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Emergency Procedure Final Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The good samaritan law is:

a)

A law that protects people who help others in emergencies from legal liability.

b)

A law that requires everyone to help in emergencies.

c)

A law that punishes people for not helping in emergencies.

d)

A law that only applies to medical professionals.

2.

Abandonment is best described as:

a)

Leaving someone or something behind without intending to return.

b)

Taking care of someone or something responsibly.

c)

Building a new relationship with someone.

d)

Returning to a place after a long time.

3.

The 4 primary goals of first aid are:

a)

Preserve life, prevent further injury, promote recovery, relieve pain

b)

Diagnose diseases, prescribe medication, perform surgery, provide therapy

c)

Increase heart rate, induce vomiting, lower blood pressure, cause sweating

d)

Administer vaccines, conduct physical exams, monitor diet, recommend exercise

4.

Which of the following are the 3 exceptions that require you to provide care to a victim?

a)

you started care and cannot abandon the victim, job responsibility, parent or guardian

b)

You are a bystander, you witnessed the incident, or you called 911.

c)

You are a minor, you are in a public place, or you are a healthcare professional.

d)

You are off-duty, you are not trained, or you do not have equipment.

5.

The 3 conditions that must be met to be found guilty of negligence are:

a)

Duty of care, breach of duty, and resulting damages

b)

Intent, motive, and opportunity

c)

Strict liability, causation, and intent

d)

Consent, knowledge, and recklessness

6.

Which of the following lists the different forms of consent?

a)

Express, Implied, Informed, and Explicit consent

b)

Verbal, Written, Non-verbal, and Passive consent

c)

Active, Passive, Silent, and Written consent

d)

Direct, Indirect, Passive, and Assumed consent

7.

The first step when responding to an emergency is:

a)

Check for Scene Safety

b)

Call for help immediately

c)

Start CPR

d)

Move the victim

8.

The rules for talking to a dispatcher when calling 9-1-1 include:

a)

Staying calm and answering all questions clearly

b)

Hanging up immediately after dialing

c)

Giving false information to the dispatcher

d)

Speaking as quickly as possible without listening

9.

Identify the 5 things to tell dispatch when calling 9-1-1.

a)

Your location, nature of emergency, your phone number, what happened, number of people involved

b)

Your favorite color, your location, your age, what you had for lunch, your phone number

c)

The weather, your location, your favorite TV show, your phone number, your pet's name

d)

Your location, your favorite movie, your phone number, your birthday, your emergency contact

10.

The difference between hepatitis B and C lies in their modes of transmission and treatment options. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Hepatitis B can be prevented with a vaccine, while hepatitis C cannot, and both have different antiviral treatments.

b)

Both hepatitis B and C can be prevented with vaccines.

c)

Hepatitis C is more commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water than hepatitis B.

d)

Hepatitis B and C are treated with the same medications.

11.

Personal protective equipment refers to items used to protect individuals from hazards. Which of the following are examples of personal protective equipment?

a)

Gloves, gown and safety goggles

b)

Books and pens

c)

Chairs and tables

d)

Shoes and socks

12.

The human body is made up of how many bones?

a)

206

b)

205

c)

210

d)

201

13.

The difference between ligaments and tendons is that:

a)

Ligaments connect bones to bones, while tendons connect muscles to bones.

b)

Ligaments connect muscles to bones, while tendons connect bones to bones.

c)

Ligaments and tendons both connect muscles to muscles.

d)

Ligaments and tendons both connect bones to muscles.

14.

The number of vertebrae in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine is:

a)

Cervical 5, Thoracic 7, Lumbar 12

b)

Cervical 7, Thoracic 12, Lumbar 5

c)

Cervical 5, Thoracic 12, Lumbar 7

d)

Cervical 12, Thoracic 5, Lumbar 7

15.

The cavities of the human body and their contents are:

a)

Cranial cavity (brain), thoracic cavity (heart and lungs), abdominal cavity (digestive organs), pelvic cavity (reproductive organs)

b)

Cranial cavity (lungs), thoracic cavity (brain), abdominal cavity (heart), pelvic cavity (digestive organs)

c)

Cranial cavity (heart), thoracic cavity (digestive organs), abdominal cavity (lungs), pelvic cavity (brain)

d)

Cranial cavity (reproductive organs), thoracic cavity (stomach), abdominal cavity (brain), pelvic cavity (lungs)

16.

The term 'anterior' refers to which of the following directions?

a)

Toward the front of the body

b)

Toward the back of the body

c)

Away from the midline of the body

d)

Toward the feet

17.

