?

a)

Cremasteric fascia

b)

Muscle

c)

Tunica albuginea

d)

Skin

e)

Tendon

16.

Regarding lymphatic drainage of the fallopian tube, where does the majority of lymph drain to?

a)

Lumbar nodes

b)

Internal iliac nodes

c)

External iliac nodes

d)

Superficial inguinal nodes

e)

Para-aortic nodes

17.

The internal iliac artery is thrombosed in a bedridden patient. Which of the following does not require collateral circulation in this scenario?

a)

Bladder

b)

Prostate

c)

Vagina

d)

Testes

e)

Uterus

18.

The internal and external anal sphincters receive innervation from which spinal segment?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S4

d)

S3

e)

S5

19.

A 65-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Her investigations show carcinoma of the uterus and cervix. Knowing your knowledge of anatomy, the most likely lymph node involved is:

a)

External iliac nodes

b)

Internal iliac nodes

c)

Superficial inguinal nodes

d)

Internal and external iliac nodes

e)

Presacral lymph nodes

20.

Normal anatomical position of the uterus in most women is:

a)

Retroverted and anteverted

b)

Anteverted and retroverted

c)

Anteflexed and retroverted

d)

Anteverted and anteflexed

e)

Retroflexed and retroverted

21.

What is the average oblique diameter of the pelvic outlet?

a)

7.5 cm

b)

12 cm

c)

9 cm

d)

10.5 cm

e)

13.5 cm

22.

In males, which muscle empties the urethra after micturition?

a)

Superficial transverse perineal muscle

b)

Bulbospongiosus

c)

Ischiocavernosus

d)

Deep transverse perineal muscle

e)

Sphincter urethrae

23.

The rectum and anal canal have a system of anastomoses that will facilitate blood flow in the case of a blockage. Which of the following vessels drains into the portal system of veins?

a)

Median sacral vein

b)

Middle rectal vein

c)

Inferior rectal vein

d)

Superior rectal vein

e)

Lateral sacral vein

24.

The fascia in the pelvis and perineum consists of three layers that are continuous with abdominal fascial layers. Which of the following types of fascia can all be found in the deep layer of fascia?

a)

External spermatic fascia and Buck’s fascia

b)

Fascia lata and Colles’ fascia

c)

Scarpa’s fascia and dartos fascia

d)

Camper’s fascia and Buck’s fascia

e)

External spermatic fascia and dartos fascia

25.

Which of the following ligaments contains the uterine artery and is crucial for the vascular support of the uterus?

a)

Broad ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Uterosacral ligament

d)

Cardinal ligament

e)

Ovarian ligament

26.

During a radical hysterectomy procedure, the surgeon must expose the broad ligament to ligate the uterine arteries that travel within the transverse cervical ligament. Which of the following structures is most likely to be injured during this procedure?

a)

Uterosacral ligament

b)

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

c)

Ureters

d)

Sigmoid colon

e)

Bladder

27.

The thyroid gland receives venous drainage primarily through which veins?

a)

Internal jugular vein

b)

Superior thyroid and middle thyroid veins

c)

Superior, middle and inferior thyroid veins

d)

Brachiocephalic vein

e)

Subclavian vein

28.

Which of the following structures is found lateral to the thyroid gland?

a)

Trachea

b)

Esophagus

c)

Carotid sheath

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscles

e)

Trapezius

29.

A patient with a palpable mass in the left anterior triangle of the neck, just behind and below the jaw, is most likely to have an issue with which structure?

a)

Submandibular gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Carotid artery

d)

Esophagus

e)

Vagus nerve

30.

A patient who recently underwent a thyroidectomy develops difficulty in speaking, particularly in producing high-pitched sounds. Which nerve, likely affected during the surgery, controls this function?

a)

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

b)

External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

c)

Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

d)

Ansa cervicalis

e)

Accessory nerve

31.

The superficial perineal pouch is located between which two structures?

a)

Perineal membrane and superficial fascia

b)

Pelvic diaphragm and perineal membrane

c)

Ischial tuberosities and pubic symphysis

32.

The rectovesical pouch is significant in clinical examinations because it:

a)

Is the most accessible area for fluid collection in pelvic infections in females

b)

Is the site for detecting ovarian cysts in males

c)

Is the area where ascitic fluid tends to collect in males

d)

Is the location of the uterus in females

33.

The deep perineal pouch contains which of the following?

a)

Superficial perineal fat

b)

External anal sphincter

c)

Urethra and associated muscles

d)

Perineal body

34.

Which forms the superior boundary of supraclavicular triangle

a)

Clavicle

b)

Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

c)

Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

35.

The joint between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) allows for:

a)

Flexion and extension of the head

b)

Lateral flexion of the neck

c)

Rotation of the head

d)

Gliding motion of the cervical vertebrae

e)

Flexion of head

36.

The "vertebra prominens" is a term used to describe which cervical vertebra?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

C3

d)

C6

e)

C7

37.

Which structure forms the superior boundary of the pituitary fossa, limiting the pituitary gland's upward movement?

a)

Sphenoid sinus

b)

Optic chiasma

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Hypothalamus

e)

Caudate nucleus

38.

The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus by which of the following structures?

a)

Fornix

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Pinal stalk

e)

Par intermedaite lobe

39.

The pituitary gland is surrounded by which dural structure that helps to stabilize it within the sella turcica?

a)

Tentorium cerebelli

b)

Falx cerebri

c)

Diaphragm sellae

d)

Arachnoid mater

e)

Falx cerebelli

40.

Prostate urethra is lined by which of the following epithelium:

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Simple squamous

d)

Transitional epithelium

e)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

41.

Regarding Ovarian follicles, the development of secondary follicles depends upon:

a)

Luteinizing hormone

b)

Estrogen hormone

c)

Follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Progesterone

e)

Testosterone

42.

Each tubulo-alveolar gland of the mammary gland ends in which of the following ducts?

a)

Interlobular ducts

b)

Intralobular ducts

c)

Striated ducts

d)

Lactiferous ducts

e)

Acina

43.

Shehnaz, a 5-year-old with average body proportions but an unusually small stature, was taken to the pediatric outpatient department. The results of preliminary lab tests indicated a biochemical growth hormone deficit. Which kind of cell secretes this hormone among the others?

a)

Lactotropic cells

b)

Thyrotropic cells

c)

Somatotropic cells

d)

Corticotropic cells

e)

Gonadotropic cells

44.

Addisons disease is an autoimmune disease, which occurs when immune system attacks healthy tissue of adrenal cortex. Deficiency of which hormone is responsible for causing Addisons disease?

a)

Mineralocorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Adrenocorticoids

d)

Corticosteroids

e)

Cortisol

45.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – I. Glands (Endocrinology). A doctor accidentally cuts the nerve near the superior thyroid artery. Which muscle in the voice box (larynx) will stop working, making it hard to sing high notes?

a)

Back muscle of the voice box

b)

Side muscle of the voice box

c)

Cricothyroid muscle

d)

Thyroarytenoid muscle

e)

Vocal cord muscle

46.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – I. Glands (Endocrinology). When a tumor in the brain’s saddle (sella turcica) grows very large, it presses on the crossing nerves. This often causes the person to lose sight in the outer half of both eyes, a problem called:

a)

Seeing only half of the picture on one side

b)

Seeing a dark spot in the middle

c)

Tunnel vision (Bitemporal Hemianopsia)

d)

Total blindness in one eye

e)

Losing sight in the upper corner

47.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – I. Glands (Endocrinology). If a surgeon needs to remove the parathyroid glands, the small glands that control calcium, they must be careful because these glands get most of their blood from which major neck artery?

a)

Superior thyroid artery

b)

Outside carotid artery

c)

Inferior thyroid artery

d)

Middle thyroid artery

e)

Face artery

48.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – I. Glands (Endocrinology). The right adrenal gland (above the kidney) has a very short vein that drains its blood directly into the body’s largest vein, which is called the:

a)

Right kidney vein

b)

Aorta

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Liver vein

e)

Phrenic vein

49.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – I. Glands (Endocrinology). Which layer of the adrenal gland's outer part (cortex) is responsible for making the hormones that control sugar (glucocorticoids)?

a)

The inner net-like layer

b)

The outer round-ball layer

c)

The middle bundle layer (zona fasciculata)

d)

The inside core (medulla)

e)