The term 'Posterior' refers to which of the following directions?

a)

Toward the back of the body

b)

Toward the front of the body

c)

Toward the head

d)

Toward the midline of the body

18.

Medial is best described as which of the following directional terms?

a)

Toward the midline of the body

b)

Away from the midline of the body

c)

Toward the head

d)

Away from the surface of the body

19.

Lateral is best described as which of the following directional terms?

a)

Away from the midline of the body

b)

Toward the midline of the body

c)

Above another part

d)

Below another part

20.

The term 'Superior' is used to describe a body part that is:

a)

Above another part or closer to the head

b)

Below another part or closer to the feet

c)

Toward the front of the body

d)

Toward the back of the body

21.

The directional term 'Inferior' is best described as:

a)

Away from the head or toward the lower part of a structure

b)

Toward the front of the body

c)

Toward the midline of the body

d)

Away from the midline of the body

22.

Proximal is best described as:

a)

Closer to the point of attachment or origin

b)

Farther from the point of attachment or origin

c)

Toward the surface of the body

d)

Away from the midline of the body

23.

Distal is best described as:

a)

Farther from the point of attachment or origin

b)

Closer to the point of attachment or origin

c)

Toward the midline of the body

d)

On the surface of the body

24.

An example of flexion is:

a)

Bending the elbow

b)

Straightening the knee

c)

Turning the head

d)

Raising the arm sideways

25.

Select an example of the following movement: Extension.

a)

Straightening the elbow

b)

Bending the knee

c)

Rotating the wrist

d)

Flexing the hip

26.

Select the correct example of ABDuction:

a)

Raising your arm sideways away from the body

b)

Bringing your arm towards the body

c)

Bending your elbow

d)

Rotating your wrist

27.

An example of ADDuction movement is:

a)

Bringing your arm towards your body

b)

Raising your arm sideways away from your body

c)

Turning your palm upwards

d)

Bending your knee

28.

What does the acronym AVPU mean?

a)

Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive

b)

Airway, Ventilation, Pulse, Urine

c)

Assessment, Vital, Pulse, Unconscious

d)

Awake, Visual, Pain, Unresponsive

29.

What does the acronym CAB mean?

a)

Circulation, Airway, Breathing

b)

Compression, Airway, Breathing

c)

Cardiac, Airway, Breathing

d)

Care, Airway, Breathing

30.

What does the acronym SAMPLE mean?

a)

Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading up to present illness/injury

b)

Symptoms, Assessment, Medications, Past injuries, Last meal, Emergency contact

c)

Signs, Allergies, Medical history, Physical exam, Last seen, Events observed

d)

Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Physical exam, Last intake, Emergency response

31.

Putting someone into the recovery position involves which of the following steps?

a)

Laying the person on their side with their head tilted back and mouth open

b)

Sitting the person upright with their legs crossed

c)

Laying the person flat on their back with arms at their sides

d)

Standing the person up and supporting them against a wall

32.

The primary assessment consists of:

a)

checking airway, breathing, and circulation

b)

measuring blood pressure and pulse only

c)

performing a full body scan

d)

taking a patient history

33.

Checking Pulse Motor Sensation involves which of the following methods?

a)

Assessing pulse, movement, and sensation in the affected limb

b)

Measuring blood pressure only

c)

Observing skin color only

d)

Listening to heart sounds

34.

CPR should be started when:

a)

the person is unresponsive, no pulse and not breathing.

b)

the person has a minor injury.

c)

the person is coughing.

d)

the person is awake and talking.

35.

Rescue breaths should be begun:

a)

when the person is not breathing normally

b)

when the person is coughing

c)

when the person is conscious and talking

d)

when the person has a minor injury

36.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 1 rescuer adult CPR is:

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:1

37.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 2 rescuer adult CPR is:

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

5:1

d)

20:2

38.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 1 rescuer child CPR is:

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

39.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 2 rescuer child CPR is:

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

40.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 1 rescuer infant CPR is:

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

41.

The ratio of compressions to breaths for 2 rescuer infant CPR is:

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

42.

Considerations for using the AED include:

a)

Ensuring the area is safe before use

b)

Using the AED only on children under 1 year old

c)

Applying the AED pads over clothing

d)

Waiting for medical professionals before using the AED

43.

Treating a choking responsive infant involves which of the following steps?

a)

Give 5 back slaps followed by 5 chest thrusts

b)

Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

c)

Give water to help swallow the object

d)

Shake the infant gently to dislodge the object

44.

Blood formation occurs in:

a)

bone marrow

b)

liver

c)

heart

d)

lungs

45.

The purposes of a bandage include:

a)

Protecting a wound and supporting an injured part

b)

Causing infection to a wound

c)

Restricting blood flow unnecessarily

d)

Making a wound worse

46.