All layers make sugar hormones

50.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – II. Pelvic Bones, Joints, and Muscles. The joint that connects the left and right pubic bones at the front of the pelvis is a type of joint that uses a strong cushion called fibrocartilage. This joint is called a:

a)

Sliding joint

b)

First type cartilage joint

c)

Second type cartilage joint (symphysis)

d)

Rope-like joint

e)

Bone fusion joint

51.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – II. Pelvic Bones, Joints, and Muscles. If a woman has a difficult childbirth, the group of muscles that forms the floor of the pelvis and holds up all the organs might be injured. What is the name of this main muscle group?

a)

Piriformis

b)

Inner thigh muscle

c)

Levator ani muscle

d)

Coccygeus muscle only

e)

Deep layer muscle

52.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – II. Pelvic Bones, Joints, and Muscles. The important nerve for feeling and movement in the groin and bottom area (pudendal nerve) travels through a special canal. This tunnel is found in the wall of the fat-filled space beside the anus. The canal is named after which doctor?

a)

Hunter’s canal

b)

Carpal tunnel

c)

Alcock’s canal

d)

Inguinal canal

e)

Femoral canal

53.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – II. Pelvic Bones, Joints, and Muscles. The piriformis muscle passes out of the pelvis through the largest opening (greater sciatic foramen). Which major nerve travels below this muscle and is the largest nerve in the body?

a)

Pudendal nerve

b)

Obturator nerve

c)

Sciatic nerve

d)

Femoral nerve

e)

Superior gluteal nerve

54.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – II. Pelvic Bones, Joints, and Muscles. A woman has her bladder pushing into her front vaginal wall (cystocele). This problem is caused by weakness in the strong sheet of tissue (fascia) that separates the bladder and the vagina, called the:

a)

Rectovesical sheet

b)

Pubocervical fascia

c)

Uterosacral band

d)

Cardinal band

e)

Back pouch of Douglas

55.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The uterine artery (the main blood vessel to the womb) travels to the uterus inside a thick, supporting band of tissue. This band is called the:

a)

Suspensory ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Cardinal ligament (transverse cervical)

d)

Uterosacral ligament

e)

Broad ligament

56.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. When a surgeon is tying off the uterine artery during surgery, they must be very careful not to accidentally clamp the tube that carries urine (the ureter). The ureter is found immediately under the artery next to the:

a)

Top part of the womb (fundus)

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

Neck of the womb (cervix)

d)

Bladder dome

e)

Ovarian blood vessels

57.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The main blood vessel for the ovary (ovarian artery) travels down from the abdomen inside the long band of tissue called the:

a)

Ovarian ligament

b)

Broad ligament

c)

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

d)

Round ligament of the uterus

e)

Uterosacral ligament

58.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. In older men, the prostate gland often swells up (BPH). The part of the prostate that gets big and squeezes the urine tube (urethra) is called the:

a)

Back layer

b)

Middle layer

c)

Transition layer

d)

Front muscle layer

e)

Central layer

59.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The vein carrying blood away from the left testicle drains into the left kidney vein first. This difference, compared to the right side, causes the left side to be much more likely to develop what problem?

a)

Fluid sac (hydrocele)

b)

Swollen tubes (epididymitis)

c)

Varicocele

d)

Twisted cord (torsion)

e)

Undescended testicle

60.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The tube that carries sperm from the testicle (ductus deferens) joins the duct from which other gland to form the ejaculatory duct?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Cowper’s gland

c)

Seminal vesicle

d)

Epididymis

e)

Urethral gland

61.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The small bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands) are located inside which specific muscle layer deep in the groin area?

a)

Psoas major muscle

b)

Rectus abdominis muscle

c)

External urethral sphincter muscle

d)

Cremaster muscle

e)

External anal sphincter

62.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. The round ligament of the uterus is a tough cord that runs through the groin area (inguinal canal) and ends up near the outer lip of the female genitalia (labium majus). This ligament is what is left of the:

a)

Old umbilical artery

b)

Müllerian duct

c)

Gubernaculum

d)

Urachus

e)

Mesonephric duct

63.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. Cancer cells from the prostate gland often spread quickly to the spine (vertebrae) and brain. This spread happens because the veins around the prostate connect directly to the special network of veins in the spine that have no valves. This network is called:

a)

Portal vein system

b)

Caval vein system

c)

Azygos vein system

d)

Batson’s plexus (internal vertebral venous plexus)

e)

Femoral vein system

64.

Anatomy & Endocrinology – III. Reproductive Organs. Lymph fluid from the outer skin of the scrotum and the outer groin area drains first into the lymph nodes located in the:

a)

Deep inguinal

b)

Para-aortic

c)

Superficial inguinal

d)

Internal iliac

e)

External iliac

65.

Laryngeal cartilages develop from:

a)

First pharyngeal arch

b)

Second pharyngeal arch

c)

Fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches

d)

Third pharyngeal arch

66.

Recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of:

a)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

67.

Thyroid gland develops from:

a)

Foramen cecum

b)

Second pharyngeal pouch

c)

Third pharyngeal pouch

d)

Fourth pharyngeal arch

68.

Inferior parathyroid glands develop from:

a)

Second pharyngeal pouch

b)

Third pharyngeal pouch

c)

Fourth pharyngeal pouch

d)

Thyroglossal duct

69.

Histologically, thyroid follicles are lined by:

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

70.

Internal Jugular Vein terminates at the level of which one of the following structures?

a)

Foramen magnum

b)

Hyoid bone

c)

Thyroid cartilage

d)

Sternoclavicular joint

e)

1st rib

71.

Which one of the following structures is enclosed by the investing layer of deep cervical fascia?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Parotid gland

c)

Strap muscles

d)

Thyroid

e)

Trachea

72.

The neuroepithelial cells proliferate in the distal end of the infundibulum and differentiate into one of the following components of the hypophysis cerebri:

a)

Nerve fibers

b)

Nerve cells

c)

Pituicytes

d)

Endothelial cells

e)

Reticular cells

73.

One of the following parts of the adrenal gland is not recognizable before the age of three years:

a)

Zona reticularis

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona glomerulosa

d)

Medulla

e)

Capsule

74.

A 4-year-old child was brought to the pediatric OPD with a history of swelling in the neck region. The father of the patient told that this painless swelling was small initially but now progressively increasing in size. On examination, the swelling is present just below the hyoid bone in the midline and is a movable mass. No oozing of fluid was noticed, and the skin was intact. These signs and symptoms suggest the following diagnosis:

a)

External cervical sinus

b)

Thyroglossal duct sinus

c)

Branchial cyst

d)

Thyroglossal duct cyst

e)

Internal cervical sinus

75.

The following endocrine gland is the first one to develop in the embryo:

a)

Adrenal

b)

Thyroid

c)

Parathyroid

d)

Pituitary

e)

Pineal

76.

The Pancreatic Islets of Langerhans develop from one of the following sources:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Surface ectoderm

c)

Neural crest cells

d)

Lateral plate mesoderm

e)

Neuroectoderm

77.

A 2-year-old child was diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome, which includes frequent infections, feeding problems, and hearing difficulty. This condition is due to failure of the development of structures from which component of the pharyngeal apparatus?

a)

First arch and pouch

b)

Second and third arch

c)

Third and fourth pharyngeal pouches

d)

First cleft and membrane

e)

Cervical sinus and second pouch

78.

A histology slide from male genital ducts shows cut sections of ducts lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia. The ducts are supported by a thin layer of smooth muscle. This is a slide of which of the following ducts?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Rete testis

c)

Vas deferens

d)

Efferent ductules

e)

Straight tubules

79.

The deeply acidophilic spherical cells having round nuclei, present in the interstitial tissue of the testes either isolated or in clusters are:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Myoblasts

c)

Leydig cells

d)

Sertoli cells

e)

Spermatid

80.

A 28-year-old lactating mother reported with pain and tenderness in the right breast. The infection did not spread to other lobes due to the presence of:

a)

Smooth muscles

b)

Ductal system

c)

Superficial fascia

d)

Fibrous septa

e)

Alveoli

81.

A 47-year-old female had a Pap smear examination of the ectocervix. This part of the cervix is covered by which type of epithelium?

a)

Pseudostratified

b)

Simple columnar

c)

Stratified columnar

d)

Stratified squamous non-keratinized

e)

Stratified squamous keratinized