The purposes of a dressing are:

a)

To protect a wound and promote healing

b)

To increase bleeding from a wound

c)

To cause infection in a wound

d)

To prevent the wound from closing

47.

A tourniquet should be used in which situation?

a)

When there is severe bleeding that cannot be controlled by other means

b)

For minor cuts and scrapes

c)

To treat a headache

d)

For a sprained ankle

48.

The difference in an injury to a vein, artery, and capillary can be identified by:

a)

The type and flow of blood from the wound

b)

The location of the injury on the body

c)

The amount of pain experienced

d)

The time of day the injury occurred

49.

The different forms of shock include:

a)

Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive, and obstructive shock

b)

Septic, metabolic, respiratory, and allergic shock

c)

Cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic, and renal shock

d)

Neurogenic, endocrine, muscular, and skeletal shock

50.

Signs and symptoms of shock include:

a)

Pale, cool, clammy skin

b)

Increased energy and alertness

c)

Improved digestion and appetite

d)

Warm, flushed skin

51.

DCAP BTLS is:

a)

an acronym for Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/Penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling

b)

a type of medical equipment used in trauma care

c)

a medication used to treat burns

d)

a protocol for cardiac arrest management

52.

Which of the following is the proper treatment for an impaled object?

a)

Remove the object immediately

b)

Stabilize the object and seek medical help

c)

Apply ice directly to the object

d)

Bandage tightly over the object

53.

Administering an epipen involves which of the following steps?

a)

Remove the safety cap, press the tip firmly against the outer thigh, and hold for several seconds.

b)

Inject into the arm muscle and massage the area for 10 minutes.

c)

Place the epipen under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve.

d)

Break the epipen in half and apply the liquid to the skin.

54.

The acronym PRICE represents which of the following?

a)

Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

b)

Prevention, Rest, Ice, Compression, Exercise

c)

Pressure, Recovery, Ice, Compression, Elevation

d)

Protection, Recovery, Ice, Compression, Exercise

55.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Using the word bank (Aorta, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle, Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Superior Vena Cava, Pulmonary Artery), fill in the blank for the part labeled 1).

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Pulmonary Artery

56.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Using the word bank (Aorta, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle, Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Superior Vena Cava, Pulmonary Artery), fill in the blank for the part labeled 2).

a)

Right Atrium

b)

Left Ventricle

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Aorta

57.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Using the word bank (Aorta, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle, Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Superior Vena Cava, Pulmonary Artery), fill in the blank for the part labeled 3).

a)

Right Ventricle

b)

Aorta

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Pulmonary Artery

58.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Fill in the blank for the part labeled 4).

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Left atrium

d)

Right ventricle

59.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Fill in the blank for the part labeled 5).

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Aorta

60.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Using the word bank (Aorta, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle, Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Superior Vena Cava, Pulmonary Artery), fill in the blank for the part labeled 6).

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Ventricle

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary Artery

61.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart. Using the word bank (Aorta, Right Ventricle, Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Superior Vena Cava, Pulmonary Artery), fill in the blank for the part labeled 7).

a)

Left Ventricle

b)

Aorta

c)

Right Atrium

d)

Pulmonary Artery

62.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 1 using the word bank provided.

a)

Scapula

b)

Femur

c)

Ribcage

d)

Pelvis

63.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 2 using the word bank provided.

a)

Femur

b)

Humerus

c)

Tibia

d)

Clavicle

64.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 3 using the word bank provided.

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Clavicle

c)

Femur

d)

Scapula

65.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 4 using the word bank provided.

a)

skull

b)

Femur

c)

Scapula

d)

Tibia

66.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 5 using the word bank provided.

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Scapula

d)

Patella

67.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 6 using the word bank provided.

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Radius

68.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 7 using the word bank provided.

a)

Phalanges

b)

Femur

c)

Scapula

d)

Tibia

69.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 8 using the word bank provided.

a)

Fibula

b)

Tibia

c)

Patella

d)

Humerus

70.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 9 using the word bank provided.

a)

Tibia

b)

Femur

c)

Humerus

d)

Fibula

71.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 10 using the word bank provided.

a)

Mandible

b)

Femur

c)

Clavicle

d)

Scapula

72.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 11 using the word bank provided.

a)

Sternum

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Clavicle

73.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 12 using the word bank provided.

a)

Ulna

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Humerus

74.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 13 using the word bank provided.

a)

Patella

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

75.

Refer to the diagram of the human skeleton. Fill in the blank for number 14 using the word bank provided.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Femur

c)

Scapula

d)

Patella